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CPL test questions Flashcards

1
Q

what is the minimum in flight visibility and separation from cloud above 3000ft in class G airspace?

A

1500 metres clear of cloud, 1000ft vertically clear of cloud, 5km visibility

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2
Q

what is the minimum in flight visibility and separation from cloud for VFR flight below 3000ft and below 140IAS in class G airspace?

A

1500 metres visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the ground (5 km if above 140 knots)

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3
Q

what is the minimum in flight visibility and separation from cloud for VFR flight above 3000ft in class D airspace?

A

5km visibility, 1500m horizontally clear of cloud and 1000ft vertically clear of cloud.

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4
Q

what is the minimum in flight visibility and separation from cloud for VFR flight below 3000ft and below 140IAS in class D airspace?

A

5km visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the ground.

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5
Q

what is the UK low flying rule with regard to failure of a power unit?

A

an aircraft shall not fly at a height where an emergency landing in the event of a power failure would not be made without causing danger to persons or property on the surface

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6
Q

what is the 500ft rule?

A

except with written permission from the CAA, an aircraft shall not be flown closer than 500ft to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

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7
Q

what is the 1000ft rule?

A

except with the written permission of the CAA, an aircraft over a congested area of a city town or settlement shall not fly lower than 1000ft above the highest fixed obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 metres of the aircraft

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8
Q

what is the land clear rule?

A

an aircraft flying over a congested area of a city, town or settlement shall not fly below such height as would permit the aircraft to land clear in the event of power unit failure

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9
Q

what is the rule regarding overflying open air assemblies?

A

except with written permission from the CAA, an aircraft shall not overfly an open air assembly of more than 1000 people below either 1000 feet or a height at which a land clear could be Mae in event of engine failure

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10
Q

what are the rules regarding landing or taking off new open air assemblies?

A

an aircraft shall not take off within 1000m of an open air assembly of 1000 people unless at an aerodrome pr at a landing site (with permission from the CAA and permission from the event organiser)

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11
Q

where are performance planning rules for the FTO’s aircraft on a public transport flight?

A

Ops manual Part C

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12
Q

what is L3’s asymmetric committal height?

A

200ft above runway elevation

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13
Q

what configuration is assumed for landing distance calculations?

A

power idle, gear down, flaps LDG

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14
Q

where is the list of documents which need to be carried on a public transport flight found?

A

air navigation order schedule 10/EU ops subpart B

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15
Q

what is the significance of the yellow arc on an ASI?

A

represents the cautionary range of airspeed which can only be entered in still air.

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16
Q

what does a turn coordinator measure and how is it displayed?

A

shows the rate of turn and how balanced the aircraft is within that turn (slipping or skidding)

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17
Q

where are the privileges of the EASA CPL found?

A

Part FCL annex 1 subpart d section 1

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18
Q

what are the privileges of a CPL?

A
  • exercise all the privileges of a PPL/LAPL
  • act as PIC or CO-PILOT in any aircraft except in commercial air transport
  • act as pic in a single pilot aircraft in commercial air transport subject to FCL.060
  • act as co-pilot in commercial air transport subject to FCL.060
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19
Q

In which document can you find rules regarding perf planning on a public transport flight?

A

EU OPS Subpart H Perf class B- 1.525

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20
Q

what is PEC and when should it be applied?

A

pressure error correction applies to altimeter errors that can occur in the approach configuration. this constitutes an addition to the DA/MDA

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21
Q

what is PEC on the DA42?

A

0ft

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22
Q

flying a QFE approach, what should be set on the second altimeter?

A

regional pressure or airfield QNH (particularly important when overflying a MATZ as controllers can forget to give you new RPS)

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23
Q

where are the ATO’s rules on altimeter settings found?

A

IR Manual/OPS manual/CPL manual

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24
Q

why do we set 1013 on the PFD but QNH on the standby altimeter?

A

to ensure MSA clearance and assist with minimum flight levels

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25
Q

if there is no published figure for the aircraft what PEC should be applied?

A

50ft above MDA/DA

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26
Q

where would you find info regarding ACH/ACA for your ATO?

A

operations manual

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27
Q

if you are expecting a strong crosswind at the destination what will you need to consider when planning a second runway?

A
  • circling minima
  • must be able to achieve a full stop in 70% of the runway from 50ft from the threshold. so must consider still air
  • crosswind
  • should be able to factor HW and TW
  • consider altitude, runway condition, surface and slope
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28
Q

why do we use pressure altitude for performance calculations?

A

PA is used as aircraft performance generally degrades with pressure altitude.

