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Certification Prep > COT 2 > Flashcards

COT 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is not important when documenting the history of an ocular injury?
A. How the injury occurred
B. Presence of others when the injury occurred
C. The time the injury occurred
D. Treatment received since the injury occurred

History and Documentation 3%

A

B. Presence of others when the injury occurred

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2
Q

Which one of the following ocular conditions will least likely present in a patient’s family history?
A. Keratoconus
B. Nystagmus
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa

History and Documentation 3%

A

C. Conjunctivitis

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3
Q

When evaluating a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following systemic illnesses is least important?
A. Cardiac problems
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Urinary incontinence

History and Documentation 3%

A

D. Urinary incontinence

This does not affect the actual surgery unless the pt is on tamsulosin

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4
Q

Which symptoms might suggest angle-closure glaucoma?
A. Flashes and floaters
B. Slowly progressive visual loss
C. Bleeding into the anterior chamber
D. Rainbow colored halos around lights

History and Documentation 3%

A

D. Rainbow colored halos around lights

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5
Q

What is the correct interpretation of 1 gtt TID OU?
A. One drop to the left eye three times a day
B. One drops to both eyes three times a day
C. One injection to both arms three times a day
D. One drop to both eyes three times a day as needed

History and Documentation 3%

A

B. One drops to both eyes three times a day

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6
Q

A history or corticosteroid use is of least importance when ascertaining which condition?
A. Cataracts
B. Glaucoma
C. Macular Degeneration
D. Uveitis

History and Documentation 3%

A

C. Macular Degeneration

Steroid use can affect cataract growth, increase IOP, & rebound uveitis

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7
Q

A visual acuity of 20/200 obtained at a distance of 4 feet should be recorded as
A. J10
B. 6/60
C. 4/200
D. < 20/200

Visual Assessment 7%

A

C. 4/200

The numerator represents the distance the patient is from the chart.

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8
Q

If a patient’s visual acuity measures 20/70 with correction and pinholes to 20/25, which of the following is most likely?
A. The patient needs distance correction
B. The patient is malingering
C. The patient should be dilated and examined for retinopathy
D. The patient has cataracts

Visual Assessment 7%

A

A. The patient needs distance correction

The pinhole gives you a potential vision due to a refractive error

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9
Q

The lines of Snellen optotypes are what size in comparison to the entire optotype?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/6

Visual Assessment 7%

A

C. 1/5

Each letter subtends 5 minutes of arc. Each line is 1 minute of arc.

Regardless of the optotype, this is true, but it’s always best to think of the E with these questions.

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10
Q

Reduced visual acuity without an detectable organice cause is referred to as
A. amblyopia
B. strabismus
C. anisometropia
D. suppression

Visual Assessment 7%

A

A. amblyopia

An amblyopic has a healthy eye and brain, but decreased vision

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11
Q

A 55-year-old patient has worn glasses since childhood. Without glasses, a patient’s uncorrected vision improves when looking tough an occluder with perforations. This phenomenon is known as the
A. prism effect
B. scatter effect
C. pinhole effect
D. contrast effect

Visual Assessment 7%

A

C. pinhole effect

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12
Q

What is the metric equivalent of 20/40 visual acuity
A. 6/10
B. 6/12
C. 6/15
D. 6/20

Visual Assessment 7%

A

B. 6/12

20/20=6/6; 20/30=6/9; 20/40=6/12

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13
Q

Dynamic visual acuity refers to
A. acuity measured in a controlled medical office setting
B. kinetic or moving vision
C. contrast sensitivity acuity
D. pinhole acuity

Visual Assessment 7%

A

B. kinetic or moving vision

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14
Q

Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter is useful for patients with
A. glaucoma
B. cataracts
C. optic neuritis
D. age-related macular degeneration

Visual Assessment 7%

A

B. cataracts

If you have a questions like this that doesn’t say “most”, add it to the question to figure out your answer. They are always looking for the best answer to the question even when more than one answer applies.

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15
Q

Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye?
A. 10-12
B. 14-16
C. 18-20
D. 22-24

Visual Assessment 7%

A

B. 14-16

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16
Q

If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with the use of a(n)
A. placido disc
B. pinhole disc
C. occluder over non-dominant eye
D. occluder over dominant eye

Visual Assessment 7%

A

B. pinhole disc

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17
Q

What is the recommended distance for assessing visual acuity?
A. 20 cm
B. 20 mm
C. 20’
D. 20”

Visual Assessment 7%

A

C. 20’

‘ means feet, while “ means inches

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18
Q

If a person can clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 60 feet by a person with no refractive error, the visual acuity is said to be
A. 20/20
B. 20/40
C. 20/60
D. 60/20

Visual Assessment 7%

A

C. 20/60

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19
Q

If a patient is unable to distinguish the largest letter on a Snellen chart, the assistant should
A. determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance
B. immediately assess for hand motion
C. darken the room and check for light perception
D. record “unable to assess” in the patient’s chart

Visual Assessment 7%

A

A. determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance

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20
Q

In visual assessment, an infant would be expected to reach for toys by the age of
A. 2-4 months
B. 4-6 months
C. 6-8 months
D. 8-10 months

Visual Assessment 7%

A

B. 4-6 months

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21
Q

The visual field defect in which there is a complete type of nerve bundle defect emanating from the blind spot, arching over central fixation, and ending on the horizontal line is a(n)
A. absolute scotoma
B. Bjerrum scotoma
C. contraction
D. relative scotoma

Visual Field Testing 3%

A

B. Bjerrum scotoma

They always emanate from the blind spot

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22
Q

Homonymous congrous visual field defects with macular sparing are located in what part of the visual pathway?
A. Occipital cortex
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic nerve
D. Optic radiation

Visual Field Testing 3%

A

A. Occipital cortex

The fact that it is macular sparing doesn’t matter.

The fact that it is homonymous (same sided) means that it must be BEHIND the optic chiasm. The optic nerve is in front of the optic chiasm. If the problem was in the optic radiations, the defect would not be congrous, meaning equal in size and shape.

