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CHUF Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of incapacitation that makes the pilot totally unable to function effectively as a pilot?

A

Total incapacitation

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2
Q

Antihistamines may cause….

A

Drowsiness

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of Hepatitis?

A

Tiredness, fever progressing to jaundice

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4
Q

What is the blood circulation order?

A

Lungs - Heart (L) - Body - Heart (R) - Lungs

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5
Q

What is Hypertension?

A

High blood pressure

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6
Q

Between which heights can we breathe normal air?

A

MSL and 10,000ft

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7
Q

What is the pressure of the gas components in the atmospheric air in mm of mercury at sea level (to do with the lungs)?

A

160mm mercury of oxygen, 600mm mercury of Nitrogen and other gases. Total is 760mm mercury

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8
Q

Where is the alcohol absorbed quickly in the body?

A

Fast through the intestinal wall because of its large surface area and the stomach wall

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9
Q

Which tropical disease kills more people than any other?

A

Malaria

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10
Q

Are stimulants available over the counter?

A

Most are not and also not compatible with aircrew duties

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11
Q

What is Angina (Pectoris)?

A

It occurs when there is a partial blockage of the heart’s arteries caused by fatty deposits forming inside those arteries (atherosclerosis)

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12
Q

Which of the two involves an altered perception of reality? Psychosis or neurosis?

A

Neurosis

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13
Q

What is the proper name for Gastro?

A

Gastroenteritis (also can be food poisoning)

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14
Q

Name 6 precautions for Gastroenteritis

A

Visit only reliable restaurants, do not eat uncooked or undercooked food or food that has stayed warm for long periods, avoid seafood and shellfish especially, Be careful of dairy-based food that has not been stored in freezing conditions, for 12 hours before the flight the crew should eat different food, be prepared to allow up to 72 hours off flying after being affected.

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15
Q

What are the 5 names of the gas laws which have particular relevance in aviation?

A

Boyle’s law, Henry’s law, Dalton’s law, Charle’s law, and Graham’s law

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16
Q

What does Dalton’s law state?

A

The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressures of all the constituent gases alone

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17
Q

It is not advisable to take sleeping tables within how many hours of flying?

A

24 hours

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18
Q

What is one of the most important risk factors to consider for heart attacks?

A

Family history of heart disease

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19
Q

Of the 1% which falls under “other gases” in the troposphere, how much does Co2 comprise?

A

0.03%

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20
Q

What are factors affecting alveolar gas pressures?

A

During a climb, the partial pressure of oxygen (ppo2) falls parallel with atmospheric pressure thus reducing the movement of oxygen into the blood

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21
Q

What is a good rule of thumb to suspect over the counter medication may not be compatible with flying?

A

If it ends in “-ine”

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22
Q

Antihypertensive drugs are they compatible?

A

Yes, mostly. Consult with a DAME but should be fine

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23
Q

Where is pain felt when experiencing Angina?

A

In the chest, neck, shoulders, and arm (especially on the left side of the body).

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24
Q

What is the specific name for a blood clot formed in a blood vessel connected or in the heart?

A

Coronary thrombosis

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25
Q

What are the four states of Neurosis?

A

Anxiety, obsession, depression, phobia

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26
Q

What range of BMI is considered normal?

A

19-25

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27
Q

Do not fly for how many hours after a local anaesthetic (including dental)

A

12 hours

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28
Q

How can you get Hepatitis?

A

Polluted water, coughing, sneezing

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29
Q

Which action results from a fit or seizure?

A

Total ban on flying license

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30
Q

What is the recommended length of use for topical decongestants? (Ephedrine)

A

Maximum of 7 days in a row because rebound congestion may occur

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31
Q

What is the saying to remember how long for abstinence of alcohol?

A

Eight hours bottle to throttle

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32
Q

Are psychoactive drugs permitted even if prescribed from a regular doctor?

