CPR Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which are the most commonly fractured ribs?

A

middle ribs, anterior to costal angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

supernumerary ribs

A

extra ribs in cervical or lumbar region

TOS/ issues w brachial plexus and subclavian A or asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dislocation of ribs

A

dislocation at the Sternocostal joint

sternum and costocartliage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

separation of ribs

A

separation at the Costochondral joint

rib and costocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Thoracentesis

Bw what ribs?

A

pleural cavity fluid sample taken w hypodermic needle in between intercoastal nv bundle and collateral branches

ribs 9 and 10, midaxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where do you insert a chest tub?

A

bw 5 and 6th rib

removes large amt of air, fluid, blood or pus from pleural cavity with collapsed lung/ emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

thoroscopy

A

visualization/biopsy with thoracoscope inside pleural cavity

intercostal spaces 1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

gastroschisis

A

protrusion of viscera to right of umbilical cord
amniotic fluid (saltly) = bad for GI
bowel is uncovered and floating in ^^
failure of lateral folds to pull gut in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

congenital epigastric hernia

A

midline bulge covered w skin and subcut. tissue

bw xiphoid process and umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

posterolateral defect
viscera bulge into pleural cavity that delay lung growth
on left side
failure for myoblast to partially or fully infiltrate pericardiopertioneal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lung cancer can involve what nerves due to proximity?

A

Phrenic N., Vagus N. and Recurrent Laryngeal N.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for lung cancer?

A

removal of a Lung (Pneumonectomy), a lobe of a lung (Lobectomy) or a specific Bronchopulmonary Segment (Segmentectomy) through a procedure called Lung Resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pleuritis

A

inflammation of the Pleura producing a roughness on the lungs making breathing difficult.
friction! sometimes can adhere parietal and visceral
sharp pain (ie w walking upstairs), deeper and increased breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pulmonary collapse

A

enough air enters the Pleural Cavity to break the surface tension between the two layers of Pleura
lung elasticity causes them to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pneumothorax

A

thoracic wall wound or rupture of pulmonary lesion of PC

causes entry/build up of air/pressure into the Pleural Cavity, results in a collapse of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hydrothorax

A

excess fluid in the Pleural Cavity, usually the result of fluid escape into the Pleural Cavity, or Pleural Effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hemothorax

A

blood in pleural cavity

cut of intercostal vessel/internal thoracic vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bronchial asthma

A

widespread narrowing of the airways produced by contraction of smooth muscle, edema of the mucosa and mucus in the lumen of the Bronchi and Bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bronchoscopy

A

insertion of a Bronchoscope into the trachea to visualize the Main Bronchi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

laryngeal atresia

A

failure of recanalization of larynx
CHAOS syndrome (obstruction of upper fetal airway)
airways dilated, lung enlarged, filled w fluid
diaphragm flattened/inverted, fetal ascites/hydrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tracheoesophageal fistual

A

connection bw trachea and esophagus (most common LRT)
failed foregut endoderm to proliferate rapidly
cant swallow, drools, regurgitation, GI reflux
polyhydramnios

associated with esophageal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pulmonary agenesis

A
unilateral agenesis (lack lung, lobe, bronchi)
resp bud fail to split into bronchial buds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

oligohydramnios

A

insufficient amniotic fluid production, severe retards lung devlp
assoc w renal agenesis/failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pulmonary hypoplasia

A

restriction of fetal thorax (uterine pressure)
affects stretch recpt and lung growth
decreased hydraulic pressure on lungs

higher risk of oligohydramnios <26 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

resp distress syndrome

A
rapid labored breaking 
surfactant deficiency (lung underinflated)
tachy/nasal flaring, suprasternal/intercostal/subcostal retractions, grunts/cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

congenital lung cysts

A

fluid or air filled
bronchial develp. disturbance
wheezing, cyanosis, diff breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bronchospasm

A

constriction of smooth m in bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

emphysema

A

perm enlargement of air spaces distal to term bronchiole, narrowing of bronchioles, destruction of alveolar walls
loss of gas exchange bc decrease SA
dyspnea, cough, wt loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PNA

A

inflamed lung tissue, filled w WBC (neutrophils), rbc, fibrin
big capillaries w lots rbcs
looks red/firm/heavy
fever chills, cough, decreased breath sounds, crackles in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is abnormal bv/lymphatic capillary growth via vasculogenesis called?