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29
Q

what factors are used for runway upslope and downslope?

A

5% increase in distance for every 1% of upslope. No factorisation for downslope and vice versa for landing

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30
Q

what factors need to be applied for T/O and landing on grass?

A

T/O

  1. 2 dry
  2. 3 wet

Landing

1.15

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31
Q

What are the EU ops takeoff requirements?

A

all obstacles in the accountability area must be cleared by 50 ft and if visual reference is lost we assume an engine fails also. the T/O climb extends from 50ft from the end of TODR to 1500ft. turns must not exceed 15 degrees

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32
Q

what is clearway?

A

an area beyond the runway under the control of airport authorities and free of obstructions

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33
Q

what is a stopway?

A

an area beyond the runway which can be used for deceleration during an RTO. it must be aligned with the runway centreline and at least as wide as the runway

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34
Q

what is the difference between gross and net performance figures?

A

gross is what’s been observed during testing and certification while net is degraded to bring in real world factors.

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35
Q

what if you can land with wind but not in nil wind?

A

2 alternates must be selected

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36
Q

how do you calculate RVR if only met vis is available and where is it referenced?

A

HIALs x1.5 by day or x2 by night

other lighting= x1 by day or x1.5 by night

EU OPS SUBPART E page 69

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37
Q

when is an approach ban applied and where is this referenced?

A

cannot commence an approach below 1000ft if the RVR is below minimums EU OPS SUBPART D page 46

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38
Q

where do we find IFR planning minima?

A

EU OPS subpart D page 38

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39
Q

what is minimum autopilot height?

A

200ft during approach and departure when below 130kts

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40
Q

what are the L3 minima for destination and alternate?

A

greater than 5k vis and ceiling 2000ft or circling +500 whichever is higher

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41
Q

what is the basic principle of buys ballots law?

A

if a person stands with their back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, pressure is low to their left and high to their right. this is because wind travels counter-clockwise around low pressure zones in the northern hemisphere

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42
Q

how does surface wind differ from upper winds?

A

upper winds are often stronger as friction is less. the wind also blows perpendicular to the isobars at surface level as the friction reduces the Coriolis effect due to it being proportional to wind speed. upper winds tend to blow parallel to the isobars due to the Coriolis effect

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43
Q

what are backing and veering winds?

A

a backing wind turns counter clockwise with height and a veering wind turns clockwise

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44
Q

what is visibility?

A

visibility is the distance at which an object or light can be clearly discerned

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45
Q

what is in-flight visibility?

A

the distance straight ahead from the cockpit at which an object or light can be clearly discerned

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46
Q

what is RVR?

A

RVR is the distance along a runway that a pilot can see the surface markings or the runway centreline

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47
Q

how is surface visibility measured and reported?

A

surface visibility is measured by an observer and is done using prominent features at various distances from the observation point

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48
Q

what is prevailing visibility?

A

the greatest visibility observed in half the horizon circle or half the surface of the aerodrome

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49
Q

what documents do we need to legally fly today?

A
  • CofA
  • release to service
  • certificate of registration
  • insurance
  • noise certificate
  • radio licence
  • no defects outside of MEL
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50
Q

what is the DA42 maintenance cycle?

A
  • 100 hours
  • 200 hours
  • 1000 hours
  • 2000 hours
  • once a year
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51
Q

how do we record a deferred defect?

A
  • check against MEL
  • record in tech log
  • describe issue in detail
  • ensure time that can elapse before it is fixed and write down the date
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52
Q

what precautions are to be noted when using a turn coordinator for unusual attitude recovery?

A

it only gives roll info if the ball is centralised

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53
Q

how are out of phase servicing events shown?

A

on the release to service page where the date and hours of the next service are in the column below

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54
Q

what can be done if an aircraft has 2 hours remaining on it and its about to go on a 2 hour flight?

A
  • the captain can call maintenance for a 10% extension

- the approved maintenance organisation get approval from the CAA

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55
Q

if a fuel gauge were unserviceable how would you determine if we could go flying?

A
  • consult the MEL
  • check fuel visually before flight
  • check for leaks
  • check fuel is in balance
56
Q

what does a GPS require to be used for en-route navigation?

A
  • certified for RNP

- requires RAIM

57
Q

what do you do if you suffer a radio failure in vmc?

A

continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report arrival by most expeditious means to the ATS unit.

  • if considered advisable, file an IFR flight plan
58
Q

what should you do if IFR and you suffer a radio failure where radar is not used in provision of ATC?