A

Absolutely not. If it affects our brain, we do not use it ever

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33
Q

Greater than what number is considered obese for BMI?It is also a greater increase in risk of developing the above diseases

A

Greater than 30

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34
Q

What can result from taking sedatives, tranquillisers, and anti-depressants? Name three things

A

Poor judgement, and slow, uncertain reflexes

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35
Q

Where is 90% of alcohol that we drink broken down?

A

Liver

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36
Q

What is the name of incapacitation that happens quickly? Eg: Decompression

A

Sudden incapacitation

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37
Q

Is bacteria introduced into the food we eat? (gastro question)

A

Yes

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38
Q

Ephedrine does what?

A

Found in decongestants and works by reducing swelling and constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages and widening the lung airways, allowing easier breathing

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39
Q

Name two methods a large number of the bad micro-organisms spread (for gastro)

A

Airborne and ingestion (coughing and talking and after we have been to the bathroom without washing hands properly)

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40
Q

What is the name of the heart pressure when it is contracting? This is when the pressure is higher)

A

Systolic pressure

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41
Q

What is the full requirement of abstinence of alcohol?

A

Must be clear of alcohol before flight and the eight hours must be regarded as a minimum time. Can not perform any duty until all symptoms of alcohol have left the body.

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42
Q

Would effects of donating blood increase or decrease with altitude?

A

Increase the effects

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43
Q

The Eustachian tube connects what to what?

A

Middle ear to the pharynx (part of the throat)

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44
Q

What is too much in the diet causing obesity?

A

Sugar

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45
Q

Does the removal rate of alcohol vary with individuals?

A

Yes

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46
Q

What does Graham’s law state?

A

Gas will diffuse through a membrane from high to low pressure

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47
Q

What is the name of the disease which is concerning the arteries which supply the heart muscle with blood?

A

Coronary artery disease

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48
Q

What is partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs at 10,000 ft?

A

55mm Hg

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49
Q

Greater than what number is considered overweight for BMI?

A

Greater than 25

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50
Q

What does URTI stand for?

A

Upper respiratory tract infection

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51
Q

Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for what? Carbon monoxide or oxygen?

A

CO

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52
Q

What could Hypertension lead to in the long term if left uncontrolled?

A

Kidney damage, eye damage, and enlargement of the heart

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53
Q

Do not fly for how many hours after a general anaesthetic?

A

48 hours. If you needed a general, the condition must have been serious enough to need longer recovery anyway!

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54
Q

Which of these two results in permanent denial of license? Neurosis or psychosis

A

Psychosis

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55
Q

Above which temperature does a pilot’s performance start to deteriorate?

A

32 degrees centigrade

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56
Q

What is the pressure of the gas components in the alveolar air (tiny sacs in lungs) in mm of mercury at sea level (to do with the lungs)?

A

47mm mercury of water vapour, 40mm mercury of Co2, 103mm mercury of oxygen, 570mm mercury of nitrogen and other gases. Total is 760mm mercury

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57
Q

Where do you do the pinch test for body fat?

A

Just above the hip on the abdomen

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58
Q

Which incapacitation happens slowly?

A

Subtle incapacitation

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59
Q

Can the removal rate of alcohol from the body be increased?

A

No

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60
Q

What is partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs at 33,700ft breathing pure oxygen?

A

103mm Hg

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61
Q

What is the name of a viral infection of the liver?

A

Hepatitis

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62
Q

What are sleeping drugs also called?

A

Hypnotics

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63
Q

Does altitude effect the removal rate of alcohol?

A

Yes, slower at higher altitude

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64
Q

What do we commence breathing after 10,000ft?

A

Oxygen/air mix

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65
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

Weight in kilograms over height in metres squared

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66
Q

Can early detection of Hypertension during flight medicals reduce cardiovascular diseases and deaths amongst aircrew?

A

Yes

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67
Q

Does Hypertension give any symptoms?

A

No

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68
Q

Blood alcohol level falls at what rate?

A

10-15gm/hr (1hr/std drink), or 0.01% per hour

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69
Q

Does black coffee or sleep help the removal rate of alcohol?