A

Angiomas
ex: capillary hemangioma (lots caps), cavernous hemangioma (lots venous sinuses)

form from mesenchyme, regress on their own
common in head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is called to have a right sided L ventricle?

A

ventricular inversion

ventricle folds to the right, outflow tract is on L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the name of a total heart reversal? Partial? Right heart, normal GI?

A

heterotaxia
situs inversus - total, every body organ if filled to opposite side, no consequence
situs ambiguous - partial, some organs, issue w/ venous return
r heart, norm gi - visceroatrial heterotaxia (inflow, outflow problems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What happens when the AV septum fails to fuse?

A

persistent AV canal (agnesis of av valves)

pulmonary hypertension, hard to exercise, SOB, cardiac congestion, endocarditis risk, linked down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What color does the skin changed to due to low o2 in the blood? symptoms?

A

blue - cyanosis
clubbed fingers, blue fingernail beds/lips, tired, fatigue
from mixing of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is it when you have insufficient shifting of AV septum or cardiac looping? symptoms?

A

Double outlet right ventricle
pulmonary a and aorta exit R ventricle, with VSD

symptoms: cyanosis, breathlessness, murmur, and poor weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Tetralogy of fallot

A

conotruncal ridges off center formation = aorta/pulm trunk are unequal
pulmonary stenosis, aorta overrides where pulmonary a should be, VSD, RV hypertrophies (r to l shunt, cyanosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

pulmonary valvular atresia

A

pulmonary a is closed off (semilunar valves closed)
patent foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
Rv hypoplasia

38
Q

aortic valvular stenosis

A

L ventricular hypertrophy = cardiac fail and pulm hypertension
narrowing of aortic valve
male dom, congenital, degenerative, infection (RF)

39
Q

aortic valvular atresia

A

fused valves, hypoplastic LV,

big ductus arteriosus, hypertrophy RV

40
Q

What can start as asymptotic and lead to L ventricular hypertrophy over time from less cusps?

A

bicuspid aortic valve (2 instead of 3)
associated w aortic aneurysms

regurgitation, stenosis

41
Q

tricuspid atresia

A

r AV orfice destroyed
patent foramen ovale, VSD, patent ductus arteriosis, atresia of valve cusps
hypoplastic RV, hypertrophy LV

42
Q

What is underdeveloped/not formed in hypoplastic L ventricle?

A

LV, mitral valve, aortic valve, ascending portion of aorta
acts as univentricular, only using RV (univent)
patent ductus arteriosus and patent foramen ovale (ASD)

43
Q

What can you use for coronary a bypass graft?

A

great saphenous v bc easy dissection from LE, lengthy w no branching or valves, same size
or radial a

44
Q

What is coronary angioplasty do?

A

small ballon catheter flattens plaque against the wall of coronary a to increase the size of lumen for better blood flow

45
Q

What can cause pulmonary embolism? track it runs?

A

blood clot, fat globule, air bubble embolus

a vein on R side of heart to pulmonary A

46
Q

what fills bronchiolar walls during asthma

A

eosinophils, lymphocytes, mast cells

47
Q

atrial septal defect

A

L to R shunting from increased blood to lungs and decreased pulm resistantce after lungs expand

this increased blood to lung, pulm resistance, R vent hypertrophy, CHF, then r to l shunt, cyanosis

90% ostium II (secundum, high atrial septal defect)

48
Q

left to right blood shunt causes?

A

increased work load for R ventricle = hypertrophies, which causes right to left shunts, then cyanosis

49
Q

failure of contruncal ridge formation and fusion is called? caused what else to happen?

