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FTA > CPL Theory > Flashcards

CPL Theory Flashcards

1
Q

Hours requirements for a CPL?

A

150 total aeronautical
140 flight time as pilot
70 as PIC
20 cross country
10 instrument
5 in flight instrument
Long nav 300nm and two full stops

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2
Q

You must hold what for a CPL?
(Ratings etc)

A

Aircraft category rating (fixed wing)
Class rating (single engine)
Design feature endorsement (CSU, RG, Pressurisation)
Type rating
Completed flight review in said aircraft in past 24 months

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3
Q

What must you carry on board if you wish to exercise the privileges of a CPL

A

Class 1 medical
Pilot license
Photo ID

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4
Q

What documents must you carry on a domestic flight?

A

AFM
Operating instructions for nav systems (G1000)
MEL
MR
Maps and charts

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5
Q

What must you carry on an international flight?

A

Certificate of airworthiness and rego
Journey log
Pax list
If cargo, manifest and detailed declaration of the cargo
Radio station license
Copy of approval or authorisation held. By the operator

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6
Q

What are the requirements for an AOC!?

A

AFM
Chief pilot
Compliance statement
Dangerous goods manual
DAMP
EFB
Flight check system
Financial viability assessment
Fuel policy
Flying training authorisation
Ground handling manual
Load control system
Maintenance control manual and schedule management (100 hours)
MEL
Ops manual
Nomination of operational personnel
Safety management system (Centrik)
Technical data system
Training and checking manual
Training program management

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7
Q

Private ops under 91?

A

Personal transport of AC
Ag ops. On land owned by pilot
Aerial photography
Carry people without charge
Carry people where there is no public notice, no more than 6 pax, can cost share but no payment
Carry good but not for trade
Flight training

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8
Q

Air transport operator. Part 135

A

Charter: Carry people receiving payment in unscheduled ops
Aerial work: Aerial surveying/spotting/photography
Advertising
Ambulance functions
Carriage of goods which are the property of the pilot
RPT

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9
Q

What is found in an OPS manual?

A

Policies and procedures
They are used to increase safety margins by implementing more limiting policies
General info of the company
Dangerous goods
Safety management
Fatigue management (FMS)
Accident and incident procedures
Operational specification

MEL
CDL Config deviation list
AC perf.
Emergency evacuation procedure
International ops

Aviation rescue and firefighting
ALA guidelines

Human factors and non-technical skills
Threat and error management
Flying training organisations
Training manual

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10
Q

Day VFR commercial AC instrument requirements

A

ASI
Altimeter accurate to 100ft or 110ft if above 3300
Compass
Time piece accurate to 30 secs
Turn and slip for aerial work
OAT for aerial work
Mach if fast enough

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11
Q

If two pilots are required, what instruments are doubled and are required for day VFR?

A

ASI
Altimeter
Turn and slip
Mach indicator

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12
Q

DA-40 MEL (Day VFR)

A

ASI
Altimeter
Compass
Fuel indicators
Integrated engine instruments
Annunciation panel
Stall warning system
Fuel quantity measuring device
Seat belts for each occupied seat
AFM

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13
Q

G1000 MEL day VFR

A

PFD
MFD
ADC
Audio panel

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14
Q

When do you need to carry life jackets?

A

In a single engine, greater than distance to glide to. Land and multi is over 50nm from land

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15
Q

Dont need to wear the life. Jacket when?

A

Flying higher than 2000ft AGL
Over water when taking off or landing before an aerodrome

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16
Q

What do life jackets need to have?

A

Be inflatable
Approved by CASA
Contain a whistle except for infants

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17
Q

When do you need to carry a life raft?

A

Single engine whichever is less of distance of 100 miles or 30 mins

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18
Q

Where do you stow life rafts?

A

Stowed in compartments or containers that are marked appropriately

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19
Q

A SE AC must be fitted with an approved ELT when..?

A

Over water and not required to carry a life raft
Not capable of radio communication or capable of continuous ground-air communication

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20
Q

When an AC is required to carry a life raft, it must also carry…?