A

No, exercise may though

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70
Q

Can you fly if pregnant? If so, until how long?

A

Permission from a DAME is required and may be allowed into the second trimester

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71
Q

How many hours after drinking may alcohol be found in the brain cells?

A

24 hours

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72
Q

What is the other name for a faint?

A

Syncope

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73
Q

Within how many hours should a pilot not fly after donating blood?

A

24 hours

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74
Q

What is partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs at 40,000ft breathing pure oxygen?

A

55mm Hg

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75
Q

What is Diabetes?

A

Problems regulating blood sugar

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76
Q

Antihistamines can cause what?

A

Drowsiness

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77
Q

What defines Hypoglycaemia?

A

Lower than normal level of glucose (sugar) in the blood

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78
Q

What are the early signs of dehydration? Name two

A

Dry nasal cavity and prickly sensations in the eyes

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79
Q

What does Charle’s law state?

A

Under conditions of constant pressure, volume is directly proportionate to temp

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80
Q

What is an electrocardiograph?

A

It measures the heart activity under load and gives a better indication of any artery blockage

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81
Q

Pilots flying with an URTI place themselves in danger of suffering severe which two things?

A

Barotrauma and probability of suffering damage to the ears

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82
Q

What does Henry’s law state?

A

The mass of a gas that dissolves in a definite volume of liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas provided the gas does not react with the solvent

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83
Q

Which two states constitute loss of consciousness?

A

A fit or a faint

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84
Q

In the troposphere, what are the three percentages of gases found?

A

Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, Other gases 1%

85
Q

Are you allowed to fly with neurosis? If the answer is yes, what are the circumstances allowing return?

A

No, you can not fly with it. You might be able to return after a suitable period as long as there is no aid of medication

86
Q

What is the universal gas equation?

A

PVaT Pressure, Volume, Temp in Kelvin

87
Q

What 4 points must drugs be considered for?

A

The reason they are being taken, their side effects, potentiating agents (potential exacerbation of other medication), hypoxia because it can increase the effects of drugs

88
Q

What is Atherosclerosis?

A

Blocked arteries and other heart diseases

89
Q

Explain Gout

A

Excess uric acid crystallising in the joints

90
Q

What is the most common medical condition resulting in incapacitation of pilots?

A

Gastro-intestinal illness or Gastroenteritis

91
Q

As we climb above 10,000 the oxygen pressure is gradually increased to maintain how much alveolar partial pressure?

A

103mm Hg

92
Q

What does alcohol change the specific gravity of?

A

The endolymph. (This is why they do the straight line walking test for drunken people).

93
Q

Alcohol may still be found in the blood up to how many hours after the last drink?

A

14 hours

94
Q

What is Osteo-arthritis?

A

Joint and bone problems, especially hips and knees

95
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

It is a blood clot formed in an unbroken blood vessel

96
Q

What is partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs at sea level?

A

103mm Hg

97
Q

Would you lose your license if you faint?

A

No. You might need to see a DAME though depending on circumstances

98
Q

Can Hypertension lead to a stroke?

A

Yes

99
Q

Which incapacitation is when the pilot is still able to perform very limited abilities but isn’t fully incapacitated?

A

Partial incapacitation

100
Q

Can absorption of alcohol be slowed down?

A

Yes, by food in the stomach

101
Q

What should you always tell a doctor when you see them?

A

That you are a pilot

102
Q

Give four requirements for defining effective exercise

A

It has to be regular, at least 20 mins duration in each exercise period, a minimum of 3 times a week, and sufficient to approximately double resting heart rate

103
Q

Boyle’s law states what?

A

Under constant temp, as the pressure reduces, the gas expands

104
Q

Does alcohol affect sound sleep?

A

Yes, it may. Despite putting you to sleep initially (knocking you out) it plays havoc with the REM cycle in sleep

105
Q

What is the name of the heart pressure when the heart chambers relax and refill with blood?

A

Diastolic pressure

106
Q

Hyperventilation means what?

