COT 2 Flashcards
What is not important when documenting the history of an ocular injury?
A. How the injury occurred
B. Presence of others when the injury occurred
C. The time the injury occurred
D. Treatment received since the injury occurred
History and Documentation 3%
B. Presence of others when the injury occurred
Which one of the following ocular conditions will least likely present in a patient’s family history?
A. Keratoconus
B. Nystagmus
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
History and Documentation 3%
C. Conjunctivitis
When evaluating a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following systemic illnesses is least important?
A. Cardiac problems
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Urinary incontinence
History and Documentation 3%
D. Urinary incontinence
This does not affect the actual surgery unless the pt is on tamsulosin
Which symptoms might suggest angle-closure glaucoma?
A. Flashes and floaters
B. Slowly progressive visual loss
C. Bleeding into the anterior chamber
D. Rainbow colored halos around lights
History and Documentation 3%
D. Rainbow colored halos around lights
What is the correct interpretation of 1 gtt TID OU?
A. One drop to the left eye three times a day
B. One drops to both eyes three times a day
C. One injection to both arms three times a day
D. One drop to both eyes three times a day as needed
History and Documentation 3%
B. One drops to both eyes three times a day
A history or corticosteroid use is of least importance when ascertaining which condition?
A. Cataracts
B. Glaucoma
C. Macular Degeneration
D. Uveitis
History and Documentation 3%
C. Macular Degeneration
Steroid use can affect cataract growth, increase IOP, & rebound uveitis
A visual acuity of 20/200 obtained at a distance of 4 feet should be recorded as
A. J10
B. 6/60
C. 4/200
D. < 20/200
Visual Assessment 7%
C. 4/200
The numerator represents the distance the patient is from the chart.
If a patient’s visual acuity measures 20/70 with correction and pinholes to 20/25, which of the following is most likely?
A. The patient needs distance correction
B. The patient is malingering
C. The patient should be dilated and examined for retinopathy
D. The patient has cataracts
Visual Assessment 7%
A. The patient needs distance correction
The pinhole gives you a potential vision due to a refractive error
The lines of Snellen optotypes are what size in comparison to the entire optotype?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/6
Visual Assessment 7%
C. 1/5
Regardless of the optotype, this is true, but it’s always best to think of the E with these questions.
Reduced visual acuity without an detectable organice cause is referred to as
A. amblyopia
B. strabismus
C. anisometropia
D. suppression
Visual Assessment 7%
A. amblyopia
An amblyopic has a healthy eye and brain, but decreased vision
A 55-year-old patient has worn glasses since childhood. Without glasses, a patient’s uncorrected vision improves when looking tough an occluder with perforations. This phenomenon is known as the
A. prism effect
B. scatter effect
C. pinhole effect
D. contrast effect
Visual Assessment 7%
C. pinhole effect
What is the metric equivalent of 20/40 visual acuity
A. 6/10
B. 6/12
C. 6/15
D. 6/20
Visual Assessment 7%
B. 6/12
20/20=6/6; 20/30=6/9; 20/40=6/12
Dynamic visual acuity refers to
A. acuity measured in a controlled medical office setting
B. kinetic or moving vision
C. contrast sensitivity acuity
D. pinhole acuity
Visual Assessment 7%
B. kinetic or moving vision
Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter is useful for patients with
A. glaucoma
B. cataracts
C. optic neuritis
D. age-related macular degeneration
Visual Assessment 7%
B. cataracts
If you have a questions like this that doesn’t say “most”, add it to the question to figure out your answer. They are always looking for the best answer to the question even when more than one answer applies.
Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye?
A. 10-12
B. 14-16
C. 18-20
D. 22-24
Visual Assessment 7%
B. 14-16
If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with the use of a(n)
A. placido disc
B. pinhole disc
C. occluder over non-dominant eye
D. occluder over dominant eye
Visual Assessment 7%
B. pinhole disc
What is the recommended distance for assessing visual acuity?