A

maintain last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 20 minutes following the aircrafts failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point and thereafter adjust speed and level in accordance with the filed flight plan

59
Q

what should you do if you suffer a radio failure if IFR in a place where radar is used in provision of ATC?

A

maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude for a period of 7 minutes from:

  • the time the last assigned altitude/FL or minimum flight altitude is reached
  • time the transponder is set to 7600 or the ADS-B is set to indicate loss of communications
  • the aircrafts failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point

whichever is later, then adjust speed and level in accordance with the filed flight plan

60
Q

what do you do if you suffer a radio failure when being radar vectored or having been directed to offset using RNAV by ATC?

A

rejoin the current flight plan route no later than the next significant point taking into consideration the minimum flight altitude.

61
Q

following the departure phase, what action needs to be taken in the en-route phase in the event of an radio failure?

A

proceed according to the flight plan route to the appropriate designated navigation aid or fix serving the destination aerodrome and when required hold over the fix until commencement of descent.

62
Q

what needs to be done in the event of a radio failure once the destination is reached?

A

commence descent from the navaid or fix at or as close as possible to the expected approach time last received and acknowledged or if no time has been received or acknowledged, as close as possible to the ETA resulting from the current flight plan.then complete a normal instrument approach or procedure as specified for the fix and land within 30 minute of the ETA if possible

63
Q

If the DME at destination is U/S can a BRNAV approved GPS be used for range info during a procedural approach?

A

No, the AFM says instrument approach navigation must be accomplished in accordance with approved instrument approach procedures that are in the GPS database.

64
Q

What is the height of a MATZ?

A

3000ft AAL and the stubs are 1000-3000 ft AAL

65
Q

does the quadrantal rule apply below a TMA?

A

no, use regional or airfield QNH

66
Q

under IFR, what is the latest point at which you should make a call to approach control?

A

10 minutes before ETA (AIP GEN 3.3 page 4)

67
Q

what is the significance of receiving an expected approach time from ATC?

A

this is the time at which you should make your approach in the event of a radio failure. it is also useful for fuel management

68
Q

what should you do if you suffer a radio failure before entering CAS and without clearance?

A

unless theres overriding safety reasons do not enter controlled air space (AIP ENR 1.1 page 15)

69
Q

what are the privileges of the EASA IR and where are they listed?

A
  • operate in CAS in circumstances that require IFR
  • pilot multi engine and single engine a/c under IFR with a minimum of 200ft dh

ANO CAP 393

70
Q

what is the validity period of the EASA IR and where is it referenced?

A
  • valid from the date of issue, renewal or revalidation to the end of the month plus one year
  • ANO CAP 393
71
Q

can you still fly if your class 1 medical has expired?

A

only PPL and LAPL privileges

72
Q

what SVFR limits apply in class D airspace to an EASA CPL holder with an IR and where are they refenrced?

A
  • flight vis more than 3k unless taking off or landing when vis below cloud base must be more than 1800m
  • according to EU OPS to commence SVFR 3KM is required and to continue 1.5KM is required
73
Q

What is the extent of an ATZ?

A

If runway is 1850 metres or less: surface to 2000 ft and a radius of 2nm (midpoint being the notified mid point of the longest runway)

If runway is more than 1850 metres: 2000ft AAL and 2.5 nm radius from the mid point of the longest runway

74
Q

Where can we find how to transit an ATZ

A

Uk rules of the air rule 45

75
Q

How do we transit an ATZ?

A

Obtain permission from the airfields ATC or where there is no air traffic unit, obtain aerodrome flight information to enable flight in the zone to be conducted safely

76
Q

What are the privileges of an EASA ATPL?

A

Within the appropriate aircraft category:

  • exercise all the privileges of the holder of a LAPL, PPL, and a CPL
  • act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport

(Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the type rating of the aircraft used in the skill test)

77
Q

How long is an easa licnese valid for?

A

Life

78
Q

Where can we find the duties of the commander in public transport flying?

A

Air navigation order part 10

79
Q

Define the instrument flight rules and what is the source document for them?

A

ANO (CAP 393) section 2

  • an aircraft shall not fly at a height of less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a distance of 5 miles of the aircraft until t/o and landing or ATC.
  • the aircraft flies at an altitude not exceeding 3000ft AMSL and with the surface in sight and visibility of 800 metres
  • above 3000ft it the transition altitude (whichever’s higher) must fly the appropriate quadrantal track according to magnetic track
  • above 19,500ft or in controlled airspace use the semi-circular rule
  • in the ground overtake the left and give way to the right. Head on turn right
  • position reporting as to where you wish to enter CAS and once you pass over compulsory reporting points
  • must file an IFR flight plan
  • comply with ATC and procedures
80
Q

What is the basic service intended for?