A

Breathing in and out at an excessive rate to remove Co2

107
Q

What are 4 causes for hyperventilation?

A

Anxiety, fear, intense exercise, emotional stress

108
Q

If we breathe too quickly, we will lose too much Co2 which can cause the blood to get what?

A

Alkalinic in which this person is said to have Alkalosis

109
Q

Can hypoxia cause hyperventilation

A

Yes

110
Q

What are 7 signs and symptoms of hyperventilation?

A

Tingling, stiffening/spasm, visual disturbances, hot or cold feelings, anxiety, impaired performance, loss of consciousness

111
Q

At altitudes of above 10,000ft what should you always give the benefit of the doubt for hyperventilation? What countermeasures should you take?

A

Hypoxia first and give oxygen and/or descend immediately

112
Q

At altitudes below 10,000ft what three things should you do to ease hyperventilation?

A

Consciously relax, concentrate on breathing slowly and shallowly, breathe in and out of a paper bag

113
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

It occurs when oxygen available to the tissues is insufficient to meet their needs

114
Q

Oxygen question: Air only is required and maybe only some higher function impairment - which altitude range?

A

0-10,000ft

115
Q

Oxygen question: Increased percentage of oxygen in breathing gas required - what is the alt range?

A

10,000ft - 33,700ft

116
Q

What altitude range do we need 100% oxygen?

A

33,700-40,000ft

117
Q

Above which height do we need 100% oxygen under pressure?

A

40,000ft

118
Q

What is hypoxic hypoxia?

A

When there is insufficient oxygenation of the blood at the lungs due to a decrease in partial pressure of oxygen (ppO2) in the alveoli

119
Q

What is anaemic hypoxia? What can cause it?

A

Decrease in red blood cells available for O2 transport Can be from severe bleeding or iron deficiency. It can also be caused by abnormally high carbon monoxide presence in the blood because that reduces the haemoglobin’s capacity to carry O2

120
Q

What is stagnant hypoxia?

A

Due to circulatory problems. Could be from heart not pumping enough volume of blood around the body

121
Q

What is histoxic hypoxia?

A

Basically cell poison. Comes from alcohol and cyanide. It prevents the cells taking in oxygen

122
Q

What are two signs of hypoxia?

A

Euphoria/personality change, cyanosis (blue fingers due to de-oxygenation of haemoglobin)

123
Q

What are all the times of useful consciousness at altitudes? TUC

A

30 mins at 18,000ft

2-3 mins at 25,000ft

45-75 seconds at 30,000ft

20-30 seconds at 40,000ft

12-15 seconds at 45,000ft

124
Q

Does time effect hypoxia?

A

Yes, the longer the time the greater the effect

125
Q

How does exercise affect hypoxia?

A

While flying and experiencing hypoxia it makes it worse as it increases demand for oxygen but if you regularly exercise outside of flying, it will make you less susceptible

126
Q

Does being cold make hypoxia worse or better?

A

Makes it worse as you need to generate more energy to stay warm which demands more oxygen and increases hypoxia

127
Q

Fatigue lowers or raises the threshold for hypoxia symptoms?

A

Lowers

128
Q

How does smoking affect hypoxia?

A

Carbon monoxide produced by smoking binds to haemoglobin with a far greater affinity than oxygen and therefore has the effect of reducing the available haemoglobin for oxygen transport, making it worse

129
Q

How does G force affect hypoxia?

A

Redues circulation and cardiac efficiency.

130
Q

How to deal with hypoxia (give two)

A

Suppy oxygen and descend immediately

131
Q

Loss of cabin pressure in seconds is called?

A

Rapid decompression

132
Q

Loss of cabin press in milliseconds is called?

A

Explosive decompression

133
Q

8 signs of rapid decompression?

A

Noise, sudden extreme drop in temp, rapid air movement, expansion within the body leading to flatus, cabin misting as temp drops and rel humidity rises, forced exhalation, decompression sickness, cabin altitude higher than outside (venturi effect)

134
Q

Slow decompression symptoms (give 7)

A

Progressive drowsiness, yawning, euphoria, sleep, unconsciousness, coma, death

135
Q

What are the three bones inside the middle ear called collectively and separately?