A. 20 cm
B. 20 mm
C. 20’
D. 20”
Visual Assessment 7%
C. 20’
‘ means feet, while “ means inches
If a person can clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 60 feet by a person with no refractive error, the visual acuity is said to be
A. 20/20
B. 20/40
C. 20/60
D. 60/20
Visual Assessment 7%
C. 20/60
If a patient is unable to distinguish the largest letter on a Snellen chart, the assistant should
A. determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance
B. immediately assess for hand motion
C. darken the room and check for light perception
D. record “unable to assess” in the patient’s chart
Visual Assessment 7%
A. determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance
In visual assessment, an infant would be expected to reach for toys by the age of
A. 2-4 months
B. 4-6 months
C. 6-8 months
D. 8-10 months
Visual Assessment 7%
B. 4-6 months
The visual field defect in which there is a complete type of nerve bundle defect emanating from the blind spot, arching over central fixation, and ending on the horizontal line is a(n)
A. absolute scotoma
B. Bjerrum scotoma
C. contraction
D. relative scotoma
Visual Field Testing 3%
B. Bjerrum scotoma
They always emanate from the blind spot
Homonymous congrous visual field defects with macular sparing are located in what part of the visual pathway?
A. Occipital cortex
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic nerve
D. Optic radiation
Visual Field Testing 3%
A. Occipital cortex
The fact that it is macular sparing doesn’t matter.
The fact that it is homonymous (same sided) means that it must be BEHIND the optic chiasm. The optic nerve is in front of the optic chiasm. If the problem was in the optic radiations, the defect would not be congrous, meaning equal in size and shape.
With a 3 mm white target on the perimeter of a 330-degree radius, the average peripheral limit is about
A. 75° out, 55° down, 40° in, and 40° up
B. 85° out, 65° down, 50° in, and 50° up
C. 95° out, 75° down, 60° in, and 60° up
D. 105° out, 85° down, 70° in, and 40° up
Visual Field Testing 3%
C. 95° out, 75° down, 60° in, and 60° up
Our total width of view is ~155°
what type of patient generally requires a threshold 24-degree central field test?
A. Cataract
B. Diplopia
C. Glaucoma
D. Low vision
Visual Field Testing 3%
C. Glaucoma
The most widely used method of visual field screening, requiring no special equipment, is
A. Goldmann perimtry
B. the tangent screen
C. Amsler grid
D. confrontation testing
Visual Field Testing 3%
D. confrontation testing
Scotomas located immediately nasal or temporal to fixation are known as
A. central
B. paracentral
C. arcuate
D. nasal step
Visual Field Testing 3%
B. paracentral
The purpose of checking pupils is to compare the
A. consensual response in the stimulated eye and the direct response in the other eye
B. direct response in the stimulated eye and the consensual response in the other eye
C. direct response and the near response in the same eye
D. direct response in one eye
Pupil Assessment 4%
B. direct response in the stimulated eye and the consensual response in the other eye
In ordinary room light, the diameter of the normal adult pupil is
A. 3-5 mm
B. 6-9 mm
C. 10-13 mm
D. 14-17 mm
Pupil Assessment 4%
A. 3-5 mm
A difference in pupil size is referred to as
A. Adie’s Syndrome
B. Marcus Gunn pupil
C. anisorcoria
D. hippus
Pupil Assessment 4%
C. anisorcoria
The presence of an iris sphinctor muscle defect may be caused by
A. damage to the iris sphinctor muscle
B. symmetric damage to the afferent visual system
C. asymmetric cataracts
D. optic nerve disease
Pupil Assessment 4%
D. optic nerve disease
An RAPD tells us that the nerves aren’t receiving light equally.
Consensual light reflex in the right eye results in
A. right pupil constriction
B. right pupil dilation
C. left pupil constriction
D. left pupil dilation
Pupil Assessment 4%
A. right pupil constriction
Consensual means that it is reacting to the light shining into OS
What is the term for the state of pupillary constriction?
A. Mydriasis
B. Miosis
C. Cycloplegia
D. Aniscoria
Pupil Assessment 4%
B. Miosis
Which test compares the direct and consensual responses to the pupil?
A. Swinging flashlight
B. Worth four-dot
C. Pinhole disc
D. Cover-Uncover
Pupil Assessment 4%
A. Swinging flashlight
What condition is present if the amount of light information transmitted to the brain from one eye differs from that of the other eye?
A. Afferent pupillary defect
B. Adie’s pupil
C. Tonic pupil
D. Third nerve palsy
Pupil Assessment 4%
A. Afferent pupillary defect
What is the most significant advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer?
