COT 2 Flashcards by Training VEI !

What is not important when documenting the history of an ocular injury?
A. How the injury occurred
B. Presence of others when the injury occurred
C. The time the injury occurred
D. Treatment received since the injury occurred

History and Documentation 3%

B. Presence of others when the injury occurred

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Which one of the following ocular conditions will least likely present in a patient’s family history?
A. Keratoconus
B. Nystagmus
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa

History and Documentation 3%

C. Conjunctivitis

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When evaluating a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following systemic illnesses is least important?
A. Cardiac problems
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Urinary incontinence

History and Documentation 3%

D. Urinary incontinence

This does not affect the actual surgery unless the pt is on tamsulosin

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Which symptoms might suggest angle-closure glaucoma?
A. Flashes and floaters
B. Slowly progressive visual loss
C. Bleeding into the anterior chamber
D. Rainbow colored halos around lights

History and Documentation 3%

D. Rainbow colored halos around lights

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What is the correct interpretation of 1 gtt TID OU?
A. One drop to the left eye three times a day
B. One drops to both eyes three times a day
C. One injection to both arms three times a day
D. One drop to both eyes three times a day as needed

History and Documentation 3%

B. One drops to both eyes three times a day

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A history or corticosteroid use is of least importance when ascertaining which condition?
A. Cataracts
B. Glaucoma
C. Macular Degeneration
D. Uveitis

History and Documentation 3%

C. Macular Degeneration

Steroid use can affect cataract growth, increase IOP, & rebound uveitis

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A visual acuity of 20/200 obtained at a distance of 4 feet should be recorded as
A. J10
B. 6/60
C. 4/200
D. < 20/200

Visual Assessment 7%

C. 4/200

The numerator represents the distance the patient is from the chart.

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If a patient’s visual acuity measures 20/70 with correction and pinholes to 20/25, which of the following is most likely?
A. The patient needs distance correction
B. The patient is malingering
C. The patient should be dilated and examined for retinopathy
D. The patient has cataracts

Visual Assessment 7%

A. The patient needs distance correction

The pinhole gives you a potential vision due to a refractive error

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The lines of Snellen optotypes are what size in comparison to the entire optotype?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/6

Visual Assessment 7%

C. 1/5

Regardless of the optotype, this is true, but it’s always best to think of the E with these questions.

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Reduced visual acuity without an detectable organice cause is referred to as
A. amblyopia
B. strabismus
C. anisometropia
D. suppression

Visual Assessment 7%

A. amblyopia

An amblyopic has a healthy eye and brain, but decreased vision

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A 55-year-old patient has worn glasses since childhood. Without glasses, a patient’s uncorrected vision improves when looking tough an occluder with perforations. This phenomenon is known as the
A. prism effect
B. scatter effect
C. pinhole effect
D. contrast effect

Visual Assessment 7%

C. pinhole effect

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What is the metric equivalent of 20/40 visual acuity
A. 6/10
B. 6/12
C. 6/15
D. 6/20

Visual Assessment 7%

B. 6/12

20/20=6/6; 20/30=6/9; 20/40=6/12

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Dynamic visual acuity refers to
A. acuity measured in a controlled medical office setting
B. kinetic or moving vision
C. contrast sensitivity acuity
D. pinhole acuity

Visual Assessment 7%

B. kinetic or moving vision

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Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter is useful for patients with
A. glaucoma
B. cataracts
C. optic neuritis
D. age-related macular degeneration

Visual Assessment 7%

B. cataracts

If you have a questions like this that doesn’t say “most”, add it to the question to figure out your answer. They are always looking for the best answer to the question even when more than one answer applies.

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Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye?
A. 10-12
B. 14-16
C. 18-20
D. 22-24

Visual Assessment 7%

B. 14-16

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If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with the use of a(n)
A. placido disc
B. pinhole disc
C. occluder over non-dominant eye
D. occluder over dominant eye

Visual Assessment 7%

B. pinhole disc

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What is the recommended distance for assessing visual acuity?
A. 20 cm
B. 20 mm
C. 20’
D. 20”

Visual Assessment 7%

C. 20’

‘ means feet, while “ means inches

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If a person can clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 60 feet by a person with no refractive error, the visual acuity is said to be
A. 20/20
B. 20/40
C. 20/60
D. 60/20

Visual Assessment 7%

C. 20/60

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If a patient is unable to distinguish the largest letter on a Snellen chart, the assistant should
A. determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance
B. immediately assess for hand motion
C. darken the room and check for light perception
D. record “unable to assess” in the patient’s chart

Visual Assessment 7%

A. determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance

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In visual assessment, an infant would be expected to reach for toys by the age of
A. 2-4 months
B. 4-6 months
C. 6-8 months
D. 8-10 months

Visual Assessment 7%

B. 4-6 months

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The visual field defect in which there is a complete type of nerve bundle defect emanating from the blind spot, arching over central fixation, and ending on the horizontal line is a(n)
A. absolute scotoma
B. Bjerrum scotoma
C. contraction
D. relative scotoma

Visual Field Testing 3%

B. Bjerrum scotoma

They always emanate from the blind spot

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Homonymous congrous visual field defects with macular sparing are located in what part of the visual pathway?
A. Occipital cortex
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic nerve
D. Optic radiation

Visual Field Testing 3%

A. Occipital cortex

The fact that it is macular sparing doesn’t matter.