A

Ossicles, they are malleus, incus, stapes

136
Q

What converts mechanical vibrations arriving via the ossicles into nerve signals?

A

The cochlea

137
Q

What parts of the ear form part of the conductive system? Name two

A

Eardrum, ossicles

138
Q

What two things make up the transducer system in the ear?

A

The cochlea and the auditory nerve that converts vibrations into sounds

139
Q

Which of the two (conductive or non-conductive/transducer system) are permanent hearing damage?

A

Non-conductive or transducer system

140
Q

What parts of the ear are conductive hearing loss?

A

The outer and middle ear

141
Q

Where is non-conductive hearing loss found in the ear? Also what is one of the big causes?

A

Inner ear and NIHL noise induced hearing loss

142
Q

After which age bracket is there a gradual hearing loss?

A

After mid-twenties

143
Q

What frequencies are lost first with NIHL? And what is the name of this?

A

High freq and presbycusis

144
Q

What decibels cause physical pain?

A

140db

145
Q

What decibels are busy city/traffic and cause damage eventually?

A

85db

146
Q

At what DB level is hearing protection recomended?

A

80db

147
Q

What are the decibel range found in light aircraft roughly?

A

90-110db

148
Q

What is temporary threshold shift? (hearing question)

A

Less than 48 hours decrease in hearing

149
Q

What is freq measured in?

A

Hertz

150
Q

What is intensity of sound measured in?

A

Decibels

151
Q

Good quality headset reduces noise level by how many db on average?

A

40db

152
Q

Coloured part of the eye called?

A

Iris

153
Q

What does the iris do?

A

It contracts and dilates reacting to light intensity for the pupil which lets light through

154
Q

What is the retina made up of?

A

Cells which detect light and colour and movement, rod cells

155
Q

The lens is made up of what and where is it?

A

Transparent tissue and lies behind the pupil

156
Q

What can the ciliary muscle do?

A

Change the curvature of the lens by contracting or relaxing thus changing focal point

157
Q

What is the name of the ciliary muscle adjustment for the lens?

A

Accomodation

158
Q

What does the cornea do?

A

Light rays enter the eye, the cornea and lens bend the rays so they meet or focus the light sensitive surface of the retina at the back of the eye

159
Q

What is responsible for 70% of the refraction of light in the eye?

A

Cornea

160
Q

What cells are contrast sensitive, see only black and white, see well in the dark?

A

Rod cells

161
Q

Are there rod cells in the fovea?

A

No, only cone

162
Q

What are mainly responsible for the perception of movement in the eye?

A

Rod cells

163
Q

Which eye cells are colour sensitive?

A

Cone cells

164
Q

Cones detect what and function in bright or dark?

A

They detect colours and fine detail in bright light only

165
Q

Explain the blind spot in the eye

A

At night the cones in the fovea don’t function efficiently because of the low concentration of rods, results in blind spot in front of you

166
Q

How do you focus with night vision?

A

10-15 degrees to the side of the target for best results, scanning can help but must be deliberate and slow - this is due to the cones being ineffective directly in front at night

167
Q

Define visual acuity

A

Maximum when the light falls on the centre of the retina (fovea)

168
Q

How can we achieve the best visual acuity?

A

Looking directly at object in front

169
Q

What is short sight called?

A

Myopia

170
Q

What is long sight called?

A

Hypermetropia

171
Q

What is Astigmatism

A

Unevenness of the curvature of the cornea

172
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Ageing. The lens becomes less elastic and ciliary muscles get weaker. Usually in people over 40

173
Q

How far out is binocular vision reliable to?

A

6 metres

174
Q

The eye has difficulty seeing objects the size of which subtends an angle of less than what?

A

1 minute of arc. Equivalent to 1cm at a distance of 36m

175
Q

For a light aircraft with a fuselage cross section of 1 metre flying directly towards us even in perfect conditions, it would be impossible to see it until it was within how many NM?