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23
Q

With a 3 mm white target on the perimeter of a 330-degree radius, the average peripheral limit is about
A. 75° out, 55° down, 40° in, and 40° up
B. 85° out, 65° down, 50° in, and 50° up
C. 95° out, 75° down, 60° in, and 60° up
D. 105° out, 85° down, 70° in, and 40° up

Visual Field Testing 3%

A

C. 95° out, 75° down, 60° in, and 60° up

Our total width of view is ~155°

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24
Q

what type of patient generally requires a threshold 24-degree central field test?
A. Cataract
B. Diplopia
C. Glaucoma
D. Low vision

Visual Field Testing 3%

A

C. Glaucoma

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25
Q

The most widely used method of visual field screening, requiring no special equipment, is
A. Goldmann perimtry
B. the tangent screen
C. Amsler grid
D. confrontation testing

Visual Field Testing 3%

A

D. confrontation testing

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26
Q

Scotomas located immediately nasal or temporal to fixation are known as
A. central
B. paracentral
C. arcuate
D. nasal step

Visual Field Testing 3%

A

B. paracentral

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27
Q

The purpose of checking pupils is to compare the
A. consensual response in the stimulated eye and the direct response in the other eye
B. direct response in the stimulated eye and the consensual response in the other eye
C. direct response and the near response in the same eye
D. direct response in one eye

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

B. direct response in the stimulated eye and the consensual response in the other eye

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28
Q

In ordinary room light, the diameter of the normal adult pupil is
A. 3-5 mm
B. 6-9 mm
C. 10-13 mm
D. 14-17 mm

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

A. 3-5 mm

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29
Q

A difference in pupil size is referred to as
A. Adie’s Syndrome
B. Marcus Gunn pupil
C. anisorcoria
D. hippus

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

C. anisorcoria

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30
Q

The presence of an iris sphinctor muscle defect may be caused by
A. damage to the iris sphinctor muscle
B. symmetric damage to the afferent visual system
C. asymmetric cataracts
D. optic nerve disease

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

D. optic nerve disease

An RAPD tells us that the nerves aren’t receiving light equally.

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31
Q

Consensual light reflex in the right eye results in
A. right pupil constriction
B. right pupil dilation
C. left pupil constriction
D. left pupil dilation

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

A. right pupil constriction

Consensual means that it is reacting to the light shining into OS

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32
Q

What is the term for the state of pupillary constriction?
A. Mydriasis
B. Miosis
C. Cycloplegia
D. Aniscoria

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

B. Miosis

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33
Q

Which test compares the direct and consensual responses to the pupil?
A. Swinging flashlight
B. Worth four-dot
C. Pinhole disc
D. Cover-Uncover

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

A. Swinging flashlight

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34
Q

What condition is present if the amount of light information transmitted to the brain from one eye differs from that of the other eye?
A. Afferent pupillary defect
B. Adie’s pupil
C. Tonic pupil
D. Third nerve palsy

Pupil Assessment 4%

A

A. Afferent pupillary defect

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35
Q

What is the most significant advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer?
A. Applanation is a more modern technique
B. Applanation causes ledd patient discomfort
C. Applanation tonometry allows for a small amount of aqueous humor to be displaced from the AC
D. Applanation instruments are more cosst effective

Tonometry 4%

A

C. Applanation tonometry allows for a small amount of aqueous humor to be displaced from the AC

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36
Q

Which procedure is most likely to give a falsely elevated intraocular pressure reading?
A. Non-contact tonometry (NCT)
B. Applanation tonometry
C. Digital pneumotonography
D. Indentation tonometry

Tonometry 4%

A

A. Non-contact tonometry (NCT)

NCT is the ‘air puff’. Patients tend to hold their breath more with NCT.

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37
Q

Which of these ocular conditions is least likely to render Goldmann tonometry inaccurate?
A. Keratoconus
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Pterygia
D. Corneal scars

Tonometry 4%

A

B. Retinitis pigmentosa

LEAST likely!

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38
Q

Intraocular pressure is highest during the
A. morning
B. afternoon
C. early evening
D. late evening

Tonometry 4%

A

A. morning

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39
Q

What type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp?
A. Applanation
B. Indentation
C. Perkins
D. Air puff

Tonometry 4%

A

A. Applanation

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40
Q

Intraocular pressure is measured with a(n)
A. ophthalmometer
B. keratometer
C. lensometer
D. tonometer

Tonometry 4%

A

D. tonometer

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41
Q

What is the term for the tonometry technique that displaces a minimal amount of fluid?
A. Indentation
B. Applanation
C. Elevation
D. Fixation

Tonometry 4%

A

B. Applanation

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42
Q

What color is the light filter used in applanation tonometry?
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green

Tonometry 4%

A

A. Blue

The test may specify that it is Cobalt Blue

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43
Q

The difference between the corneal curvature measurements with a keratometer reveals the
A. radius of corneal curvature
B. amount of corneal astigmatism
C. cylinder axis
D. steepest K

Keratometry 3%

A

B. amount of corneal astigmatism

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44
Q

If the K value of a patient being fir for RGP contact lenses is recorded as 43.50/44.50, the BC of CL fit “on K” would be which of the following?
A. 43.50
B. 44.00
C. 44.50
D. 45.00

Keratometry 3%

A

A. 43.50

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45
Q

What is an average corneal curvature measurement?
A. 42.00 D
B. 43.00 D
C. 44.00 D
D. 45.00 D

Keratometry 3%

A

C. 44.00 D

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46
Q

In the case of a one-year old child with an infantile left esotropia and deep left amblyopia, which notion would denote the visual acuity?
A. CSM
B. CSUM
C. CUSM
D. UCSUM

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

D. UCSUM

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47
Q

The difference between the farthest and nearest distance at which a patient is able to see clearly is known as
A. covergence amplitude
B. Panum’s fusional space
C. range of accommodation
D. the add

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

C. range of accommodation

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48
Q

In order to test the function of the superior oblique (SO) muscle, the eye is directed into which field of gaze?
A. Down and lateral
B. Down and medial
C. Straight ahead
D. Up and lateral