A

If it has one life raft: an approved ELT
If more than one lift raft: 1 approved ELT + 1 portable ELT or 2 portable ELTS
Supply of flares

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21
Q

When don’t you need an ELT?

A

When staying within 50nm of the AD ref point
For AG OPS
If the AC is new
If you’re flying for the purpose to fit one or if it is removed or overhauled
If it has been temporarily removed for inspection, repair or mods and an entry is made in the MR, it is marked and has not been more than 90 days

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22
Q

When must you carry survival equipment sufficient for each occupant?

A

Over designated remote areas (Tasmania, snowy mountains, central Australia)
Where you need a life raft
If directed by CASA

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23
Q

What constitutes survival equipment?

A

Whistle
Compass
Blanket
Water
Purification tablets
Fire starting equipment
Sunscreen
First aid kit
torch
Rations
Knife

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24
Q

Runway width in normal ops is?
If aircraft is under what weight it can be what and in what conditions?

A

15 metres and 10 metres if under 2000kg and light xwind

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25
Q

Slope allowance and in AG OPS

A

2% max up or down is permitted and AG OPS it is 12.5% for day and 2% for night

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26
Q

If runway is sloping more than 2%, is it allowed?

A

Yes, but takeoff only downhill and landing uphill

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27
Q

Gable marker and cone marker spacing?

A

Gable is 180m
Cone is 90m

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28
Q

Starting distances for engines

A

5m from sealed building
8m from another AC
8m from unsealed building
15m from exposed public areas

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29
Q

AC radar equipment
If it is not energised and the antenna is rotating what equipment must be how far from AC?

A

AC being refuelled
Fuel tankers or storage areas
Persons or cargo
Any other AC or hanger
120ft from the AC

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30
Q

If the radar equipment is not energised with antenna stationary, what distance from AC?

A

200ft between the beam and the stated objects previously mentioned

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31
Q

When navigating by IFR you must be how many degrees from track and positive fix every….?

A

Give or take 9 degrees and 2 hours

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32
Q

What is RAIM?

A

RAIM with fault detection detects fault in one or more of the satellites
Minimum needed is 5, With 6 satellites it removes the faulty satellite from the system

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33
Q

All fuel consumption figures
Taxi
Climb
Cruise
Holding
Final reserve
Contingency

A

2USG
14g/hr
9.8g/hr (65% 2400 and leaned for best power)
6.6g/hr (45% 2400rpm leaned best economy)
3.5USG (VFR OPS)
10% trip fuel

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34
Q

How to lean to best economy

A

Lean to rough run and then rich to smooth running and desired RPM as selected

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35
Q

Part 91 fuel requirements piston/turbojet (Private)
Final and contingency

A

Under 5700kg final is 30mins
Contingency n/a

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36
Q

VFR piston part 91 (private) above 5700kg

A

45 mins and 5% contingency

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37
Q

Part 135 (air transport ops) fuel requirements
Finres and contingency

A

Final is 45 mins and contingency 10%

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38
Q

How is final reserve calculated?

A

At 1,500ft above AD elevation in ISA conditions
Holding speed
At estimated arrival weight for destination

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39
Q

Fuel capacity for the DA40 standard tank

A

Total 41.2
Usable 40.2
Maximum indicated 2x17
Max permissible difference 10

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40
Q

Fuel capacity for the DA40 long range

A

Total 51
Usable 50
max indicated 2x16
Max indicated aux 2x19
Max permissible difference 8

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41
Q

Fuel pressure for DA40 min and max

A

14psi min
35psi max

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42
Q

Fuel flow normal limits

A

1-20/hr prohibited above 20/hr

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43
Q

When do you get a fuel warning?

A

Below 3USG

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44
Q

What colour is Mogas
Avgas 100
Avgas 100LL
Artur
High performance Avgas

A

Red
Green
Blue
Straw or no colour
Purple

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45
Q

Oil requirements

A

4-8qrts
Min 6qrts FTA

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46
Q

Oil burn

A

1qrt per 5-10 hours

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47
Q

Permitted oil

A

Ashless dispersant
Mineral oil is used to seat the piston rings in the first 50 hours

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48
Q

Oil press normal range and. Prohibited above and below

A

56-95psi normal
Below 25 and above 97

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49
Q

Oil temp normal and prohibited

A

149-230F
Above 250F

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50
Q

Do you need an alternate when landing somewhere without a TAF?