A. Applanation is a more modern technique
B. Applanation causes ledd patient discomfort
C. Applanation tonometry allows for a small amount of aqueous humor to be displaced from the AC
D. Applanation instruments are more cosst effective
Tonometry 4%
C. Applanation tonometry allows for a small amount of aqueous humor to be displaced from the AC
Which procedure is most likely to give a falsely elevated intraocular pressure reading?
A. Non-contact tonometry (NCT)
B. Applanation tonometry
C. Digital pneumotonography
D. Indentation tonometry
Tonometry 4%
A. Non-contact tonometry (NCT)
NCT is the ‘air puff’. Patients tend to hold their breath more with NCT.
Which of these ocular conditions is least likely to render Goldmann tonometry inaccurate?
A. Keratoconus
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Pterygia
D. Corneal scars
Tonometry 4%
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
LEAST likely!
Intraocular pressure is highest during the
A. morning
B. afternoon
C. early evening
D. late evening
Tonometry 4%
A. morning
What type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp?
A. Applanation
B. Indentation
C. Perkins
D. Air puff
Tonometry 4%
A. Applanation
Intraocular pressure is measured with a(n)
A. ophthalmometer
B. keratometer
C. lensometer
D. tonometer
Tonometry 4%
D. tonometer
What is the term for the tonometry technique that displaces a minimal amount of fluid?
A. Indentation
B. Applanation
C. Elevation
D. Fixation
Tonometry 4%
B. Applanation
What color is the light filter used in applanation tonometry?
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green
Tonometry 4%
A. Blue
The test may specify that it is Cobalt Blue
The difference between the corneal curvature measurements with a keratometer reveals the
A. radius of corneal curvature
B. amount of corneal astigmatism
C. cylinder axis
D. steepest K
Keratometry 3%
B. amount of corneal astigmatism
If the K value of a patient being fir for RGP contact lenses is recorded as 43.50/44.50, the BC of CL fit “on K” would be which of the following?
A. 43.50
B. 44.00
C. 44.50
D. 45.00
Keratometry 3%
A. 43.50
What is an average corneal curvature measurement?
A. 42.00 D
B. 43.00 D
C. 44.00 D
D. 45.00 D
Keratometry 3%
C. 44.00 D
In the case of a one-year old child with an infantile left esotropia and deep left amblyopia, which notion would denote the visual acuity?
A. CSM
B. CSUM
C. CUSM
D. UCSUM
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
D. UCSUM
The difference between the farthest and nearest distance at which a patient is able to see clearly is known as
A. covergence amplitude
B. Panum’s fusional space
C. range of accommodation
D. the add
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
C. range of accommodation
In order to test the function of the superior oblique (SO) muscle, the eye is directed into which field of gaze?
A. Down and lateral
B. Down and medial
C. Straight ahead
D. Up and lateral
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
B. Down and medial
A patient who is unable to abduct the left eye may have a weakness of the
A. right medial rectus (RMR) muscle
B. left lateral rectus (LLR) muscle
C. left medial rectus (LMR) muscle
D. right lateral rectus (RLR) muscle
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
B. left lateral rectus (LLR) muscle
ABduct=turnout. Lateral rectus controls ABduction
During alternate cover testing, the right eye moves downward as the cover is switched to the left eye. The deviation is measued using
A. base down prism over the left eye
B. base down prism over the right eye
C. base up prism over the left eye
D. base up prism over the right eye
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
B. base down prism over the right eye
Point the apex in the direction of the deviation. Hyper= BD & apex up
Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria?
A. Worth four-dot
B. Ishihara plate
C. Maddox rod
D. Marcus Gunn
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
C. Maddox rod
Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex?
A. Hess
B. Worth four-dot
C. Hirschberg
D. Krimsky
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
D. Krimsky
Hirschberg is the corneal reflex test, Krimsky measures it with prisms
Which item is not a classification of fixation?
A. Central
B. Steady
C. Maintained
D. Primary
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
D. Primary
How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
C. 3
III, IV, & VI innervate the muscles. SO4 LR6, everything else is three!
Which is not a designation of a version?
A. Levoversion
B. Sursumversion
C. Dextraversion
D. Intraversion
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
D. Intraversion
Levo = Left
Dextra = Right
Sursum = Upwards
In ocular motility testing, what is happening if the child only sees two red lights (red lens over right eye)?
A. The child is suppressing the right eye
B. The child is suppressing the left eye
C. The child is alternating fixation
D. The child is seeing double
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
B. The child is suppressing the left eye
Red over right, green over left. All red means no use of left eye.