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

B. Down and medial

SO turns the eye down and in (medial)
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49
Q

A patient who is unable to abduct the left eye may have a weakness of the
A. right medial rectus (RMR) muscle
B. left lateral rectus (LLR) muscle
C. left medial rectus (LMR) muscle
D. right lateral rectus (RLR) muscle

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

B. left lateral rectus (LLR) muscle

ABduct=turnout. Lateral rectus controls ABduction

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50
Q

During alternate cover testing, the right eye moves downward as the cover is switched to the left eye. The deviation is measued using
A. base down prism over the left eye
B. base down prism over the right eye
C. base up prism over the left eye
D. base up prism over the right eye

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

B. base down prism over the right eye

Point the apex in the direction of the deviation. Hyper= BD & apex up

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51
Q

Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria?
A. Worth four-dot
B. Ishihara plate
C. Maddox rod
D. Marcus Gunn

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

C. Maddox rod

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52
Q

Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex?
A. Hess
B. Worth four-dot
C. Hirschberg
D. Krimsky

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

D. Krimsky

Hirschberg is the corneal reflex test, Krimsky measures it with prisms

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53
Q

Which item is not a classification of fixation?
A. Central
B. Steady
C. Maintained
D. Primary

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

D. Primary

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54
Q

How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

C. 3

III, IV, & VI innervate the muscles. SO4 LR6, everything else is three!

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55
Q

Which is not a designation of a version?
A. Levoversion
B. Sursumversion
C. Dextraversion
D. Intraversion

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

D. Intraversion

Levo = Left
Dextra = Right
Sursum = Upwards

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56
Q

In ocular motility testing, what is happening if the child only sees two red lights (red lens over right eye)?
A. The child is suppressing the right eye
B. The child is suppressing the left eye
C. The child is alternating fixation
D. The child is seeing double

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

B. The child is suppressing the left eye

Red over right, green over left. All red means no use of left eye.

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57
Q

The best measurement for a deviation with good fixation is the
A. cover-uncover test
B. Hirschberg test
C. Krimsky test
D. prism alternate cover test

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

D. prism alternate cover test

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58
Q

Eye misalignment caused by extraocular muscle imbalance, which is present with both eyes uncovered, is a(n)
A. tropia
B. asthenopia
C. phoria
D. myopia

Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A

A. tropia

2 misalignments, tropia (always present), and phoria (forced to show)

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59
Q

A lens formula of +2.00-3.00x90 What is the power at 90 degrees and 180 degrees?
A. +2.00 and -1.00
B. +2.00 and -3.00
C. +5.00 and +3.00
D. -1.00 and +2.00

Lensometry 3%

A

A. +2.00 and -1.00

optical cross

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60
Q

A patient with a far point of 20 cm in front of the eye requires what spectacle lens power to correct their refractive error to emmetropia?
A. -5.00 D
B. -2.00 D
C. +2.00 D
D. +5.00 D

Lensometry 3%

A

A. -5.00 D

D=1/F

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61
Q

What type of astigmatism has one focal line on the retina and the other behind the retina?
A. Mixed astigmatism
B. Simple hyperopic astigmatism
C. Compound hyperopic astigmatism
D. Simple myopic astigmatism

Lensometry 3%

A

B. Simple hyperopic astigmatism

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62
Q

What is the proper name for an astigmatic eye with the anterior line in front of the retina and the posterior focal line behind the retina?
A. Compound hyperopic astigmatism
B. Compound myopic astigmatism
C. Irregular astigmatism
D. Mixed astigmatism

Lensometry 3%

A

D. Mixed astigmatism

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63
Q

Lensometry of a patient’s glasses reveal the single line coming into focus first at -1.50, then the triple lines at zero, with axis at 180 degrees, what is the Rx?
A. -1.50 -1.50 x180
B. plano -1.50 x090
C. plano -1.50 x180
D. plano +1.50 x090

Lensometry 3%

A

B. plano -1.50 x090

you must transpose this Rx to find the answer

The Rx given is -1.50 + 1.50 x180
Transposition is plano -1.50 x090
1. Algebracially (keep the signs with the number) combine the sphere and cylinder power to get your new sphere number
2. Change the cylinder sign
3. Change the axis by 90 degrees

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64
Q

In lensometry, first the single lines come into focus at plano and then the triple lines come into focus at -2.00 with the axis at 90 degrees. What is the Rx?
A. -2.00 +2.00 x180
B. -2.00 +2.00 x090
C. plano -2.00 x180
D. +2.00 -2.00 x090

Lensometry 3%

A

A. -2.00 +2.00 x180

you must transpose this Rx to find the answer

Rx given is plano -2.00 x090
Transposition is -2.00 +2.00 x180
1. Algebracially (keep the signs with the number) combine the sphere and cylinder power to get your new sphere number
2. Change the cylinder sign
3. Change the axis by 90 degrees

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65
Q

The results of visual acuity measurements are expressed as a fraction in which the denominator is
A. always twenty feet (6 meters)
B. the distance at which a normal eye can see the chart letters
C. The distance at which the patient can see the chart letters
D. the distance of the patient from the chart letters

Lensometry 3%

A

B. the distance at which a normal eye can see the chart letters

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66
Q

Which of the following statements about vision testing is true?
A. In children, the testing should be done fairly rapidly to rule out amblyopia
B. In the normal patient, visual acuity is generally the same with both eyes with either eye tested separately
C. Patients with amblyopia will do better if shown individual letter than if shown a whole line
D. There is no difference in the degree of difficulty between different Snellen letters of the same size

Lensometry 3%

A

C. Patients with amblyopia will do better if shown individual letter than if shown a whole line

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67
Q

The Geneva lens clock measure(s)
A. can be used in lieu of a rediuscope for measuring the BC of a RGP lens
B. determines the center thickness of a spectacle lens
C. is used to verify the axis of astigmatism of a front surface toric soft contact lens
D. the surface curvature of a spectacle lens