A

YES

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51
Q

Fuelling of aircraft must be separated by how much from other areas?

A

5m from sealed building
6m from another AC
9m from unsealed building
15m from exposed public area

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52
Q

What kind of extinguishers and how many?

A

2x dry powder or 1x dry powder and 1x foam

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53
Q

What distance must the fire extinguishers be positioned?

A

Within 15m but not within 6m of the fuelling equipment or AC
Can locate them on the fuelling equipment with quick release brackets

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54
Q

What happens if there is a fuel spill or fire hazard?

A

Stop everything and remove passengers to 15m or greater away and all maintenance work must cease

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55
Q

How long until you can use jerry cans after moving them?

A

15 mins

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56
Q

When is a load sheet required?

A

For air transport OPS over 5700kg

57
Q

Passenger list requirements

A

On a charter flight and leave it at the AD of departure
AC rego
Names of pax
Date and ETD
Place of arr and dept

58
Q

Can we carry firearms?

A

Only if CASA says so

59
Q

How do you store cargo?

A

Restrained under maximum accel expected during flight

60
Q

Cargo straps should be

A

Flame resistant

61
Q

Can you block emergency exits?

A

Yes as long as there are enough for. All the pax to. Get out and it has to be signposted as blocked

62
Q

Can cargo obstruct an aisle

A

Never.

63
Q

Can you store cargo on a pax. Seat?

A

Yep not over 77kg

64
Q

Placarding with cargo

A

Must be put in a place placarded with loading instructions

65
Q

Child and infant age

A

3-under 13
Under 3

66
Q

When do you need to wear a seatbelt

A

TOFF and landing
Instrument app
Less than 1000 AGL
Turbulence
When the PIC says so
Always during AG OPS

67
Q

Before you takeoff,pax must be briefed on what?

A

Smoking, none in the toilets
Seatbelts and adjusting
Location of emergency exits
Use of oxygen
Use of flotation devices
Stowage of hand luggage
Location of on-board survival equipment

68
Q

Above how many people do you need a printed version of the pax brief?

A

6 people

69
Q

Can you carry an animal and under what conditions?

A

Yes and only if the pilot says so. It must not block any exit

70
Q

Rules on smoking

A

Never on any Australian domestic air transport flight that is carrying pax
Never on a flight other than a freight only flight
For any other op, never during take off and landing, in the toilet, when the pilot says so or the non smoking sign is on

71
Q

MTOW long and short range
MLAW
MZFW
MRW

A

1200kg long range 1150 short range
1150
1150
MTOW + 4kg

72
Q

Standard baggage compartment weight
Baggage tube weight
Extended baggage compartment:forward, aft, forward + aft
Max surface load

A

30kg
5kg
45kg, 18kg, 45kg
75kg/m3

73
Q

Flight manoeuvring load accel limits normal category
Positive and negative at VA
Pos and neg at VNE
Pos and neg at TO or LDG flap

A

3.8 and -1.52
3.8 and 0
2.0 and -

74
Q

Flight manoeuvring load accel limits utility category MTOW 980kg
Pos and neg at VA
Pos and neg at VNE
Pos and neg flaps TO and LDG

A

4.4 and -1.76
4.4 and -1
2.0 and -

75
Q

What are approved manoeuvres normal category

A

All normal flight manoeuvres
Stalling
Lazy eights, Chantelle’s, steep turns not above 60deg

76
Q

What are approved manoeuvres utility category

A

Same as normal cat and steep turns not above 90 deg

77
Q

ATM explain

A

Torque is ahead of the pitch-change axis which attempts to coarsen the pitch

78
Q

DA40 prop assembly

A

Hartzell 74 inches
Stainless steel sheath to protect edges from erosion

79
Q

CSU how it works

A

Oil takes prop to coarse. If engine fails it goes to fine.
It has a woodward governor
The governor maintains the RPM set and also controls the MCP

80
Q

CSU springs how many and what are they?