The best measurement for a deviation with good fixation is the
A. cover-uncover test
B. Hirschberg test
C. Krimsky test
D. prism alternate cover test
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
D. prism alternate cover test
Eye misalignment caused by extraocular muscle imbalance, which is present with both eyes uncovered, is a(n)
A. tropia
B. asthenopia
C. phoria
D. myopia
Ocular Motility Testing 6%
A. tropia
2 misalignments, tropia (always present), and phoria (forced to show)
A lens formula of +2.00-3.00x90 What is the power at 90 degrees and 180 degrees?
A. +2.00 and -1.00
B. +2.00 and -3.00
C. +5.00 and +3.00
D. -1.00 and +2.00
Lensometry 3%
A. +2.00 and -1.00
optical cross
A patient with a far point of 20 cm in front of the eye requires what spectacle lens power to correct their refractive error to emmetropia?
A. -5.00 D
B. -2.00 D
C. +2.00 D
D. +5.00 D
Lensometry 3%
A. -5.00 D
D=1/F
What type of astigmatism has one focal line on the retina and the other behind the retina?
A. Mixed astigmatism
B. Simple hyperopic astigmatism
C. Compound hyperopic astigmatism
D. Simple myopic astigmatism
Lensometry 3%
B. Simple hyperopic astigmatism
What is the proper name for an astigmatic eye with the anterior line in front of the retina and the posterior focal line behind the retina?
A. Compound hyperopic astigmatism
B. Compound myopic astigmatism
C. Irregular astigmatism
D. Mixed astigmatism
Lensometry 3%
D. Mixed astigmatism
Lensometry of a patient’s glasses reveal the single line coming into focus first at -1.50, then the triple lines at zero, with axis at 180 degrees, what is the Rx?
A. -1.50 -1.50 x180
B. plano -1.50 x090
C. plano -1.50 x180
D. plano +1.50 x090
Lensometry 3%
B. plano -1.50 x090
you must transpose this Rx to find the answer
The Rx given is -1.50 + 1.50 x180
Transposition is plano -1.50 x090
1. Algebracially (keep the signs with the number) combine the sphere and cylinder power to get your new sphere number
2. Change the cylinder sign
3. Change the axis by 90 degrees
In lensometry, first the single lines come into focus at plano and then the triple lines come into focus at -2.00 with the axis at 90 degrees. What is the Rx?
A. -2.00 +2.00 x180
B. -2.00 +2.00 x090
C. plano -2.00 x180
D. +2.00 -2.00 x090
Lensometry 3%
A. -2.00 +2.00 x180
you must transpose this Rx to find the answer
Rx given is plano -2.00 x090
Transposition is -2.00 +2.00 x180
1. Algebracially (keep the signs with the number) combine the sphere and cylinder power to get your new sphere number
2. Change the cylinder sign
3. Change the axis by 90 degrees
The results of visual acuity measurements are expressed as a fraction in which the denominator is
A. always twenty feet (6 meters)
B. the distance at which a normal eye can see the chart letters
C. The distance at which the patient can see the chart letters
D. the distance of the patient from the chart letters
Lensometry 3%
B. the distance at which a normal eye can see the chart letters
Which of the following statements about vision testing is true?
A. In children, the testing should be done fairly rapidly to rule out amblyopia
B. In the normal patient, visual acuity is generally the same with both eyes with either eye tested separately
C. Patients with amblyopia will do better if shown individual letter than if shown a whole line
D. There is no difference in the degree of difficulty between different Snellen letters of the same size
Lensometry 3%
C. Patients with amblyopia will do better if shown individual letter than if shown a whole line
The Geneva lens clock measure(s)
A. can be used in lieu of a rediuscope for measuring the BC of a RGP lens
B. determines the center thickness of a spectacle lens
C. is used to verify the axis of astigmatism of a front surface toric soft contact lens
D. the surface curvature of a spectacle lens
Lensometry 3%
D. the surface curvature of a spectacle lens
When reading the power of a lens using the plus cylinder technique, what reading is noted when the single lines and triple lines come into focus simultaneously?