A

2 nm

176
Q

What is geometric perspective?

A

Parallel lines tend to converge, an object has a different apparent shape depending on distance away from the observer

177
Q

What is environmental perspective/detail

A

Objects seen in less detail are perceived to be further away than clearly visible objects

178
Q

What is empty field myopia?

A

When the ciliary muscles of the lenses relax. Happens at an altitude or in conditions that provide us with featureless sky. Like the day I was looking at planes through the fence but everything went out of focus because I was so close to the fence trying to look far past it

Distance is between 1 and 2 metres

179
Q

Adaptation to the dark, full adaptation is only reached after approx how many mins?

A

30-40mins

180
Q

Avoid exposure to bright light within how many mins before takeoff at night?

A

30 mins

181
Q

What is one way you could improve or maintain night vision when encountering bright light?

A

Keep one eye closed

182
Q

Two effects of sun glare

A

Disrupted accomodation and night vision could be affected for up to one week

183
Q

Where is a blind spot in the eye

A

At the point where the optic nerve joins the retina, the eye has a blind spot. It is useless for vision because it cannot detect light as the area contains no rods or cones. 15 degrees outside the line of sight of the eye

184
Q

Constant relative bearing: When considering converging tracks and a constant relative bearing, do the two aircraft need to be at the same altitude?

A

No

185
Q

If an aircraft appears stationary on the windshield are you on a collision course?

A

Yes

186
Q

What is the other name for moving head scan?

A

Saccade

187
Q

When can eyes see clearly? Moving or still

A

When they are still

188
Q

Eyes pick up movement in front or peripheral?

A

Peripheral

189
Q

One move-rest cycle takes how much time?

A

0.3 of a second. 3 needed in a second

190
Q

What usually causes motion sickness? Two things

A

Brain receiving a mismatch of information and can happen when experienced aircrew are doing sim training

191
Q

What can add to motion sickness and worsen it?

A

Anxiety, apprehension, and fear

192
Q

What measures other than adaptation can be implemented to reduce motion sickness?

A

Keep head still, close eyes if not flying, some medication, look outside, eat dry food to dry out mouth, drink fizzy drinks, eat lightly and limit fluids, minimise head movements, fresh air, gentle manoeuvres especially pitch axis, talk to passengers to make them relax, choose overwing exits (smooth ride)

193
Q

What are the first organs to show deteriation?

A

The eyes and the brain

194
Q

What are effects of positive G load?

A

Colour vision goes, tunnel vision, grey out, blackout

195
Q

What is the final step and most severe affect of positive G?

A

G-LOC

196
Q

Negative G occurs when?

A

During aircraft manoeuvres such as inverted flight, outside loops, bunting, and spinning

197
Q

Negative G symptoms?

A

Facial pain, small blood vessels in the face and eyes, pushing up of lower eyelid to cause redout, slowing heart rate

198
Q

What is the maximum tolerable level for negative G?

A

-3g

199
Q

If the ground lights are bright do you under or over estimate height and flare late or early?

A

Under estimate and flare too early

200
Q

If ground lights are dim, over or underestimate height and flare late or early?

A

Over estimate and flare late or not at all

201
Q

Water on the windscreen, is the runway further or closer and is it higher or lower? Also high or low approach?

A

Looks like it moved lower and further away, low approach

202
Q

Black hole approach is low or high?

A

Low

203
Q

On a runway sloping downhill, low or high approach? possibility of under or over shooting?

A

High approach and over shooting

204
Q

Runway sloping uphill, low or high approach and over or under shooting?

A

Low approach and under shooting

205
Q

Runway slopes down, same terrain?

A

You will approach too high, overshoot

206
Q

runway slopes up, same terrain?

A

you will approach too low, under shoot

207
Q

Runway same, terrain slopes down?

A

approach too low, undershoot

208
Q

Runway same, terrain slopes up?

A

approach too high and overshoot

FTA (6 decks)

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