The fact that it is homonymous (same sided) means that it must be BEHIND the optic chiasm. The optic nerve is in front of the optic chiasm. If the problem was in the optic radiations, the defect would not be congrous, meaning equal in size and shape.

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With a 3 mm white target on the perimeter of a 330-degree radius, the average peripheral limit is about
A. 75° out, 55° down, 40° in, and 40° up
B. 85° out, 65° down, 50° in, and 50° up
C. 95° out, 75° down, 60° in, and 60° up
D. 105° out, 85° down, 70° in, and 40° up

Visual Field Testing 3%

C. 95° out, 75° down, 60° in, and 60° up

Our total width of view is ~155°

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what type of patient generally requires a threshold 24-degree central field test?
A. Cataract
B. Diplopia
C. Glaucoma
D. Low vision

Visual Field Testing 3%

C. Glaucoma

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The most widely used method of visual field screening, requiring no special equipment, is A. Goldmann perimtry B. the tangent screen C. Amsler grid D. confrontation testing ## Footnote Visual Field Testing 3%

D. confrontation testing

Scotomas located immediately nasal or temporal to fixation are known as A. central B. paracentral C. arcuate D. nasal step ## Footnote Visual Field Testing 3%

B. paracentral

The purpose of checking pupils is to compare the A. consensual response in the stimulated eye and the direct response in the other eye B. direct response in the stimulated eye and the consensual response in the other eye C. direct response and the near response in the same eye D. direct response in one eye ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

B. direct response in the stimulated eye and the consensual response in the other eye

In ordinary room light, the diameter of the normal adult pupil is A. 3-5 mm B. 6-9 mm C. 10-13 mm D. 14-17 mm ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

A. 3-5 mm

A difference in pupil size is referred to as A. Adie's Syndrome B. Marcus Gunn pupil C. anisorcoria D. hippus ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

C. anisorcoria

The presence of an iris sphinctor muscle defect may be caused by A. damage to the iris sphinctor muscle B. symmetric damage to the afferent visual system C. asymmetric cataracts D. optic nerve disease ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

D. optic nerve disease | An RAPD tells us that the nerves aren't receiving light equally.

Consensual light reflex in the right eye results in A. right pupil constriction B. right pupil dilation C. left pupil constriction D. left pupil dilation ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

A. right pupil constriction | Consensual means that it is reacting to the light shining into OS

What is the term for the state of pupillary constriction? A. Mydriasis B. Miosis C. Cycloplegia D. Aniscoria ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

B. Miosis

Which test compares the direct and consensual responses to the pupil? A. Swinging flashlight B. Worth four-dot C. Pinhole disc D. Cover-Uncover ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

A. Swinging flashlight

What condition is present if the amount of light information transmitted to the brain from one eye differs from that of the other eye? A. Afferent pupillary defect B. Adie's pupil C. Tonic pupil D. Third nerve palsy ## Footnote Pupil Assessment 4%

A. Afferent pupillary defect

What is the most significant advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer? A. Applanation is a more modern technique B. Applanation causes ledd patient discomfort C. Applanation tonometry allows for a small amount of aqueous humor to be displaced from the AC D. Applanation instruments are more cosst effective ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

C. Applanation tonometry allows for a small amount of aqueous humor to be displaced from the AC

Which procedure is most likely to give a falsely elevated intraocular pressure reading? A. Non-contact tonometry (NCT) B. Applanation tonometry C. Digital pneumotonography D. Indentation tonometry ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

A. Non-contact tonometry (NCT) | NCT is the 'air puff'. Patients tend to hold their breath more with NCT.

Which of these ocular conditions is least likely to render Goldmann tonometry inaccurate? A. Keratoconus B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Pterygia D. Corneal scars ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

B. Retinitis pigmentosa | LEAST likely!

Intraocular pressure is highest during the A. morning B. afternoon C. early evening D. late evening ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

A. morning

What type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp? A. Applanation B. Indentation C. Perkins D. Air puff ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

A. Applanation

Intraocular pressure is measured with a(n) A. ophthalmometer B. keratometer C. lensometer D. tonometer ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

D. tonometer

What is the term for the tonometry technique that displaces a minimal amount of fluid? A. Indentation B. Applanation C. Elevation D. Fixation ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

B. Applanation

What color is the light filter used in applanation tonometry? A. Blue B. Red C. Yellow D. Green ## Footnote Tonometry 4%

A. Blue | The test may specify that it is Cobalt Blue

The difference between the corneal curvature measurements with a keratometer reveals the A. radius of corneal curvature B. amount of corneal astigmatism C. cylinder axis D. steepest K ## Footnote Keratometry 3%

B. amount of corneal astigmatism

If the K value of a patient being fir for RGP contact lenses is recorded as 43.50/44.50, the BC of CL fit "on K" would be which of the following? A. 43.50 B. 44.00 C. 44.50 D. 45.00 ## Footnote Keratometry 3%

A. 43.50

What is an average corneal curvature measurement? A. 42.00 D B. 43.00 D C. 44.00 D D. 45.00 D ## Footnote Keratometry 3%

C. 44.00 D

In the case of a one-year old child with an infantile left esotropia and deep left amblyopia, which notion would denote the visual acuity? A. CSM B. CSUM C. CUSM D. UCSUM ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

D. UCSUM

The difference between the farthest and nearest distance at which a patient is able to see clearly is known as A. covergence amplitude B. Panum's fusional space C. range of accommodation D. the add ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