Lensometry 3%

A

D. the surface curvature of a spectacle lens

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68
Q

When reading the power of a lens using the plus cylinder technique, what reading is noted when the single lines and triple lines come into focus simultaneously?
A. Prism
B. Bifocal
C. Sphere
D. Cylinder

Lensometry 3%

A

C. Sphere

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69
Q

A “scissor reflex” may occur during retinoscopy and is associated with
A. cataracts
B. Fuch’s dystrophy
C. keratoconus
D. narrow angle glaucoma

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. keratoconus

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70
Q

Cycloplegic refraction is performed to
A. prevent the accommodative effort required to compensate for hyperopia
B. reveal the acceptability of a particular correction
C. only detect minimal refractive error
D. reveal full correction of hyperopic error

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

A. prevent the accommodative effort required to compensate for hyperopia

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71
Q

When performing refraction, the Jackson cross cylinder is used to
A. determine the amount of mixed astigmatism
B. refine the cylinder power and axis
C. refine the sperical power
D. determine the endpoint of the refraction

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

B. refine the cylinder power and axis

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72
Q

Streak retinoscopy is a
A. retinal exam for diabetic retinopathy
B. subjective method for measuring refractive error
C. test performed by a laser
D. objective method for measuring refractive error

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. objective method for measuring refractive error

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73
Q

The astigmatic clock has black lines intersecting at a common point with the end separated by
A. 20 degree of 5 degree intervals
B. 30 degree or 10 degree intervals
C. 40 degree or 15 degree intervals
D. 50 degree or 20 degree intervals

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

B. 30 degree or 10 degree intervals

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74
Q

A parallel beam of light passes through a sphero-cylindrical lens +2.00 +1.00 x090. Where is the circle of least confusion?
A. 20 cm behind the lens
B. 30 cm behind the lens
C. 40 cm behind the lens
D. 20 cm in front of the lens

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. 40 cm behind the lens

The focal length is the same as the spherical equivalent’s focal length

The spherical equivalent is +2.50
F is Focal length in meters
D is diopter power of the lens
F=1/D
F=1/2.5
F=0.40 of a meter which is 40 cm
The focal length is behind the lens because it is a plus lens. If it were a minus lens, the length is the same, 40 cm, but is would be in front of the lens.

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75
Q

The distance from the anterior surface of the eye to the back of the spectacle lens is the
A. base curve
B. pupillary distance
C. lens distance
D. vertex distance

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. vertex distance

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76
Q

The condition in which the eye does not refract light equally in all directions is
A. emmetropia
B. astigmatism
C. amblyopia
D. esotropia

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

B. astigmatism

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77
Q

Refractometry without requiring patient response is considered to be
A. preliminary
B. refining
C. objective
D. subjective

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. objective

subjective = subject decides
objective = practitioner decides

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78
Q

Starting with plano (or no lens) in retinoscopy and using an appropriate working lens at 66 cm, a “with” reflex is most commonly observed in which refractive error?
A. Exophoria
B. Astigmatism
C. Myopia
D. Hyperopia

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. Hyperopia

If they were myopia, you would most likely observe against motion

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79
Q

In A-scan biometry, which ocular measurement provides the axial length of the globe?
A. Anterior corneal surface to anterior vitreous face
B. Anterior corneal surface to the retina
C. Pre-corneal tear film to posterior pole
D. Pre-corneal tear film to posterior vitreous face

Biometry 5%

A

B. Anterior corneal surface to the retina

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80
Q

Ultrasound machines have a large number of switches and dials, however what is the only change made during an average examination using the B-scan?
A. Sound intensity
B. LCD display
C. Pulse controls
D. Transducer

Biometry 5%

A

A. Sound intensity

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81
Q

Contact A-scan biometry
A. is more accurate than immersion A-scan biometry
B. is used to measure corneal diameter
C. can be performed with patient upright or reclined
D. cannot be performed in an aphakic patient

Biometry 5%

A

C. can be performed with patient upright or reclined

82
Q

Immersion A-scan is generally more accurate than contact biometry due to
A. less eye movement
B. the use of a more powerful ultrasound
C. better lubrication of the cornea
D. less corneal compression

Biometry 5%

A

D. less corneal compression

83
Q

What will distort the sound beam and render the resulting echo pattern almost unrecognizable?
A. Use of topical anesthetic drops
B. Bubbles in the fluid bath
C. A posterior subcapsular cataract
D. The patient being reclined

Biometry 5%

A

B. Bubbles in the fluid bath

84
Q

How many dimesions does an A-scan produce in its display?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Biometry 5%

A

B. 1

85
Q

In a patient with dry eyes, the doctor may ask you to conduct a Schirmer test. The test should be performed with
A. strips avoiding corneal contact
B. use of a mydriatic
C. use of a cycloplegic
D. the patient sedated

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

A. strips avoiding corneal contact

86
Q

The electroretinogram (ERG) tests the function of
A. cones
B. rods
C. rods and cones
D. RPE cells

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

C. rods and cones

87
Q

How many layers comprise the tear layer?
A. 3 layers
B. 4 layers
C. 5 layers
D. 6 layers

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

A. 3 layers

Lipid (Oil) layer comes from the meibomian glands and help prevent the aqueous layer from evaporating

Aqueous (water) layer comes from the lacrimal gland and provides hydration and oxygen to the cornea/eye

Mucus layer is made up of goblet cells in the conjunctivia to help the aqueous layer “stick”

88
Q

The cones of the human eye are sensitive to which colors?
A. Red, green, and blue
B. Green, blue, and yellow
C. Blue, yellow, and red
D. Red, green, and black

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

A. Red, green, and blue

89
Q

What is the correct abbreviation used for the unit “gram”?
A. g
B. gt
C. gr
D. gm

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

A. g

90
Q

Which test is used to assess stereopsis?
A. Pinhole
B. Schirmer’s
C. Ishihara
D. Wirt

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

D. Wirt

91
Q

In glare testing, how many controlled degrees of light does the BAT test deliver when the eye is viewing a Snellen target?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

B. 3

Low, medium, and high

92
Q

What test is used to assess color vision?
A. Allen cards
B. Snellen chart
C. Worth four-dot
D. Ishihara plates