A

Intended to offer the pilot maximum autonomy and traffic avoidance is exclusively the pilots responsibility

The controller/FISO will pass information pertinent to the safe and efficient conduct of flight

81
Q

What does a traffic service provide?

A

Provides the pilot with surveillance derived traffic info on conflicting aircraft

No deconflicting advice is passed and the pilot is responsible for collision avoidance

Headings and or levels may be provided for for positioning and/or sequencing

82
Q

What does a deconfliction service provide?

A

Provides the pilot with traffic information and deconfliction advice on conflicting aircraft. However, the avoidance of other aircraft is the pilots responsibility.

83
Q

What does a procedural service provide?

A

A procedural service is a non surveillance service in which deconfliction advice is provided against other aircraft in receipt of a procedural service from the same controller

84
Q

when flying to an airfield and intending to use a GPS approach, what do we need to consider for the destination and alternate?

A
  • the destination needs to have an approach not dependant on GPS that we can use in the forecast conditions
  • there needs to be an alternate in range that has an approach not reliant on GPS. and is within minima
85
Q

when does RAIM need to be available at the destination?

A

15minutes wither side of the eta

86
Q

how do we hold at the IAF during GPS approach if required?

A

select OBS to suspend the GPS sequencing and use the published track of the leg between the IAF and FAF as the hold datum. select this on the CDI using the CRS knob. standard holding direction is right. when ready to continue establish inbound to the IAF on the final hold and deselect OBS. the gps will continue sequencing the approach

87
Q

when navigating using GPS, when should ATC be informed of GPS issues?

A

when LOI shows for more than 10 minutes or WARN shows for more than 1 minute

88
Q

what does LOI mean on the GPS?

A

loss of integrity- GPS integrity is not sufficient for current phase of flight

89
Q

what factor do we add for soft ground on take off?

A

1.25 x TODR

90
Q

What factor do we use for soft ground on landing?

A

1.25 x LDR

91
Q

what visual references can be used at MDA/DH?

A
  • elements of approach lighting
  • threshold
  • threshold markings
  • threshold lights
  • threshold identification lights
  • visual glide slope indictor
  • touchdown zone or touchdown zone makings
  • touchdown zone lights
  • FATO/runway edge lights
  • other visual references stated in the ops manual;
92
Q

what is the take off distance? (part-CAT)

A

longest of:

  • 115% of the distance with all engines operating from the start of the take off to the point where the aeroplane is 35ft above the runway or clearway
  • the distance from the start of the take off to the point at which the aeroplane is 35ft above the runway or clearway assuming failure of the critical engine occurs at V1 for a dry runway
  • if the runway is wet or contaminated, the distance from the start of the take off point to a point at which the aircraft is 15ft above the clearway assuming critical engine failure occurs at V1
93
Q

according to part CAT, by what margin of altitude must we fly over obstacles in the net take off flight path (class A)?

A

35ft dry runway

15ft wet runway

94
Q

below what height is accountability for engine failure not considered for class B?

A

300ft

95
Q

what is the maximum altitude at which we can begin a drift down?

A

where ROC is 300fpm

96
Q

What ATC separation is provided when VFR in class C airspace?

A

VFR/SVFR are separated from IFR and SVFR

97
Q

What ATC separation is provided when VFR in class D airspace?

A

SVFR is separated from IFR and SVFR

98
Q

What ATC separation is provided when flying VFR in class E airspace?

A

None

99
Q

What ATC separation is provided when flying VFR in class G airspace?

A

None outside of the services

100
Q

what is the source document for public transport T/O minima?

A

EU ops subpart E

101
Q

what classes of airspace are there in the UK and which are controlled?

A

A, C, D, E. A/C/D are controlled

102
Q

where are the regulations on ATC separation listed?

A

AIP ENR 1.4

103
Q

what factors influence visibility?

A
  • transparency of the atmosphere
  • position of the sun
  • contrast between the object and its background
  • general level of illumination (by night)
  • the sizeof the object
104
Q

what causes haze?

A

HAZE is caused by particulate matter from many sources including smoke, road dust, and other particles emitted directly into the atmosphere, as well as particulate matter formed when gaseous pollutants react in the atmosphere.

105
Q

what weather is associated with a warm occluded front?

A

A warm occlusion occurs when the air at the back of the front is warmer than that which is ahead of it. This causes a warm occluded front to act more like a warm front instead. A warm front is known for producing lighter rains that do not have the severe symptoms of the storms produced by cold fronts. The rain is often steady and covers a wide area of land. Winds do not change direction and the air temperature remains consistent.