C. range of accommodation

In order to test the function of the superior oblique (SO) muscle, the eye is directed into which field of gaze? A. Down and lateral B. Down and medial C. Straight ahead D. Up and lateral ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

B. Down and medial

A patient who is unable to abduct the left eye may have a weakness of the A. right medial rectus (RMR) muscle B. left lateral rectus (LLR) muscle C. left medial rectus (LMR) muscle D. right lateral rectus (RLR) muscle ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

B. left lateral rectus (LLR) muscle | ABduct=turnout. Lateral rectus controls ABduction

During alternate cover testing, the right eye moves downward as the cover is switched to the left eye. The deviation is measued using A. base down prism over the left eye B. base down prism over the right eye C. base up prism over the left eye D. base up prism over the right eye ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

B. base down prism over the right eye | Point the apex in the direction of the deviation. Hyper= BD & apex up

Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria? A. Worth four-dot B. Ishihara plate C. Maddox rod D. Marcus Gunn ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

C. Maddox rod

Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex? A. Hess B. Worth four-dot C. Hirschberg D. Krimsky ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

D. Krimsky | Hirschberg is the corneal reflex test, Krimsky measures it with prisms

Which item is not a classification of fixation? A. Central B. Steady C. Maintained D. Primary ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

D. Primary

How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

C. 3 | III, IV, & VI innervate the muscles. SO4 LR6, everything else is three!

Which is not a designation of a version? A. Levoversion B. Sursumversion C. Dextraversion D. Intraversion ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

D. Intraversion | Levo = Left Dextra = Right Sursum = Upwards

In ocular motility testing, what is happening if the child only sees two red lights (red lens over right eye)? A. The child is suppressing the right eye B. The child is suppressing the left eye C. The child is alternating fixation D. The child is seeing double ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

B. The child is suppressing the left eye | Red over right, green over left. All red means no use of left eye.

The best measurement for a deviation with good fixation is the A. cover-uncover test B. Hirschberg test C. Krimsky test D. prism alternate cover test ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

D. prism alternate cover test

Eye misalignment caused by extraocular muscle imbalance, which is present with both eyes uncovered, is a(n) A. tropia B. asthenopia C. phoria D. myopia ## Footnote Ocular Motility Testing 6%

A. tropia | 2 misalignments, tropia (always present), and phoria (forced to show)

A lens formula of +2.00-3.00x90 What is the power at 90 degrees and 180 degrees? A. +2.00 and -1.00 B. +2.00 and -3.00 C. +5.00 and +3.00 D. -1.00 and +2.00 ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

A. +2.00 and -1.00 ## Footnote optical cross

A patient with a far point of 20 cm in front of the eye requires what spectacle lens power to correct their refractive error to emmetropia? A. -5.00 D B. -2.00 D C. +2.00 D D. +5.00 D ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

A. -5.00 D ## Footnote D=1/F

What type of astigmatism has one focal line on the retina and the other behind the retina? A. Mixed astigmatism B. Simple hyperopic astigmatism C. Compound hyperopic astigmatism D. Simple myopic astigmatism ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

B. Simple hyperopic astigmatism

What is the proper name for an astigmatic eye with the anterior line in front of the retina and the posterior focal line behind the retina? A. Compound hyperopic astigmatism B. Compound myopic astigmatism C. Irregular astigmatism D. Mixed astigmatism ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

D. Mixed astigmatism

Lensometry of a patient's glasses reveal the single line coming into focus first at -1.50, then the triple lines at zero, with axis at 180 degrees, what is the Rx? A. -1.50 -1.50 x180 B. plano -1.50 x090 C. plano -1.50 x180 D. plano +1.50 x090 ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

B. plano -1.50 x090 | you must transpose this Rx to find the answer ## Footnote The Rx given is -1.50 + 1.50 x180 Transposition is plano -1.50 x090 1. Algebracially (keep the signs with the number) combine the sphere and cylinder power to get your new sphere number 2. Change the cylinder sign 3. Change the axis by 90 degrees

In lensometry, first the single lines come into focus at plano and then the triple lines come into focus at -2.00 with the axis at 90 degrees. What is the Rx? A. -2.00 +2.00 x180 B. -2.00 +2.00 x090 C. plano -2.00 x180 D. +2.00 -2.00 x090 ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

A. -2.00 +2.00 x180 | you must transpose this Rx to find the answer ## Footnote Rx given is plano -2.00 x090 Transposition is -2.00 +2.00 x180 1. Algebracially (keep the signs with the number) combine the sphere and cylinder power to get your new sphere number 2. Change the cylinder sign 3. Change the axis by 90 degrees

The results of visual acuity measurements are expressed as a fraction in which the denominator is A. always twenty feet (6 meters) B. the distance at which a normal eye can see the chart letters C. The distance at which the patient can see the chart letters D. the distance of the patient from the chart letters ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

B. the distance at which a normal eye can see the chart letters

Which of the following statements about vision testing is true? A. In children, the testing should be done fairly rapidly to rule out amblyopia B. In the normal patient, visual acuity is generally the same with both eyes with either eye tested separately C. Patients with amblyopia will do better if shown individual letter than if shown a whole line D. There is no difference in the degree of difficulty between different Snellen letters of the same size ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

C. Patients with amblyopia will do better if shown individual letter than if shown a whole line

The Geneva lens clock measure(s) A. can be used in lieu of a rediuscope for measuring the BC of a RGP lens B. determines the center thickness of a spectacle lens C. is used to verify the axis of astigmatism of a front surface toric soft contact lens D. the surface curvature of a spectacle lens ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