Supplemental Testing 2%

A

D. Ishihara plates

93
Q

Epidemic adenovirus keratoconjunctivitis is transmitted through
A. finger to eye
B. applanation tonometry
C. fluorescein solution
D. kissing

Microbiology 3%

A

B. applanation tonometry

94
Q

Cytology is the study of
A. microbial organisms
B. cell types
C. gram and Giemsa stains
D. adenoviruses

Microbiology 3%

A

B. cell types

95
Q

A sample of discharge or tissue cells obtained by scraping is a
A. smudge
B. fragment
C. smear
D. specimen

Microbiology 3%

A

C. smear

96
Q

What is the most prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

Microbiology 3%

A

B. Eosinophils

97
Q

What protozoan organism can cause corneal infections?
A. Acanthamoeba
B. Pseudomonas
C. Fusarium
D. Adenovirus

Microbiology 3%

A

A. Acanthamoeba

98
Q

What is the main purpose of aseptic technique?
A. Non-sterile touches clean
B. Steile touches sterile
C. Sterile touchs clean
D. Clean touches clean

Microbiology 3%

A

B. Steile touches sterile

99
Q

What is the primary purpose of epinephrine use with glaucoma?
A. Increase aqueous outflow
B. Increase aqueous production
C. Decrease aqueous outflow
D. Decrease aqueous production

Pharmacology 3%

A

A. Increase aqueous outflow

100
Q

A glaucoma patient has a syncopal episode and has a pulse of 36 beats per minute. Which medication is most likely the cause?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Mannitol
C. Pilocarpine
D. Timolol

Pharmacology 3%

A

D. Timolol

101
Q

The type of drug that stimulates the effect of acetylcholine is a
A. parasympatholytic
B. parasympathomimetic
C. sympatholytic
D. sympathomimetic

Pharmacology 3%

A

B. parasympathomimetic

102
Q

What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?
A. Pupil constriction
B. Reduction of the pressue in the aqueous veins
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
D. Increased rate flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork

Pharmacology 3%

A

C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body

103
Q

Sympathomimetic agents dilate the pupil by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Blocking the action of the sphinctor muscle of the iris
B. Stimulating the ciliary muscle
C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris
D. Stimulating the sphinctor muscle of the iris

Pharmacology 3%

A

C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris

104
Q

What sycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting affect?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Tropicamide
D. Cyclopentolate

Pharmacology 3%

A

B. Atropine Sulfate

105
Q

Tear duct irrigation may be indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. Xanthelasma
B. Epiphora
C. Entropion
D. Hypotony

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. Epiphora

106
Q

A retrobulbar injection places medication into the
A. bulbar conjunctiva
B. conjunctiva
C. eyeball
D. muscle cone

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

D. muscle cone

107
Q

Instruments that are slim-handled with bowl-shaped ends are
A. curettes
B. clamps
C. needle holders
D. scalpels

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

A. curets

108
Q

An obstruction of the meibomian gland generally causes
A. pterygiums
B. chalazions
C. ptosis
D. entropion

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. chalazions

109
Q

Common anesthetic agents such as proparacaine, tetracaine, and lidocaine are administered
A. as inhalants
B. as eye drops
C. orally
D. intravenously

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. as eye drops

110
Q

This method used to permanently remove lashes from the lid margin is
A. electrolysis
B. iridotomy
C. myectomy
D. vitrectomy

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

A. electrolysis

111
Q

Of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wave length?
A. Argon
B. Excimer
C. Krypton
D. Carbon dioxide

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. Excimer

112
Q

What instrument is used to irrigate the lacrimal duct?
A. Forceps
B. Punctum dilator
C. Curette
D. Cannula

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

D. Cannula

Cannulas come is different shapes and sizes. Typically they are attached to a syringe and the fluid can be flushed through the lacrimal duct.
113
Q

What is the most common and practical form of instrument sterilization?
A. Chemical
B. Boiling
C. Dry heat
D. Moist heat

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

D. Moist heat

Autoclave

114
Q

What is the first step in the surgical instrument sterilization process?
A. Soak instruments in instrument milk
B. Thoroughly rinse and clean instruments
C. Soak instruments in alcohol
D. Autoclave the instruments

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. Thoroughly rinse and clean instruments

115
Q

Prior to ultrasonic cleaning, microsurgical instruments must be
A. rinsed with acetone
B. opened and separated
C. lubricated with instrument milk
D. wrapped with a chemical indicator strip

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. opened and separated

116
Q

You are assisting the retina surgeon set-up for a pan-retinal photocoagulation (PRP). Through several ophthalmic lasers could be useful for this procedure, what type is most often used?
A. Diode
B. Argon
C. Krypton
D. Nd: YAG

Surgical Assisting 6%

A

B. Argon

117
Q

A physician writes the following prescription: Atropine 1% 1 gtt OS qhs x5d. What does it mean?
A. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution by mouth before bed for five days.
B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for five days
C. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every night before bed for five days
D. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every hour for five hours

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for five days

118
Q

Involuntary rhythmic, to-and-fro oscillations of one or both eyes is referred to as
A. ptosis
B. proptosis
C. emmetropia
D. nystagmus

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

D. nystagmus

119
Q

How do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors affect the production of aqueous humor?
A. Increase production
B. Decrease production
C. No effect on production
D. Maintain normal production

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. Decrease production

120
Q

Miotics (parasympathomimetic agents) are used as a topical therapy for
A. glaucoma
B. macular degeneration
C. conjunctivitis
D. amblyopia

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. glaucoma

121
Q

What is the order of the layers of the cornea?
A. Corneal epithelium, Stroma, Bowman’s membrance, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal endothelium
B. Corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrance, Stroma, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal endothelium
C. Corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrance, Descemet’s membrance, corneal endothelium, and Stroma
D. Corneal endothelium, Bowman’s membrance, Stroma, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal epithelium

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. Corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrance, Stroma, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal endothelium

122
Q

Which type of lens eliminates distortion found at the edge of the field in hand and stand readers?
A. Aspheric lens
B. Convex lens
C. Keeler lens
D. Hruby lens