A. Prism
B. Bifocal
C. Sphere
D. Cylinder
Lensometry 3%
C. Sphere
A “scissor reflex” may occur during retinoscopy and is associated with
A. cataracts
B. Fuch’s dystrophy
C. keratoconus
D. narrow angle glaucoma
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
C. keratoconus
Cycloplegic refraction is performed to
A. prevent the accommodative effort required to compensate for hyperopia
B. reveal the acceptability of a particular correction
C. only detect minimal refractive error
D. reveal full correction of hyperopic error
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
A. prevent the accommodative effort required to compensate for hyperopia
When performing refraction, the Jackson cross cylinder is used to
A. determine the amount of mixed astigmatism
B. refine the cylinder power and axis
C. refine the sperical power
D. determine the endpoint of the refraction
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
B. refine the cylinder power and axis
Streak retinoscopy is a
A. retinal exam for diabetic retinopathy
B. subjective method for measuring refractive error
C. test performed by a laser
D. objective method for measuring refractive error
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
D. objective method for measuring refractive error
The astigmatic clock has black lines intersecting at a common point with the end separated by
A. 20 degree of 5 degree intervals
B. 30 degree or 10 degree intervals
C. 40 degree or 15 degree intervals
D. 50 degree or 20 degree intervals
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
B. 30 degree or 10 degree intervals
A parallel beam of light passes through a sphero-cylindrical lens +2.00 +1.00 x090. Where is the circle of least confusion?
A. 20 cm behind the lens
B. 30 cm behind the lens
C. 40 cm behind the lens
D. 20 cm in front of the lens
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
C. 40 cm behind the lens
The focal length is the same as the spherical equivalent’s focal length
The spherical equivalent is +2.50
F is Focal length in meters
D is diopter power of the lens
F=1/D
F=1/2.5
F=0.40 of a meter which is 40 cm
The focal length is behind the lens because it is a plus lens. If it were a minus lens, the length is the same, 40 cm, but is would be in front of the lens.
The distance from the anterior surface of the eye to the back of the spectacle lens is the
A. base curve
B. pupillary distance
C. lens distance
D. vertex distance
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
D. vertex distance
The condition in which the eye does not refract light equally in all directions is
A. emmetropia
B. astigmatism
C. amblyopia
D. esotropia
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
B. astigmatism
Refractometry without requiring patient response is considered to be
A. preliminary
B. refining
C. objective
D. subjective
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
C. objective
subjective = subject decides
objective = practitioner decides
Starting with plano (or no lens) in retinoscopy and using an appropriate working lens at 66 cm, a “with” reflex is most commonly observed in which refractive error?
A. Exophoria
B. Astigmatism
C. Myopia
D. Hyperopia
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
D. Hyperopia
If they were myopia, you would most likely observe against motion
In A-scan biometry, which ocular measurement provides the axial length of the globe?
A. Anterior corneal surface to anterior vitreous face
B. Anterior corneal surface to the retina
C. Pre-corneal tear film to posterior pole
D. Pre-corneal tear film to posterior vitreous face
Biometry 5%
B. Anterior corneal surface to the retina
Ultrasound machines have a large number of switches and dials, however what is the only change made during an average examination using the B-scan?
A. Sound intensity
B. LCD display
C. Pulse controls
D. Transducer
Biometry 5%
A. Sound intensity
Contact A-scan biometry
A. is more accurate than immersion A-scan biometry
B. is used to measure corneal diameter
C. can be performed with patient upright or reclined
D. cannot be performed in an aphakic patient
Biometry 5%
C. can be performed with patient upright or reclined
Immersion A-scan is generally more accurate than contact biometry due to
A. less eye movement
B. the use of a more powerful ultrasound
C. better lubrication of the cornea
D. less corneal compression
Biometry 5%
D. less corneal compression
What will distort the sound beam and render the resulting echo pattern almost unrecognizable?
A. Use of topical anesthetic drops
B. Bubbles in the fluid bath
C. A posterior subcapsular cataract
D. The patient being reclined
Biometry 5%
B. Bubbles in the fluid bath
How many dimesions does an A-scan produce in its display?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Biometry 5%
B. 1
In a patient with dry eyes, the doctor may ask you to conduct a Schirmer test. The test should be performed with
A. strips avoiding corneal contact
B. use of a mydriatic
C. use of a cycloplegic
D. the patient sedated
Supplemental Testing 2%
A. strips avoiding corneal contact
The electroretinogram (ERG) tests the function of
A. cones
B. rods
C. rods and cones
D. RPE cells
Supplemental Testing 2%
C. rods and cones
How many layers comprise the tear layer?