D. the surface curvature of a spectacle lens

When reading the power of a lens using the plus cylinder technique, what reading is noted when the single lines and triple lines come into focus simultaneously? A. Prism B. Bifocal C. Sphere D. Cylinder ## Footnote Lensometry 3%

C. Sphere

A "scissor reflex" may occur during retinoscopy and is associated with A. cataracts B. Fuch's dystrophy C. keratoconus D. narrow angle glaucoma ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

C. keratoconus

Cycloplegic refraction is performed to A. prevent the accommodative effort required to compensate for hyperopia B. reveal the acceptability of a particular correction C. only detect minimal refractive error D. reveal full correction of hyperopic error ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A. prevent the accommodative effort required to compensate for hyperopia

When performing refraction, the Jackson cross cylinder is used to A. determine the amount of mixed astigmatism B. refine the cylinder power and axis C. refine the sperical power D. determine the endpoint of the refraction ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

B. refine the cylinder power and axis

Streak retinoscopy is a A. retinal exam for diabetic retinopathy B. subjective method for measuring refractive error C. test performed by a laser D. objective method for measuring refractive error ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

D. objective method for measuring refractive error

The astigmatic clock has black lines intersecting at a common point with the end separated by A. 20 degree of 5 degree intervals B. 30 degree or 10 degree intervals C. 40 degree or 15 degree intervals D. 50 degree or 20 degree intervals ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

B. 30 degree or 10 degree intervals

A parallel beam of light passes through a sphero-cylindrical lens +2.00 +1.00 x090. Where is the circle of least confusion? A. 20 cm behind the lens B. 30 cm behind the lens C. 40 cm behind the lens D. 20 cm in front of the lens ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

C. 40 cm behind the lens | The focal length is the same as the spherical equivalent's focal length ## Footnote The spherical equivalent is +2.50 F is Focal length in meters D is diopter power of the lens F=1/D F=1/2.5 F=0.40 of a meter which is 40 cm The focal length is behind the lens because it is a plus lens. If it were a minus lens, the length is the same, 40 cm, but is would be in front of the lens.

The distance from the anterior surface of the eye to the back of the spectacle lens is the A. base curve B. pupillary distance C. lens distance D. vertex distance ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

D. vertex distance

The condition in which the eye does not refract light equally in all directions is A. emmetropia B. astigmatism C. amblyopia D. esotropia ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

B. astigmatism

Refractometry without requiring patient response is considered to be A. preliminary B. refining C. objective D. subjective ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

C. objective | subjective = subject decides objective = practitioner decides

Starting with plano (or no lens) in retinoscopy and using an appropriate working lens at 66 cm, a "with" reflex is most commonly observed in which refractive error? A. Exophoria B. Astigmatism C. Myopia D. Hyperopia ## Footnote Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

D. Hyperopia | If they were myopia, you would most likely observe against motion

In A-scan biometry, which ocular measurement provides the axial length of the globe? A. Anterior corneal surface to anterior vitreous face B. Anterior corneal surface to the retina C. Pre-corneal tear film to posterior pole D. Pre-corneal tear film to posterior vitreous face ## Footnote Biometry 5%

B. Anterior corneal surface to the retina

Ultrasound machines have a large number of switches and dials, however what is the only change made during an average examination using the B-scan? A. Sound intensity B. LCD display C. Pulse controls D. Transducer ## Footnote Biometry 5%

A. Sound intensity

Contact A-scan biometry A. is more accurate than immersion A-scan biometry B. is used to measure corneal diameter C. can be performed with patient upright or reclined D. cannot be performed in an aphakic patient ## Footnote Biometry 5%

C. can be performed with patient upright or reclined

Immersion A-scan is generally more accurate than contact biometry due to A. less eye movement B. the use of a more powerful ultrasound C. better lubrication of the cornea D. less corneal compression ## Footnote Biometry 5%

D. less corneal compression

What will distort the sound beam and render the resulting echo pattern almost unrecognizable? A. Use of topical anesthetic drops B. Bubbles in the fluid bath C. A posterior subcapsular cataract D. The patient being reclined ## Footnote Biometry 5%

B. Bubbles in the fluid bath

How many dimesions does an A-scan produce in its display? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 ## Footnote Biometry 5%

B. 1

In a patient with dry eyes, the doctor may ask you to conduct a Schirmer test. The test should be performed with A. strips avoiding corneal contact B. use of a mydriatic C. use of a cycloplegic D. the patient sedated ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

A. strips avoiding corneal contact

The electroretinogram (ERG) tests the function of A. cones B. rods C. rods and cones D. RPE cells ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

C. rods and cones

How many layers comprise the tear layer? A. 3 layers B. 4 layers C. 5 layers D. 6 layers ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

A. 3 layers ## Footnote Lipid (Oil) layer comes from the meibomian glands and help prevent the aqueous layer from evaporating Aqueous (water) layer comes from the lacrimal gland and provides hydration and oxygen to the cornea/eye Mucus layer is made up of goblet cells in the conjunctivia to help the aqueous layer "stick"

The cones of the human eye are sensitive to which colors? A. Red, green, and blue B. Green, blue, and yellow C. Blue, yellow, and red D. Red, green, and black ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

A. Red, green, and blue

What is the correct abbreviation used for the unit "gram"? A. g B. gt C. gr D. gm ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