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. Aspheric lens

123
Q

The optic chiasm is the crossing point for the retinal nerve fibers and the point where the
A. optic nerves form the optic tracts
B. nasal retina becomes the temporal retina
C. superior retina become the inferior retina
D. optic radiations emerge

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. optic nerves form the optic tracts

124
Q

Open-angle glaucoma is primarily caused by abnormalities in which structure?
A. Trabecular meshwork
B. Posterior chamber
C. Ciliary processes
D. Iris

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. Trabecular meshwork

125
Q

What is the most important action for a patient who has sustained a splach injury to the eye?
A. Go to the emergency room as quickly as possible
B. Immediately fluch the eye with a substantial amount of liquid and call the poison control center
C. Put a bland ophthalmic ointment in the eye to protect the corneal epithelium
D. Make sure to keep the bottle that the liquid was in and call 911

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. Immediately fluch the eye with a substantial amount of liquid and call the poison control center

126
Q

All of the following describe types of retinal detachment except
A. tractional
B. choroidal
C. central serous chorioretinopathy
D. rhegmatogenous

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. choroidal

127
Q

Management of the partially sighted varies with the patient’s
A. vocation
B. age
C. sex
D. ethnicity

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. age

128
Q

What is the name of the rule to determine the amount of magnification required for a low vision patient to read where the numerator of the patient’s acuity is divided into the denominator?
A. Herring’s rule
B. Keeler rule
C. Kestenbaum rule
D. Mueller rule

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

C. Kestenbaum rule

129
Q

True ophthalmic emergencies need to be treated within minutes. Which of the following conditions is considered a true ophthalmic emergency?
A. Chemical burn of the eye
B. Hyphema
C. Blow-out fracture
D. Retinal detachment

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. Chemical burn of the eye

130
Q

Which two types of ophthalmic symptoms require immediate attention?
A. Pain; loss of vision
B. Redness; tearing
C. Blurry vision; floaters
D. Discharge; itching

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. Pain; loss of vision

131
Q

A patient calls stating they have not been able to see out of their right eye for the last half hour, but it does not hurt. When should they see an ophthalmologist?
A. Immediately
B. Today
C. Tomorrow
D. Sometime within the week

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. Immediately

132
Q

Which of the following conditions is a true ophthalmic emergency?
A. Ocular tumor
B. Optic neuritis
C. Old retinal detachment
D. Central retinal artery occlusion

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

D. Central retinal artery occlusion

133
Q

How is a properly applied eye dressing secured?
A. Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of tape
B. Horizontal parallel strips of tape
C. Parallel strips of tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
D. Strips of tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

C. Parallel strips of tape from the forehead to the cheekbone

134
Q

What ultrasonic test provides data for calculating intraocular lens (IOL) power?
A. Keratometry
B. A-Scan
C. Pachymetry
D. B-Scan

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. A-Scan

135
Q

Which of the following was designed to measure visual acuity bypassing optical media defects?
A. ETDRS acuity charts
B. Snellen chart
C. HOTV
D. Laser interferometry (LI)

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

D. Laser interferometry (LI)

LI is another way of checking visual potential like the PAM.
136
Q

What situation would indicate a need for calibration of an A-Scan instrument?
A. Presence of a long axial length in a myopic patient
B. Increasing the gain on a patient with a dense cataract
C. Inability to obtain good end points on a series of patients on the same day
D. Moving the first gate on the patient with a shallow anterior chamber

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

C. Inability to obtain good end points on a series of patients on the same day

137
Q

A 47-year-old male presents in the office with eyelid swelling, double vision, and a bulging eye. CT reveals thickening of the extraocular muscles, eyelid retraction, and proptosis. Which of the following is the probable diagnosis?
A. Orbital tumor
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Graves’ disease
D. Lacrimal gland tumor

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

C. Graves’ disease

138
Q

Atropine is not used to dilate the pupil for routine examinations in adults because
A. it induces allergic sensitization
B. its effects do not last long enough
C. its effects last too long
D. it is weaker than homatropine

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

C. its effects last too long

139
Q

A Hruby lens is used to examine the
A. lens of the eye
B. anterior vitreous
C. fundus of the eye
D. thickness of the cornea

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

C. fundus of the eye

The lens is attached to the slit lamp to allow the fundus to be viewed
140
Q

The primary area of the brain which receives visual stimuli is located
A. at the base of the frontal lobe
B. at the posterior portion of the occipital lobe
C. in the cerebellum
D. in the superior portion of the temporal lobe

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

B. at the posterior portion of the occipital lobe

141
Q

What is the term for the reduction in accommodation that occurs with age?
A. Amblyopia
B. Anisometropia
C. Emmetropia
D. Presbyopia

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

D. Presbyopia

142
Q

Corneal abrasions are treated by firm patching for how many hours?
A. 24
B. 36
C. 48
D. 60

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A

A. 24

143
Q

The denominator in the visual acuity recording of a low vision patient is
A. equal to the numerator
B. the same for both eyes
C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity
D. smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity

144
Q

A patient with which of the following color vision disorders has a severe difficulty seeing red light?
A. Protanopia
B. Protanomaly
C. Deuteranopia
D. Deuteranomaly

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

A. Protanopia

145
Q

Schirmer’s testing is used to measure
A. tear production
B. corneal thickness
C. pupillary reflexes
D. corneal curvature

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

A. tear production

146
Q

The purpose of Brightness Acuity Testing (BAT), is to determine is visual acuity varies with different
A. refractive errors
B. pinhole sizes
C. dark adaptations
D. lighting conditions

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

D. lighting conditions

147
Q

Pseudophakia refers to an eye with
A. a natural human lens
B. an intraocular lens implant
C. no lens
D. a history of LASIK

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

B. an intraocular lens implant

148
Q

In what disease are keratic precipitates generally seen?
A. Acute iritis
B. Chronic open angle glaucoma
C. Dendritic keratitis
D. Marginal corneal ulcers