A

Speeder spring
Return spring
Hub spring

81
Q

Under speed condition?

A

Think the flyweights are retracted in. The speeder spring pushes the valve down and the oil returns to the sump out of the prop. The speeder spring wants to make the blades go to fine pitch.

82
Q

Over speed condition

A

The flyweights fly out and lift up the pilot valve which allows the oil to go into the propeller and makes it go to coarse.

83
Q

What happens when. You move the pitch lever back and forward?

A

When you move it back, it makes it over speed and the oil goes into the hub to make it coarse. When it is moved forward, the spring is relaxed and the flyweights under speed and the oil leaves the hub so blades go to fine.

84
Q

Takeoff climb performance: In takeoff config, AC must be able to achieve a climb gradient of what % at VTOSS with engines at TO power

A

6%

85
Q

In a clean configured SE AC, what percentage of performance is required to climb from 50ft to 5000ft PH and MCP at not less than 1.2VS?

A

4.5%

86
Q

In a landing config, with the engines operating at TO power, an AC is required to achieve a climb gradient of what %?

A

3.2%

87
Q

For all slopes above what % must be considered?

A

1%

88
Q

What is a class B AC?

A

Anything that is not a class A AC or balloon, which is defined as not commercial, not transport category, not used for RPT

89
Q

What can we do for maintenance?

A

Remove or install landing gear if not jacking up whole AC
Pneumatic tubes of tyres
Service wheel bearings
Replace defective safety wiring or split pins, (not including in control systems)
Remove or refit a door only if no disassembly of primary structure and AFM allows it to be operated with no door
Replace side windows in un press AC
Replace seats if no disassembly of primary structure
Replace upholstery or decorative furnishings
Replace seat belts or harnesses
Replace or repair signs or markings

90
Q

What speed is VNE, VNO, VA, VFE, VS and VSO

A

178
129
111/94 (below 1036kg)
108/91
53
52(FE)

91
Q

What speed is VGL, Vcruise climb, VY, VX, VTOSS, VR, Vref, Max dem xwind, max tailwind

A

75
90
75
65 (TO flap also)
63 (climb to 50 AGL accel to 1.3VS)
60
71 dual and 67 solo
20
5

92
Q

What is the battery?

A

24V 10amp/hr lead acid which supplies DC to elec system via. The main bus

93
Q

Emergency battery

A

28 alkaline batteries contained in a tray on the co pilots side

94
Q

What does the emergency battery power?

A

Gyro power to the standby attitude indicator and flood light for. 90 mins

95
Q

Alternator how many amp/hrs above what RPM

A

Belt driven system connected to the engine. Supplies 70 amp/hrs above. 2100 rpm

96
Q

How many volts in the system And DC or AC?

A

28V DC system

97
Q

What does the essential bus power?

A

Nav/com1, transponder, flood lights, flaps, GNSS, landing light, pitot heating, AHRS, ADC

98
Q

How long does the ESS bus last?

A

30 mins

99
Q

What do the conditions of the switch have to be in if you use the ESS bus switch?

A

Alternator must be off for the ESS bus to be on

100
Q

What is the engine?

A

Lycoming IO-360 M1-A, fuel injected, 360 cubic. Inches, 180 horse

101
Q

Max TO RPM?

A

2700

102
Q

Max continuous RPM?

A

2400rpm

103
Q

Engine drainpipes

A

Engine driven pump drain, fuel distributors drain, induction manifold drain. Located at the back bottom section of engine compartment

104
Q

Fuel metering system

A

FCU likes the throttle valve and mixture to control it. Fuel flows into. The. FCU under pressure. The fuel flow sensor is fitted downstream of. The diaphragm

105
Q

When the ignition is on L which mag is grounded

A

R

106
Q

Starter motor works how

A

Engages a solenoid to move a starter pinion to engage the engine starter gear

107
Q

Exhaust smoke colours

A

Blue oil burn in. Cylinders
White high water content in combustion. Chamber
Black carbon in cylinders

108
Q

How far can the nose wheel move

A

30 degrees either side

109
Q

Nose wheel pressure?

A

29PSI

110
Q

Main gear pressure?