A. g

Which test is used to assess stereopsis? A. Pinhole B. Schirmer's C. Ishihara D. Wirt ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

D. Wirt

In glare testing, how many controlled degrees of light does the BAT test deliver when the eye is viewing a Snellen target? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

B. 3 | Low, medium, and high

What test is used to assess color vision? A. Allen cards B. Snellen chart C. Worth four-dot D. Ishihara plates ## Footnote Supplemental Testing 2%

D. Ishihara plates

Epidemic adenovirus keratoconjunctivitis is transmitted through A. finger to eye B. applanation tonometry C. fluorescein solution D. kissing ## Footnote Microbiology 3%

B. applanation tonometry

Cytology is the study of A. microbial organisms B. cell types C. gram and Giemsa stains D. adenoviruses ## Footnote Microbiology 3%

B. cell types

A sample of discharge or tissue cells obtained by scraping is a A. smudge B. fragment C. smear D. specimen ## Footnote Microbiology 3%

C. smear

What is the most prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Neutrophils ## Footnote Microbiology 3%

B. Eosinophils

What protozoan organism can cause corneal infections? A. Acanthamoeba B. Pseudomonas C. Fusarium D. Adenovirus ## Footnote Microbiology 3%

A. Acanthamoeba

What is the main purpose of aseptic technique? A. Non-sterile touches clean B. Steile touches sterile C. Sterile touchs clean D. Clean touches clean ## Footnote Microbiology 3%

B. Steile touches sterile

What is the primary purpose of epinephrine use with glaucoma? A. Increase aqueous outflow B. Increase aqueous production C. Decrease aqueous outflow D. Decrease aqueous production ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%

A. Increase aqueous outflow

A glaucoma patient has a syncopal episode and has a pulse of 36 beats per minute. Which medication is most likely the cause? A. Acetazolamide B. Mannitol C. Pilocarpine D. Timolol ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%

D. Timolol

The type of drug that stimulates the effect of acetylcholine is a A. parasympatholytic B. parasympathomimetic C. sympatholytic D. sympathomimetic ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%

B. parasympathomimetic

What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma? A. Pupil constriction B. Reduction of the pressue in the aqueous veins C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body D. Increased rate flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%

C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body

Sympathomimetic agents dilate the pupil by which of the following mechanisms? A. Blocking the action of the sphinctor muscle of the iris B. Stimulating the ciliary muscle C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris D. Stimulating the sphinctor muscle of the iris ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%

C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris

What sycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting affect? A. Homatropine B. Atropine Sulfate C. Tropicamide D. Cyclopentolate ## Footnote Pharmacology 3%

B. Atropine Sulfate

Tear duct irrigation may be indicated for which of the following conditions? A. Xanthelasma B. Epiphora C. Entropion D. Hypotony ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. Epiphora

A retrobulbar injection places medication into the A. bulbar conjunctiva B. conjunctiva C. eyeball D. muscle cone ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

D. muscle cone

Instruments that are slim-handled with bowl-shaped ends are A. curettes B. clamps C. needle holders D. scalpels ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

A. curets

An obstruction of the meibomian gland generally causes A. pterygiums B. chalazions C. ptosis D. entropion ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. chalazions

Common anesthetic agents such as proparacaine, tetracaine, and lidocaine are administered A. as inhalants B. as eye drops C. orally D. intravenously ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. as eye drops

This method used to permanently remove lashes from the lid margin is A. electrolysis B. iridotomy C. myectomy D. vitrectomy ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

A. electrolysis

Of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wave length? A. Argon B. Excimer C. Krypton D. Carbon dioxide ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. Excimer

What instrument is used to irrigate the lacrimal duct? A. Forceps B. Punctum dilator C. Curette D. Cannula ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

D. Cannula

What is the most common and practical form of instrument sterilization? A. Chemical B. Boiling C. Dry heat D. Moist heat ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

D. Moist heat | Autoclave

What is the first step in the surgical instrument sterilization process? A. Soak instruments in instrument milk B. Thoroughly rinse and clean instruments C. Soak instruments in alcohol D. Autoclave the instruments ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. Thoroughly rinse and clean instruments

Prior to ultrasonic cleaning, microsurgical instruments must be A. rinsed with acetone B. opened and separated C. lubricated with instrument milk D. wrapped with a chemical indicator strip ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. opened and separated

You are assisting the retina surgeon set-up for a pan-retinal photocoagulation (PRP). Through several ophthalmic lasers could be useful for this procedure, what type is most often used? A. Diode B. Argon C. Krypton D. Nd: YAG ## Footnote Surgical Assisting 6%

B. Argon

A physician writes the following prescription: Atropine 1% 1 gtt OS qhs x5d. What does it mean? A. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution by mouth before bed for five days. B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for five days C. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every night before bed for five days D. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every hour for five hours ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for five days

Involuntary rhythmic, to-and-fro oscillations of one or both eyes is referred to as A. ptosis B. proptosis C. emmetropia D. nystagmus ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

D. nystagmus

How do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors affect the production of aqueous humor? A. Increase production B. Decrease production C. No effect on production D. Maintain normal production ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. Decrease production

Miotics (parasympathomimetic agents) are used as a topical therapy for A. glaucoma B. macular degeneration C. conjunctivitis D. amblyopia ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. glaucoma