A. 3 layers
B. 4 layers
C. 5 layers
D. 6 layers
Supplemental Testing 2%
A. 3 layers
Lipid (Oil) layer comes from the meibomian glands and help prevent the aqueous layer from evaporating
Aqueous (water) layer comes from the lacrimal gland and provides hydration and oxygen to the cornea/eye
Mucus layer is made up of goblet cells in the conjunctivia to help the aqueous layer “stick”
The cones of the human eye are sensitive to which colors?
A. Red, green, and blue
B. Green, blue, and yellow
C. Blue, yellow, and red
D. Red, green, and black
Supplemental Testing 2%
A. Red, green, and blue
What is the correct abbreviation used for the unit “gram”?
A. g
B. gt
C. gr
D. gm
Supplemental Testing 2%
A. g
Which test is used to assess stereopsis?
A. Pinhole
B. Schirmer’s
C. Ishihara
D. Wirt
Supplemental Testing 2%
D. Wirt
In glare testing, how many controlled degrees of light does the BAT test deliver when the eye is viewing a Snellen target?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Supplemental Testing 2%
B. 3
Low, medium, and high
What test is used to assess color vision?
A. Allen cards
B. Snellen chart
C. Worth four-dot
D. Ishihara plates
Supplemental Testing 2%
D. Ishihara plates
Epidemic adenovirus keratoconjunctivitis is transmitted through
A. finger to eye
B. applanation tonometry
C. fluorescein solution
D. kissing
Microbiology 3%
B. applanation tonometry
Cytology is the study of
A. microbial organisms
B. cell types
C. gram and Giemsa stains
D. adenoviruses
Microbiology 3%
B. cell types
A sample of discharge or tissue cells obtained by scraping is a
A. smudge
B. fragment
C. smear
D. specimen
Microbiology 3%
C. smear
What is the most prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
Microbiology 3%
B. Eosinophils
What protozoan organism can cause corneal infections?
A. Acanthamoeba
B. Pseudomonas
C. Fusarium
D. Adenovirus
Microbiology 3%
A. Acanthamoeba
What is the main purpose of aseptic technique?
A. Non-sterile touches clean
B. Steile touches sterile
C. Sterile touchs clean
D. Clean touches clean
Microbiology 3%
B. Steile touches sterile
What is the primary purpose of epinephrine use with glaucoma?
A. Increase aqueous outflow
B. Increase aqueous production
C. Decrease aqueous outflow
D. Decrease aqueous production
Pharmacology 3%
A. Increase aqueous outflow
A glaucoma patient has a syncopal episode and has a pulse of 36 beats per minute. Which medication is most likely the cause?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Mannitol
C. Pilocarpine
D. Timolol
Pharmacology 3%
D. Timolol
The type of drug that stimulates the effect of acetylcholine is a
A. parasympatholytic
B. parasympathomimetic
C. sympatholytic
D. sympathomimetic
Pharmacology 3%
B. parasympathomimetic
What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?
A. Pupil constriction
B. Reduction of the pressue in the aqueous veins
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
D. Increased rate flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork
Pharmacology 3%
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
Sympathomimetic agents dilate the pupil by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Blocking the action of the sphinctor muscle of the iris
B. Stimulating the ciliary muscle
C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris
D. Stimulating the sphinctor muscle of the iris
Pharmacology 3%
C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris
What sycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting affect?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Tropicamide
D. Cyclopentolate
Pharmacology 3%
B. Atropine Sulfate
Tear duct irrigation may be indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. Xanthelasma
B. Epiphora
C. Entropion
D. Hypotony
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. Epiphora
A retrobulbar injection places medication into the
A. bulbar conjunctiva
B. conjunctiva
C. eyeball
D. muscle cone
Surgical Assisting 6%
D. muscle cone
Instruments that are slim-handled with bowl-shaped ends are
A. curettes
B. clamps
C. needle holders
D. scalpels
Surgical Assisting 6%
A. curets
An obstruction of the meibomian gland generally causes
A. pterygiums
B. chalazions
C. ptosis
D. entropion
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. chalazions
Common anesthetic agents such as proparacaine, tetracaine, and lidocaine are administered
A. as inhalants
B. as eye drops
C. orally
D. intravenously
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. as eye drops
This method used to permanently remove lashes from the lid margin is
A. electrolysis
B. iridotomy
C. myectomy
D. vitrectomy
Surgical Assisting 6%
A. electrolysis
Of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wave length?