A

persistent truncus arteriosus

VSD, mix of blood, pulm congestion, RV hypertrophy, R vent pressure increase, cyanotic cond

50
Q

failed conotruncal ridges to spiral? consequences?

A

transposition of great vessels

pulm a connected to LV, aorta to RV
survives w vsd, asd, patent ductus arteriosus

51
Q

how can pt live with pulmonary valvular atresia?

A

patent ductus arteriosis used to flow of blood from aorta into pulmonary a
patent foramen ovale
transplant if hypoplasia too bad, vsd rv to left and out aorta = univentricular heart (mix of blood)

52
Q

Which lymph nodes are most associated with breast cancer?

A

Axillary Lymph Nodes (include the Pectoral, Interpectoral, Deltopectoral, Supraclavicular and Inferior Deep Cervical Lymph Nodes
also parasternal

53
Q

what is down syndrome (trisomy 21) associated with?

A

failure of atrioventricular septa to form

54
Q

lack of blood to myocardium is caused by? And can lead to?

A

block of coronary A

myocardial infarction

55
Q

building up of lipids on the internal walls of the coronary arteries does what? leading to increase likelihood?

A

decrease the size of the lumen of vessel, can cause embolus and plugging the vessel fully.

coronary atherosclerosis

56
Q

What produces a strangling pain in the chest?

A

angina pectoris

narrow or obstructed coronary arteries that produces ischemia of myocardium

57
Q

cardiac catheterization

A

insert catheter in femoral v
into inferior vena cava
to look at RA, RV, PT, Pulm a

58
Q

what ccan you do if you AV or SA node isnt working?

A

artificial cardiac pacemaker
reg electrical impulse to ventricles via electrodes in large vein to superior vena cava into RA past valve in endocardium of trabecula carnae of RV

59
Q

irregular twitching of atrial cardiac m fibers

A

atrial fibillation

60
Q

irregular twitching of ventricle cardiac m fibers - not able to pump blood

A

ventricular fibillation

61
Q

what can you do for ventricular fibrilliation

A

defibrillation - electric shock by electrodes to cease movement in hopes it starts back up again

62
Q

Cardiac Referred Pain

A

Ischemia stimulates visceral pain sensory fibers in the heart of the Autonomic Nervous system. These visceral sensory fibers often share a spinal ganglion with the somatic sensory fibers of areas such as the upper limb and superior lateral chest wall.

63
Q

Anginal pain is typically referred to the area innervated by

A

Left Medial Brachial Cutaneous nerve, the left substernal area, left pectoral area and medial aspect of the left upper limb are often involved in this variety of referred pain.

64
Q

What is used to treat heart failure? and what is the mechanism?

A

Cardiac glycosides

inhibit Na/K atpase K binding site, increase Na, decrease Ca out (increase of ca inside to SERCA), positive inotropic effect

65
Q

Cardiac Failure causes what to happen first in the heart? And then follows with?

A

negative inotropic effect
decreased inotropy and vas compliance, increase of Blood Volume and SVR/TPR
first decreases cardiac output, then increases volume to compensate

66
Q

Inflammation of the pericardium? Causes?

A

Pericarditis
causes friction on the heart and if not treated, can calcify

can also lead to pericardial effusion

67
Q

Pericardial Effusion leads to?

A
cardiac tamponade (heart compression) makes it beat harder
accumulation of fluid or pus in the pericardial sac which can compress the heart
68
Q

Used to treat pericardial effusion/cardiac tamponade?

A

Pericardiocentesis

Drainage of blood, fluid or pus from the pericardial sac.

69
Q

where do surgeons clamp/insert tubes of a bypass machine?

A

transverse pericardial sinus

accesses area posterior to aorta and pulmonary trunk

70
Q

oligohydramnios (potters) sequence

A

still born childern
oligohydramnios -> fetal compression -> pulm hypoplasia, altered facies (nasal flaring, bridge wide, potter facies, limb hypoplasia, renal fail, club foot, breech presentation)

71
Q

in a rib fracture, what is most likely seen in an X-Ray?