What is the order of the layers of the cornea? A. Corneal epithelium, Stroma, Bowman's membrance, Descemet's membrance, and corneal endothelium B. Corneal epithelium, Bowman's membrance, Stroma, Descemet's membrance, and corneal endothelium C. Corneal epithelium, Bowman's membrance, Descemet's membrance, corneal endothelium, and Stroma D. Corneal endothelium, Bowman's membrance, Stroma, Descemet's membrance, and corneal epithelium ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. Corneal epithelium, Bowman's membrance, Stroma, Descemet's membrance, and corneal endothelium

Which type of lens eliminates distortion found at the edge of the field in hand and stand readers? A. Aspheric lens B. Convex lens C. Keeler lens D. Hruby lens ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. Aspheric lens

The optic chiasm is the crossing point for the retinal nerve fibers and the point where the A. optic nerves form the optic tracts B. nasal retina becomes the temporal retina C. superior retina become the inferior retina D. optic radiations emerge ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. optic nerves form the optic tracts

Open-angle glaucoma is primarily caused by abnormalities in which structure? A. Trabecular meshwork B. Posterior chamber C. Ciliary processes D. Iris ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. Trabecular meshwork

What is the most important action for a patient who has sustained a splach injury to the eye? A. Go to the emergency room as quickly as possible B. Immediately fluch the eye with a substantial amount of liquid and call the poison control center C. Put a bland ophthalmic ointment in the eye to protect the corneal epithelium D. Make sure to keep the bottle that the liquid was in and call 911 ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. Immediately fluch the eye with a substantial amount of liquid and call the poison control center

All of the following describe types of retinal detachment except A. tractional B. choroidal C. central serous chorioretinopathy D. rhegmatogenous ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. choroidal

Management of the partially sighted varies with the patient's A. vocation B. age C. sex D. ethnicity ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. age

What is the name of the rule to determine the amount of magnification required for a low vision patient to read where the numerator of the patient's acuity is divided into the denominator? A. Herring's rule B. Keeler rule C. Kestenbaum rule D. Mueller rule ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

C. Kestenbaum rule

True ophthalmic emergencies need to be treated within minutes. Which of the following conditions is considered a true ophthalmic emergency? A. Chemical burn of the eye B. Hyphema C. Blow-out fracture D. Retinal detachment ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. Chemical burn of the eye

Which two types of ophthalmic symptoms require immediate attention? A. Pain; loss of vision B. Redness; tearing C. Blurry vision; floaters D. Discharge; itching ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. Pain; loss of vision

A patient calls stating they have not been able to see out of their right eye for the last half hour, but it does not hurt. When should they see an ophthalmologist? A. Immediately B. Today C. Tomorrow D. Sometime within the week ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. Immediately

Which of the following conditions is a true ophthalmic emergency? A. Ocular tumor B. Optic neuritis C. Old retinal detachment D. Central retinal artery occlusion ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

D. Central retinal artery occlusion

How is a properly applied eye dressing secured? A. Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of tape B. Horizontal parallel strips of tape C. Parallel strips of tape from the forehead to the cheekbone D. Strips of tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

C. Parallel strips of tape from the forehead to the cheekbone

What ultrasonic test provides data for calculating intraocular lens (IOL) power? A. Keratometry B. A-Scan C. Pachymetry D. B-Scan ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. A-Scan

Which of the following was designed to measure visual acuity bypassing optical media defects? A. ETDRS acuity charts B. Snellen chart C. HOTV D. Laser interferometry (LI) ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

D. Laser interferometry (LI)

What situation would indicate a need for calibration of an A-Scan instrument? A. Presence of a long axial length in a myopic patient B. Increasing the gain on a patient with a dense cataract C. Inability to obtain good end points on a series of patients on the same day D. Moving the first gate on the patient with a shallow anterior chamber ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

C. Inability to obtain good end points on a series of patients on the same day

A 47-year-old male presents in the office with eyelid swelling, double vision, and a bulging eye. CT reveals thickening of the extraocular muscles, eyelid retraction, and proptosis. Which of the following is the probable diagnosis? A. Orbital tumor B. Orbital cellulitis C. Graves' disease D. Lacrimal gland tumor ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

C. Graves' disease

Atropine is not used to dilate the pupil for routine examinations in adults because A. it induces allergic sensitization B. its effects do not last long enough C. its effects last too long D. it is weaker than homatropine ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

C. its effects last too long

A Hruby lens is used to examine the A. lens of the eye B. anterior vitreous C. fundus of the eye D. thickness of the cornea ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

C. fundus of the eye

The primary area of the brain which receives visual stimuli is located A. at the base of the frontal lobe B. at the posterior portion of the occipital lobe C. in the cerebellum D. in the superior portion of the temporal lobe ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

B. at the posterior portion of the occipital lobe

What is the term for the reduction in accommodation that occurs with age? A. Amblyopia B. Anisometropia C. Emmetropia D. Presbyopia ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

D. Presbyopia

Corneal abrasions are treated by firm patching for how many hours? A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 60 ## Footnote Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%

A. 24

The denominator in the visual acuity recording of a low vision patient is A. equal to the numerator B. the same for both eyes C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity D. smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity

A patient with which of the following color vision disorders has a severe difficulty seeing red light? A. Protanopia B. Protanomaly C. Deuteranopia D. Deuteranomaly ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

A. Protanopia

Schirmer's testing is used to measure A. tear production B. corneal thickness C. pupillary reflexes D. corneal curvature ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