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

A. Acute iritis

KPs: cellular deposits on the endothelium that occur due to inflammation

149
Q

Oral medications are considered to be what kind of drug?
A. Local
B. Subconjunctival
C. Retrobulbar
D. Systemic

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

D. Systemic

150
Q

What is the name of the drugs that are used to dilate the pupils?
A. Mydriatics
B. Miotics
C. Beta-blockers
D. Anesthetics

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

A. Mydriatics

151
Q

The physiologic blind spot correlates with what anatomy?
A. fundus
B. macula
C. optic nerve
D. posterior pole

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

C. optic nerve

The optic nerve has no photoreceptor cells so there isn’t any vision

152
Q

The use of topical steroids may induce which of the following conditions?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Cataracts
C. Keratoconus
D. Hyphema

General Medical Knowledge 5%

A

B. Cataracts

153
Q

The power of a contact lens may be measured on a standard lesmeter. A small error in the power may arise if the lens is held in place by fingers, particularly with what type of lens?
A. High power
B. Low power
C. Therapeutic
D. Cosmetic

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

A. High power

154
Q

Vertex distance refers to the
A. distance between the two optical centers of the spectacle lenses
B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens
C. difference between the distance PD and near PD
D. the pantoscopic angle of the fram

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens

155
Q

A +12 D lens is designated as a magnifier of which power?
A. 2x
B. 3x
C. 4x
D. 5x

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

B. 3x

156
Q

When a bundle of light rays are brought together the ray are said to
A. by symbolized by a minus sign
B. converge to a point of focus
C. create a virtual image
diverge from a point source

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

B. converge to a point of focus

157
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of a flat-top bifocal lens?
A. Better vision in sunlight
B. Lessen or eliminate image jump
C. Improved distance vision
D. Improved peripheral vision

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

B. Lessen or eliminate image jump

158
Q

What is the formula for the “Index of Refraction”?
A. Speed of light in air/Speed of light in substance
B. Speed of light in substance/Speed of light in air
C. Speed of light in air/Speed of light through a prism
D. Speed of light through a prism/Speed of light in air

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

A. Speed of light in air/Speed of light in substance

159
Q

What is the traditional term for the measurement of light intensity?
A. Wavelengths
B. Frequency
C. Foot-candles
D. Velocity

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

C. Foot-candles

Now we call these lumens

1 foot candle = the amount of light it takes to saturate a 1 square foot space

160
Q

What is the term for a path of a single corpuscle of light traveling through a tiny aperture and through two successive screens?
A. Ray of light
B. Pencil of light
C. Beam of light
D. Shaft of light

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

A. Ray of light

A beam of light is a group of light rays

161
Q

Prisms used in ophthalmology are measured in
A. diopters
B. inches
C. feet
D. yards

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

A. diopters

162
Q

Light travels in which way?
A. Waves
B. Straight lines
C. Circles
D. Beams

Optics and Spectacles 5%

A

A. Waves

163
Q

Corneal astigmatism is best correct by
A. extended wear spherical soft contact lenses
B. hydrogel spherical soft contact lenses
C. spherical RGP lens
D. spherical spin cast soft contact lenses

Contact Lenses 5%

A

C. spherical RGP lens

164
Q

The DK value of contact lens material is the
A. measurement of the light transmittance of the material
B. measurement of the refractive index of the material
C. oxygen transmissibility of the material
D. diffusion, solubility, and movement of qxygen in the lens material

Contact Lenses 5%

A

D. diffusion, solubility, and movement of qxygen in the lens material

165
Q

A contact lens fit “steeper than K” is defined as a
A. minus lens
B. corneal radius of 7.6 mm and the contact lens radius could be 7.8 mm
C. corneal measurement of 44.00 diopters and the contact lens curvature would be 44.50 diopters.
D. base curve of the contact lens which is the same radius of the curvature of the anterior cornea

Contact Lenses 5%

A

C. corneal measurement of 44.00 diopters and the contact lens curvature would be 44.50 diopters.

166
Q

All of the following are manifestations of hypoxia from a contact lens except
A. giant papillary conjunctivitis
B. intraepithelial microcysts
C. stromal edema
D. warping of the cornea (irregular astigmatism)

Contact Lenses 5%

A

A. giant papillary conjunctivitis

167
Q

Contact lens warpage should be checked with a
A. lensmeter
B. shadowgraph
C. slit lamp
D. rasiuscope

Contact Lenses 5%

A

D. rasiuscope

168
Q

How many dimensions are represented in a B-scan image?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

B. 2

169
Q

When performing A-scan biometry, correct alignment of the probe is best determined by
A. tissue spikes that gradually increase in height
B. an axial length measurement between 22 mm and 25 mm
C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp
D. an axial length measurement that is almost equal between the two eyes

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp

170
Q

The source used to obtain the image in Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is
A. ultrasonic energy
B. visible white light
C. visible red-green light
D. high resolution imaging

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

D. high resolution imaging

171
Q

When a sound wave travels from one medium to another an echo is produced by
A. frequency
B. acoustic impedance
C. optical density
D. gain setting

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

B. acoustic impedance

172
Q

Why is immersion A-scan considered more accurate than contact A-scan?
A. Faster to perform
B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated
C. Abrading the cornea is eliminated
D. Uses light instead of sound

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated

173
Q

The most common error made in contact biometry is
A. improper gate placement
B. erroneous K readings
C. corneal compression
D. wrong eye type

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

C. corneal compression

174
Q

B-scan biometry is necessary when
A. the IOL master cannot measure the eye
B. there is a cataracy
C. there is any media opacity
D. there is a Staphyloma in the eye

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

C. there is any media opacity

175
Q

What is the term for a noncontact method that allows for detailed cross-sectional imaging of the anterior eye and retina?
A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
C. Computed Tomography (CT)
D. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)

176
Q

Instead of sound, the OCT is an optical imaging technique that uses
A. lasers
B. air
C. water
D. light

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

D. light

177
Q

What imaging technique is used to identify liquefaction of the vitreous that results in vitreous detachment?
A. A-Scan
B. B-Scan
C. Pentacam
D. OCT