A. Argon
B. Excimer
C. Krypton
D. Carbon dioxide
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. Excimer
What instrument is used to irrigate the lacrimal duct?
A. Forceps
B. Punctum dilator
C. Curette
D. Cannula
Surgical Assisting 6%
D. Cannula
What is the most common and practical form of instrument sterilization?
A. Chemical
B. Boiling
C. Dry heat
D. Moist heat
Surgical Assisting 6%
D. Moist heat
Autoclave
What is the first step in the surgical instrument sterilization process?
A. Soak instruments in instrument milk
B. Thoroughly rinse and clean instruments
C. Soak instruments in alcohol
D. Autoclave the instruments
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. Thoroughly rinse and clean instruments
Prior to ultrasonic cleaning, microsurgical instruments must be
A. rinsed with acetone
B. opened and separated
C. lubricated with instrument milk
D. wrapped with a chemical indicator strip
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. opened and separated
You are assisting the retina surgeon set-up for a pan-retinal photocoagulation (PRP). Through several ophthalmic lasers could be useful for this procedure, what type is most often used?
A. Diode
B. Argon
C. Krypton
D. Nd: YAG
Surgical Assisting 6%
B. Argon
A physician writes the following prescription: Atropine 1% 1 gtt OS qhs x5d. What does it mean?
A. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution by mouth before bed for five days.
B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for five days
C. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every night before bed for five days
D. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every hour for five hours
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for five days
Involuntary rhythmic, to-and-fro oscillations of one or both eyes is referred to as
A. ptosis
B. proptosis
C. emmetropia
D. nystagmus
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
D. nystagmus
How do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors affect the production of aqueous humor?
A. Increase production
B. Decrease production
C. No effect on production
D. Maintain normal production
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. Decrease production
Miotics (parasympathomimetic agents) are used as a topical therapy for
A. glaucoma
B. macular degeneration
C. conjunctivitis
D. amblyopia
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. glaucoma
What is the order of the layers of the cornea?
A. Corneal epithelium, Stroma, Bowman’s membrance, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal endothelium
B. Corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrance, Stroma, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal endothelium
C. Corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrance, Descemet’s membrance, corneal endothelium, and Stroma
D. Corneal endothelium, Bowman’s membrance, Stroma, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal epithelium
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. Corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrance, Stroma, Descemet’s membrance, and corneal endothelium
Which type of lens eliminates distortion found at the edge of the field in hand and stand readers?
A. Aspheric lens
B. Convex lens
C. Keeler lens
D. Hruby lens
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. Aspheric lens
The optic chiasm is the crossing point for the retinal nerve fibers and the point where the
A. optic nerves form the optic tracts
B. nasal retina becomes the temporal retina
C. superior retina become the inferior retina
D. optic radiations emerge
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. optic nerves form the optic tracts
Open-angle glaucoma is primarily caused by abnormalities in which structure?
A. Trabecular meshwork
B. Posterior chamber
C. Ciliary processes
D. Iris
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. Trabecular meshwork
What is the most important action for a patient who has sustained a splach injury to the eye?
A. Go to the emergency room as quickly as possible
B. Immediately fluch the eye with a substantial amount of liquid and call the poison control center
C. Put a bland ophthalmic ointment in the eye to protect the corneal epithelium
D. Make sure to keep the bottle that the liquid was in and call 911
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. Immediately fluch the eye with a substantial amount of liquid and call the poison control center
All of the following describe types of retinal detachment except
A. tractional
B. choroidal
C. central serous chorioretinopathy
D. rhegmatogenous
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. choroidal
Management of the partially sighted varies with the patient’s
A. vocation
B. age
C. sex
D. ethnicity
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. age
What is the name of the rule to determine the amount of magnification required for a low vision patient to read where the numerator of the patient’s acuity is divided into the denominator?
A. Herring’s rule
B. Keeler rule
C. Kestenbaum rule
D. Mueller rule
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
C. Kestenbaum rule
True ophthalmic emergencies need to be treated within minutes. Which of the following conditions is considered a true ophthalmic emergency?
A. Chemical burn of the eye
B. Hyphema
C. Blow-out fracture
D. Retinal detachment
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. Chemical burn of the eye
Which two types of ophthalmic symptoms require immediate attention?