A. tear production

The purpose of Brightness Acuity Testing (BAT), is to determine is visual acuity varies with different A. refractive errors B. pinhole sizes C. dark adaptations D. lighting conditions ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

D. lighting conditions

Pseudophakia refers to an eye with A. a natural human lens B. an intraocular lens implant C. no lens D. a history of LASIK ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

B. an intraocular lens implant

In what disease are keratic precipitates generally seen? A. Acute iritis B. Chronic open angle glaucoma C. Dendritic keratitis D. Marginal corneal ulcers ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

A. Acute iritis | KPs: cellular deposits on the endothelium that occur due to inflammation

Oral medications are considered to be what kind of drug? A. Local B. Subconjunctival C. Retrobulbar D. Systemic ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

D. Systemic

What is the name of the drugs that are used to dilate the pupils? A. Mydriatics B. Miotics C. Beta-blockers D. Anesthetics ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

A. Mydriatics

The physiologic blind spot correlates with what anatomy? A. fundus B. macula C. optic nerve D. posterior pole ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

C. optic nerve | The optic nerve has no photoreceptor cells so there isn't any vision

The use of topical steroids may induce which of the following conditions? A. Retinal detachment B. Cataracts C. Keratoconus D. Hyphema ## Footnote General Medical Knowledge 5%

B. Cataracts

The power of a contact lens may be measured on a standard lesmeter. A small error in the power may arise if the lens is held in place by fingers, particularly with what type of lens? A. High power B. Low power C. Therapeutic D. Cosmetic ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

A. High power

Vertex distance refers to the A. distance between the two optical centers of the spectacle lenses B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens C. difference between the distance PD and near PD D. the pantoscopic angle of the fram ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens

A +12 D lens is designated as a magnifier of which power? A. 2x B. 3x C. 4x D. 5x ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

B. 3x

When a bundle of light rays are brought together the ray are said to A. by symbolized by a minus sign B. converge to a point of focus C. create a virtual image diverge from a point source ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

B. converge to a point of focus

Which of the following is a benefit of a flat-top bifocal lens? A. Better vision in sunlight B. Lessen or eliminate image jump C. Improved distance vision D. Improved peripheral vision ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

B. Lessen or eliminate image jump

What is the formula for the "Index of Refraction"? A. Speed of light in air/Speed of light in substance B. Speed of light in substance/Speed of light in air C. Speed of light in air/Speed of light through a prism D. Speed of light through a prism/Speed of light in air ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

A. Speed of light in air/Speed of light in substance

What is the traditional term for the measurement of light intensity? A. Wavelengths B. Frequency C. Foot-candles D. Velocity ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

C. Foot-candles | Now we call these lumens ## Footnote 1 foot candle = the amount of light it takes to saturate a 1 square foot space

What is the term for a path of a single corpuscle of light traveling through a tiny aperture and through two successive screens? A. Ray of light B. Pencil of light C. Beam of light D. Shaft of light ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

A. Ray of light | A beam of light is a group of light rays

Prisms used in ophthalmology are measured in A. diopters B. inches C. feet D. yards ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

A. diopters

Light travels in which way? A. Waves B. Straight lines C. Circles D. Beams ## Footnote Optics and Spectacles 5%

A. Waves

Corneal astigmatism is best correct by A. extended wear spherical soft contact lenses B. hydrogel spherical soft contact lenses C. spherical RGP lens D. spherical spin cast soft contact lenses ## Footnote Contact Lenses 5%

C. spherical RGP lens

The DK value of contact lens material is the A. measurement of the light transmittance of the material B. measurement of the refractive index of the material C. oxygen transmissibility of the material D. diffusion, solubility, and movement of qxygen in the lens material ## Footnote Contact Lenses 5%

D. diffusion, solubility, and movement of qxygen in the lens material

A contact lens fit "steeper than K" is defined as a A. minus lens B. corneal radius of 7.6 mm and the contact lens radius could be 7.8 mm C. corneal measurement of 44.00 diopters and the contact lens curvature would be 44.50 diopters. D. base curve of the contact lens which is the same radius of the curvature of the anterior cornea ## Footnote Contact Lenses 5%

C. corneal measurement of 44.00 diopters and the contact lens curvature would be 44.50 diopters.

All of the following are manifestations of hypoxia from a contact lens except A. giant papillary conjunctivitis B. intraepithelial microcysts C. stromal edema D. warping of the cornea (irregular astigmatism) ## Footnote Contact Lenses 5%

A. giant papillary conjunctivitis

Contact lens warpage should be checked with a A. lensmeter B. shadowgraph C. slit lamp D. rasiuscope ## Footnote Contact Lenses 5%

D. rasiuscope

How many dimensions are represented in a B-scan image? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

B. 2

When performing A-scan biometry, correct alignment of the probe is best determined by A. tissue spikes that gradually increase in height B. an axial length measurement between 22 mm and 25 mm C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp D. an axial length measurement that is almost equal between the two eyes ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp

The source used to obtain the image in Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is A. ultrasonic energy B. visible white light C. visible red-green light D. high resolution imaging ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

D. high resolution imaging

When a sound wave travels from one medium to another an echo is produced by A. frequency B. acoustic impedance C. optical density D. gain setting ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

B. acoustic impedance

Why is immersion A-scan considered more accurate than contact A-scan? A. Faster to perform B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated C. Abrading the cornea is eliminated D. Uses light instead of sound ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated

The most common error made in contact biometry is A. improper gate placement B. erroneous K readings C. corneal compression D. wrong eye type ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