106
Q

what weather is associated with a cold occluded front?

A

A cold occlusion takes place when the air on the back side of the front is is colder than that ahead of it. With this type of occluded front, it acts as if it is a cold front. Cold fronts are responsible for the strong, severe storms that can produce damaging winds, hail and tornadoes. The weather also tends to exhibit a dip in temperature prior to the storms and a drastic change in wind direction and speed.

107
Q

what weather is associated with a warm front?

A

As the front moves through, cool, fair weather is likely to follow. Warm front Forms when a moist, warm air mass slides up and over a cold air mass. As the warm air mass rises, it condenses into a broad area of clouds. A warm front brings gentle rain or light snow, followed by warmer, milder weather.

108
Q

what weather is associated with a cold front?

A

Commonly, when the cold front is passing, winds become gusty; there is a sudden drop in temperature, and heavy rain, sometimes with hail, thunder, and lightning. Lifted warm air ahead of the front produces cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds and thunderstorms.

109
Q

when must a VFR flight plan be filed?

A
  • all flights in B, C and D airspace
  • when the destination is more than 40km away and the weight of the aircraft is over 5700kg
  • all flights to or from the UK which cross the UK FIR
110
Q

how long before entering a MATZ must we request clearance?

A

15nm or 5 minutes. whichever is greater

111
Q

what is clutch QFE?

A

clutch QFE is the QFE at the highest airfield in the CMATZ

112
Q

when does a glider need a VHF radio?

A

when flying in controlled airspace (may not be required in class D or airways under certain circumstances)

113
Q

when should we make position reports when VFR?

A
  • after transfer of communication
  • on reaching the limit of ATS clearance
  • when instructed by ATC
  • when crossing the channel/FIR boundary
114
Q

up to what weight will SVFR generally be approved?

A

5700kg

115
Q

does SVFR mean we dont abide by the rules of the air?

A

NO. except the 1000ft rule if we are cleared below this level.

116
Q

what is the height range of class C airspace?

A

FL195 to FL600

117
Q

What is the purpose of a CTR

A

a CTR affords protection to aircraft in the immediate vicinity of an aerodrome

118
Q

what are the rules regarding VFR at night?

A
  • 1500ft cloud base required
  • 5km visibility
  • keep the surface in sight below 3000ft amsl
  • minimum of 1000ft above highest obstacle within 600m of the plane (2000ft if above high terrain)
119
Q

IN THE UK can we fly at less than 500ft?

A

yes, as long as we are 500ft from any person, vehicle or structure (SERA.5005.f2)

120
Q

when can we fly below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600 metres?

A
  • SVFR

- operating in accordance with the procedures notified by the CAA for the route being flown.

121
Q

when 2 aircraft are converging at the same level, who has right of way?

A

the aircraft which has the other on its right shall give way

122
Q

who will we give way to in the air?

A

airships, sailplanes and balloons. aircraft towing objects and other aircraft

123
Q

what side of a line feature should we fly when VFR?

A

to the right

124
Q

below what minima can we not take off VFR unless we have a SVFR clearance?

A

1500ft cloud base 5 k visibility

125
Q

when can we fly VFR on top?

A

when above 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above the highest obstacle (2000 in high terrain) whichever is higher

126
Q

how high must we be above obstacles when VFR at night?

A

1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the aircraft

127
Q

can we fly SVFR at night?

A

yes, only in UK control zones, this is an exemption as SERA states you can’t fly SVFR at night

128
Q

in the UK, can we operate in a TMZ with no transponder?

A

yes, with ATC permission

129
Q

when should class F airspace be implemented?

A

where air traffic services are inadequate to provide air traffic control, and limited advice available on collision hazards is not adequate. should only be in place for 3 years

130
Q

what is the climb speed in class B required to be on an all engine takeoff?

A

more than 1.1vmc or 1.2vs1 whichever is greter

131
Q

what climb speed is required OEI on takeoff climb at 400ft?

A

speed equal to that achieved at 50ft

132
Q

what climb speed is required OEI on takeoff climb at 1500ft

A

1.2vs1

133
Q

what must a class b multi be able to achieve after an engine failure en-route?

A

the aircraft must be able to maintain a safe altitude until reaching a point 1000ft above an aerodrome that complies with perf requirements

134
Q

what is the significance of the altitude where ROC is 300fpm?

A

this is the altitude above which a drift down cannot be commenced

135
Q

what factor is recommended for landing on wet grass?

A

1.15

Wings Module (5 decks)

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