A

hematoma at site of fracture, actually frac is hard to see
CT more sensitive

Can puncture kidney, liver (right side), and spleen (left side)

72
Q

air leaking in cavity with no outside intervention happens from?

A

spont pneumothorax
spon rupture of alveoli through vicseral pleura so air leaks into cavity
risks - smoke, copd, cystic fibrosis, inherited apical bleb
lung collapse, compress of mediastinal structure/vessel

73
Q

air entering thorax but can’t exit is?

A

tension pneumothorax
from trauma where injury fails to seal, + pressure ventilation during resuscitation
collapsed lung, impaired venous return -> cardiac arrest

74
Q

pulmonary meniscus sign

A

on surface of fluid seen with pleural effusion
due to surface tension between 2 diff fluids in pleural cavity (norm serous fluid and pleural effusion)
in costophrenic angles and substernal region

75
Q

coin sign

A

solitary round, circumscribed shadows on xray
can be calcified
symptomatic
causes: tuberculosis, neoplasms, cysts, vasc anomalies

76
Q

kerley lines

A

interlobular septa in pulmonary interstitium are prominent

lymph swelling makes them seen, pressing into CT making them dense

77
Q

kerley a vs b

A

a - diagonal lines from hila to periphery

b - short parallel lines at periphery perp to pleura

78
Q

causes of kerley lines

A

pulm edema, lymphoma, cancer, pna

79
Q

causes of cardiac tomponade

A

neoplasms, pericarditis, effusion due to renal fail, trauma
fiberous pericardium prevents overflow, and create issues when there is a build up of fluid because it can cause friction and decrease hr

80
Q

becks triad

A
for cardiac tamponade
distant heart sounds muffled
jugular distention - restricted venous return
hypotension
signs of shock, decreased co
treat with pericardiocentsis
81
Q

cardiac tamponade can show up as what on xray

A

water bottle heart

globular heart silhouette in xray

82
Q

what do you use echocardiography for?

A

good in utero, child
adult - probe is on ant skin, red blood flow toward, blue away
color change = turbulence and can indicate mixing of blood
can indicate blood regurgitation

83
Q

What keeps the PDA open during development?

A

prostaglandins

regulated by o2 tension and blood flow -> regulates smooth m contraction

84
Q

consequences of pda?

A

lv hypertrophy, pulmonary congestion, congestive HF
treated with indomethacin or surgery
bad if mom has rubella

85
Q

aortic lumen narrowed due to abnormal thickening of the wall is? Types?

A

coarctation of aorta
aka turner’s syndrome

postductal (after da) - not noticed bc collateral circulation through intercostal arteries and internal thoracic a
preductal - collaterals not devlp, after birth little body goes to LE, pda, death often unless repaired

86
Q

aberrant origin of R subclavian

A

distal of right dorsal aorta and 7th intercostal a (intersegmental)
r AA IV, prox part of R dorsal aorta obliterated
dysphagia and dyspnea (dorsal aorta cross esophagus to reach r ue

87
Q

double aortic arch leads to?

A

esophageal dysfunction and strangulation of trachea

vascular ring around trachea and esophagus, looks like a heart shape

88
Q

right aortic arch

A

left AA IV and left dorsal aorta obliterated, replaced by vessels on r

89
Q

dysphagia and dyspnea happens in r aortic arch because?

A

l subclavian A pass behind esophagus and ligamentum arteriosum in front of trachea to reach R side

90
Q

interrupted aortic arch

A

left and right AA IV obliterated, as well as prox part of r dorsal aorta
pda, descending aorta and subclav A supplied by blood of low 02
aortic trunk supplies 2 common carotids

91
Q

what is seen in DiGeorge syndrome? dangerous?

A

interrupted aortic arch

life threatening