C. corneal compression

B-scan biometry is necessary when A. the IOL master cannot measure the eye B. there is a cataracy C. there is any media opacity D. there is a Staphyloma in the eye ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

C. there is any media opacity

What is the term for a noncontact method that allows for detailed cross-sectional imaging of the anterior eye and retina? A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) C. Computed Tomography (CT) D. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)

Instead of sound, the OCT is an optical imaging technique that uses A. lasers B. air C. water D. light ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

D. light

What imaging technique is used to identify liquefaction of the vitreous that results in vitreous detachment? A. A-Scan B. B-Scan C. Pentacam D. OCT ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

D. OCT

OCT testing can accurately measure the thickness of the A. iris B. cornea C. retina D. lens capsule ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

B. cornea

Intracorneal rings are used primarily in the treatment of which condition? A. Keratoconus B. Retinal detachment C. Glaucoma D. Age-related macular degeneration ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A. Keratoconus

Computerized topography analysis is the measurement of the curvature of the A. corneal surface B. anterior chamber C. posterior chamber D. vitreous body ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

A. corneal surface

OCT imaging is not useful in determining which of the following conditions? A. Glaucoma B. Macular edema C. Macular holes D. Dextroversion ## Footnote Ophthalmic Imaging 7%

D. Dextroversion

What is the earliest phase of retinal circulation in fluorescein angiography? A. Arterial phase B. Capillary phase C. Choroidal flush D. Venous phase ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

C. Choroidal flush

Specular microscopy images are used to A. identify bacteria B. identify retinal abnormalities C. measure corneal endothelial cell density D. measure corneal thickness ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

C. measure corneal endothelial cell density

Retroillumination detects A. opacities or defects in the iris B. eyelids or eyelash anomalies C. the palpebral conjunctiva or sclera D. adverse corneal effects from contact lenses ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

A. opacities or defects in the iris

Gonioscopy is a technique for imaging the A. junction of the iris and cornea B. axons of the optic nerve head C. chiasmal and post chiasmal field defects D. nerve fiber pathways aboce the raphe ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

A. junction of the iris and cornea

Which dystrophy is noted by wart like deposits on Descemet's membrane, thickening of Descemet's membrane, and defects of size and shape of the endothelial cells? A. Fuch's dystrophy B. Narrow angle glaucoma C. Lattice corneal dystrophy D. Retinal detachment ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

A. Fuch's dystrophy

What type of stromal corneal dystrophy is manifested by a dense gray central opacity that starts in Bowman's layer? A. Macular B. Granular C. Lattice D. Reis-Buckler ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

A. Macular

Taken with a green filter, in a red-free photograph A. veins and arteries appear black; optic nerve appears white B. veins and arteries appear white; optic nerve appears black C. fluorescein dye is present in the arteries and choroid only D. arteries and capillaries fluoresce ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

A. veins and arteries appear black; optic nerve appears white

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when fluorescein dye is indicated in the arteries and choroid only? A. Arterial B. Normal C. Early venous D. Late venous ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

A. Arterial

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when arteries and capillaries fluoresce? A. Arterial B. Normal C. Early venous D. Late venous ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

C. Early venous

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when there is a full filling of larger veins? A. Arterial B. Normal C. Early venous D. Late venous ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

D. Late venous

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when leakage can be seen and diminution of fluorescence in all retinal blood vessels is indicated? A. Arterial B. Normal C. Early venous D. Late ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

D. Late

What is the term for mid-phase fluorescein angiography? A. Arterial phase B. Fluorescein phase C. Choroidal flush D. Venous phase ## Footnote Photography and Videography 6%

D. Venous phase | When all the arteries and veins are full

The forehead and cheek rests on the phoropter are cleanded A. after each patient with liquid detergent B. periodically with a 1:10 dilution of liquid bleach C. with soap and water, soaked in alcohol, or boiled in water D. after each patient by a sterilization process only ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

C. with soap and water, soaked in alcohol, or boiled in water

If the lenses are dirty on a refractor/phoropter, they should be cleaned with a A. lint-free swab lightly moistened with either alcohol or ether B. lint-free swab lightly moistened with bleach C. lint-free swab lightly moistened with distilled water D. lint-free swab lightly moistened with dish wash detergent ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A. lint-free swab lightly moistened with either alcohol or ether

How often should the calibration on the applanation tonometer be checked? A. Every month B. Every 2 months C. Every 3 months D. Every 4 months ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

B. Every 2 months

Which of the following statements about the Snellen visual acuity chart is true? A. A special slide is available for testing color vision B. It can be used only with a patient-to-screen distance of twenty feet ( six meters) C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the optotypes on the screen D. With proper adjustment it can be used to test near vision ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the optotypes on the screen

If the slit lamp will no longer slide easily on the tabletop, which of the following remedies should be tried first? A. Clean the friction pad (plate) B. Grease the joystick C. Replace the ball bearings D. Replace the locking screw ## Footnote Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%

A. Clean the friction pad (plate)

What fundamental issue enhances patient trust and partnership while aiding patients to understand their disease? A. Informed consent B. Cultural beliefs C. Honest patient communication D. Proper communication ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 2%

C. Honest patient communication

The term for the education of the patient, asking for their participation in the decision making process is A. client confidentiality B. informed consent C. patient privacy D. paient responsibility ## Footnote Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 2%

B. informed consent

COT 2 Flashcards

(200 cards)