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

D. OCT

178
Q

OCT testing can accurately measure the thickness of the
A. iris
B. cornea
C. retina
D. lens capsule

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

B. cornea

179
Q

Intracorneal rings are used primarily in the treatment of which condition?
A. Keratoconus
B. Retinal detachment
C. Glaucoma
D. Age-related macular degeneration

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

A. Keratoconus

180
Q

Computerized topography analysis is the measurement of the curvature of the
A. corneal surface
B. anterior chamber
C. posterior chamber
D. vitreous body

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

A. corneal surface

181
Q

OCT imaging is not useful in determining which of the following conditions?
A. Glaucoma
B. Macular edema
C. Macular holes
D. Dextroversion

Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A

D. Dextroversion

182
Q

What is the earliest phase of retinal circulation in fluorescein angiography?
A. Arterial phase
B. Capillary phase
C. Choroidal flush
D. Venous phase

Photography and Videography 6%

A

C. Choroidal flush

183
Q

Specular microscopy images are used to
A. identify bacteria
B. identify retinal abnormalities
C. measure corneal endothelial cell density
D. measure corneal thickness

Photography and Videography 6%

A

C. measure corneal endothelial cell density

184
Q

Retroillumination detects
A. opacities or defects in the iris
B. eyelids or eyelash anomalies
C. the palpebral conjunctiva or sclera
D. adverse corneal effects from contact lenses

Photography and Videography 6%

A

A. opacities or defects in the iris

185
Q

Gonioscopy is a technique for imaging the
A. junction of the iris and cornea
B. axons of the optic nerve head
C. chiasmal and post chiasmal field defects
D. nerve fiber pathways aboce the raphe

Photography and Videography 6%

A

A. junction of the iris and cornea

186
Q

Which dystrophy is noted by wart like deposits on Descemet’s membrane, thickening of Descemet’s membrane, and defects of size and shape of the endothelial cells?
A. Fuch’s dystrophy
B. Narrow angle glaucoma
C. Lattice corneal dystrophy
D. Retinal detachment

Photography and Videography 6%

A

A. Fuch’s dystrophy

187
Q

What type of stromal corneal dystrophy is manifested by a dense gray central opacity that starts in Bowman’s layer?
A. Macular
B. Granular
C. Lattice
D. Reis-Buckler

Photography and Videography 6%

A

A. Macular

188
Q

Taken with a green filter, in a red-free photograph
A. veins and arteries appear black; optic nerve appears white
B. veins and arteries appear white; optic nerve appears black
C. fluorescein dye is present in the arteries and choroid only
D. arteries and capillaries fluoresce

Photography and Videography 6%

A

A. veins and arteries appear black; optic nerve appears white

189
Q

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when fluorescein dye is indicated in the arteries and choroid only?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late venous

Photography and Videography 6%

A

A. Arterial

The choroid (veins below the retina) are highlighted and the arteries are also fluorescing, but the vein are still black. Within 8-15 seconds the choroidal flush has happened and 1-3 seconds after that the arteries start filling.
190
Q

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when arteries and capillaries fluoresce?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late venous

Photography and Videography 6%

A

C. Early venous

Early venous is also referred to as the arteriovenous/laminar phase, where the veins are just starting to fill from the outside in. Notice that the center of the central vein is still dark, this is called laminar flow. 1-2 seconds later the capillaries and veins start filling.
191
Q

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when there is a full filling of larger veins?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late venous

Photography and Videography 6%

A

D. Late venous

Late venous/Full venous phase/Mid-phase is when all the arteries and veins have filled and recirculation is starting. This happens 20-30 seconds after injection.
192
Q

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when leakage can be seen and diminution of fluorescence in all retinal blood vessels is indicated?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late

Photography and Videography 6%

A

D. Late

You can see leakage and staining and the vessels aren't as fluorescent because the dye is recirculating and being filtered by the kidneys. This phase starts about 30 seconds after the dye has been injected. Sometimes we will wait several (up to 10ish) minutes to take photos of the leakage and staining.
193
Q

What is the term for mid-phase fluorescein angiography?
A. Arterial phase
B. Fluorescein phase
C. Choroidal flush
D. Venous phase

Photography and Videography 6%

A

D. Venous phase

When all the arteries and veins are full

194
Q

The forehead and cheek rests on the phoropter are cleanded
A. after each patient with liquid detergent
B. periodically with a 1:10 dilution of liquid bleach
C. with soap and water, soaked in alcohol, or boiled in water
D. after each patient by a sterilization process only

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A

C. with soap and water, soaked in alcohol, or boiled in water

195
Q

If the lenses are dirty on a refractor/phoropter, they should be cleaned with a
A. lint-free swab lightly moistened with either alcohol or ether
B. lint-free swab lightly moistened with bleach
C. lint-free swab lightly moistened with distilled water
D. lint-free swab lightly moistened with dish wash detergent

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A

A. lint-free swab lightly moistened with either alcohol or ether

196
Q

How often should the calibration on the applanation tonometer be checked?
A. Every month
B. Every 2 months
C. Every 3 months
D. Every 4 months

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A

B. Every 2 months

197
Q

Which of the following statements about the Snellen visual acuity chart is true?
A. A special slide is available for testing color vision
B. It can be used only with a patient-to-screen distance of twenty feet ( six meters)
C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the optotypes on the screen
D. With proper adjustment it can be used to test near vision

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A

C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the optotypes on the screen

198
Q

If the slit lamp will no longer slide easily on the tabletop, which of the following remedies should be tried first?
A. Clean the friction pad (plate)
B. Grease the joystick
C. Replace the ball bearings
D. Replace the locking screw

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A

A. Clean the friction pad (plate)

199
Q

What fundamental issue enhances patient trust and partnership while aiding patients to understand their disease?
A. Informed consent
B. Cultural beliefs
C. Honest patient communication
D. Proper communication

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 2%

A

C. Honest patient communication

200
Q

The term for the education of the patient, asking for their participation in the decision making process is
A. client confidentiality
B. informed consent
C. patient privacy
D. paient responsibility

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 2%

A

B. informed consent

Certification Prep (9 decks)

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