A

36PSI

111
Q

How long will. Good pressure last in the parking brake?

A

24 hours roughly

112
Q

How is the. Fuel quantity measured in the integrated display?

A

Has a capacitance system to measure by sensing mass and the dielectric of fuel

113
Q

Ailerons

A

Differential (moves more down than up)
Frise (protruding part under leading edge)

114
Q

Flaps

A

Electric actuators powered by an elec motor connected. To. Push rods. Redundancy of torsion tube connected to. The inboard of each flap so they are synchronised no matter what

115
Q

Horn balance

A

ON elevator and rudder. Extends forward of the hinge line

116
Q

Mass balance

A

On ailerons underneath each wing

117
Q

Stall strip

A

Wing root, causes root to stall before the tip

118
Q

Aerodynamic wing fence

A

Interferes with the boundary layer increases stability

119
Q

ADC

A

Gets data from the Pitot static system and OAT to give altitude airspeed, vertical speed, OAT to the integrated

120
Q

Integrated avionics

A

2 comms and 2 nav system

121
Q

What do you do with Rough Running engine

A

Adopt glide
Fuel pump on
Fuel tank selector fullest
Check engine instruments
Check RPM and mix setting
Alt air on
Check mags
Try throttle RPM mix settings
Make emergency landing

122
Q

Loss of oil pressure?

A

If oil pressure drops and oil temp is fine, might be false. Monitor oil temp and CHT
If oil pressure drops and oil temp and CHT rises, power to minimum
Land ASAP
Shut down engine and carry out forced landing

123
Q

High oil temp

A

Check CHT and EGT
If they are high, reduce power to minimum, land ASAP, shut down engine
If neither are high, it’s a fault. A constant. Temp of 26F is oil temp indication failure

124
Q

Engine failure on ground

A

Fuel tank off
Cabin heat off
Throttle max
Master off
Ignitions off

125
Q

Electrical fire with smoke on the ground

A

Master off
Throttle idle
Mix ICO
Ignition off

126
Q

Engine fire in flight

A

Cabin heat off
Select field
Fuel tanks off
Throttle max
Elec fuel pumps off
Master on
Carry out emergency landing with engine off

127
Q

Electrical fire with smoke in flight

A

Emergency elec switch on
Masters off
Cabin heat off
Land ASAP

128
Q

Overvoltage situation

A

ESS bus on
Alt off
Non- essential equipment off
Land. ASAP

129
Q

ALT failure

A

Check instruments for confirmation
0 amps 24 volts
Turn off ALT switch
Use ESS bus
Try limit elec usage
If can’t land before 30 mins use emergency battery

130
Q

Radio failure procedure

A

Class G remain VMC, transmit blind
Controlled airspace squawk 7600, listen out on ATIS, stay VMC, transmit blind, call on phone to ATC
YPPF do controlled airspace, track via VFR points, enter CTR at 1500, watch for light signals from tower

131
Q

AC signals
Daylight in flight
Daylight on the ground
Darkness in flight
Darkness on ground

A

Rock wings
Waggling ailerons and rudders
Flashing landing lights off and on twice
Flashing off and on twice the nav lights

132
Q

What kind of icing can we get?

A

No carb icing but can get impact icing. Below 0 within visible moisture
Remove ice by descending and use pitot heat

133
Q

Starter motor precautions

A

After 10 seconds let it rest for. 20 seconds. Do for a max of. 6 times then let rest. For. 30 mins

134
Q

What happens with prolonged idling?

A

Cools engines beyond their limit and spark plug fouling

135
Q

What happens with detonation?

A

Rough running, high temps, black smoke

136
Q

Pre-ignition is what?

A

One cylinder firing before it is supposed to

137
Q

Glide ratio

A

8:1 or approx 1.44nm horizontally for 1000ft

138
Q

Max and min day temps to. Fly for DA40 and for FTA solo and dual

A

Min -40C max 54C for. DA40
Max solo 35C and. 40C for dual for FTA

139
Q

Emergency exit DA40

A

If AC rolls on the ground, evacuate through the rear door. Hinges can be removed by lulling on the emergency release handle on. The roof in the back

FTA (6 decks)

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