A. Pain; loss of vision
B. Redness; tearing
C. Blurry vision; floaters
D. Discharge; itching
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. Pain; loss of vision
A patient calls stating they have not been able to see out of their right eye for the last half hour, but it does not hurt. When should they see an ophthalmologist?
A. Immediately
B. Today
C. Tomorrow
D. Sometime within the week
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. Immediately
Which of the following conditions is a true ophthalmic emergency?
A. Ocular tumor
B. Optic neuritis
C. Old retinal detachment
D. Central retinal artery occlusion
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
D. Central retinal artery occlusion
How is a properly applied eye dressing secured?
A. Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of tape
B. Horizontal parallel strips of tape
C. Parallel strips of tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
D. Strips of tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
C. Parallel strips of tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
What ultrasonic test provides data for calculating intraocular lens (IOL) power?
A. Keratometry
B. A-Scan
C. Pachymetry
D. B-Scan
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. A-Scan
Which of the following was designed to measure visual acuity bypassing optical media defects?
A. ETDRS acuity charts
B. Snellen chart
C. HOTV
D. Laser interferometry (LI)
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
D. Laser interferometry (LI)
What situation would indicate a need for calibration of an A-Scan instrument?
A. Presence of a long axial length in a myopic patient
B. Increasing the gain on a patient with a dense cataract
C. Inability to obtain good end points on a series of patients on the same day
D. Moving the first gate on the patient with a shallow anterior chamber
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
C. Inability to obtain good end points on a series of patients on the same day
A 47-year-old male presents in the office with eyelid swelling, double vision, and a bulging eye. CT reveals thickening of the extraocular muscles, eyelid retraction, and proptosis. Which of the following is the probable diagnosis?
A. Orbital tumor
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Graves’ disease
D. Lacrimal gland tumor
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
C. Graves’ disease
Atropine is not used to dilate the pupil for routine examinations in adults because
A. it induces allergic sensitization
B. its effects do not last long enough
C. its effects last too long
D. it is weaker than homatropine
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
C. its effects last too long
A Hruby lens is used to examine the
A. lens of the eye
B. anterior vitreous
C. fundus of the eye
D. thickness of the cornea
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
C. fundus of the eye
The primary area of the brain which receives visual stimuli is located
A. at the base of the frontal lobe
B. at the posterior portion of the occipital lobe
C. in the cerebellum
D. in the superior portion of the temporal lobe
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
B. at the posterior portion of the occipital lobe
What is the term for the reduction in accommodation that occurs with age?
A. Amblyopia
B. Anisometropia
C. Emmetropia
D. Presbyopia
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
D. Presbyopia
Corneal abrasions are treated by firm patching for how many hours?
A. 24
B. 36
C. 48
D. 60
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 12%
A. 24
The denominator in the visual acuity recording of a low vision patient is
A. equal to the numerator
B. the same for both eyes
C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity
D. smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity
General Medical Knowledge 5%
C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity
A patient with which of the following color vision disorders has a severe difficulty seeing red light?
A. Protanopia
B. Protanomaly
C. Deuteranopia
D. Deuteranomaly
General Medical Knowledge 5%
A. Protanopia
Schirmer’s testing is used to measure
A. tear production
B. corneal thickness
C. pupillary reflexes
D. corneal curvature
General Medical Knowledge 5%
A. tear production
The purpose of Brightness Acuity Testing (BAT), is to determine is visual acuity varies with different
A. refractive errors
B. pinhole sizes
C. dark adaptations
D. lighting conditions
General Medical Knowledge 5%
D. lighting conditions
Pseudophakia refers to an eye with
A. a natural human lens
B. an intraocular lens implant
C. no lens
D. a history of LASIK
General Medical Knowledge 5%
B. an intraocular lens implant
In what disease are keratic precipitates generally seen?
A. Acute iritis
B. Chronic open angle glaucoma
C. Dendritic keratitis
D. Marginal corneal ulcers
General Medical Knowledge 5%
A. Acute iritis
KPs: cellular deposits on the endothelium that occur due to inflammation
Oral medications are considered to be what kind of drug?
A. Local
B. Subconjunctival
C. Retrobulbar
D. Systemic
General Medical Knowledge 5%
D. Systemic
What is the name of the drugs that are used to dilate the pupils?
A. Mydriatics
B. Miotics
C. Beta-blockers
D. Anesthetics
General Medical Knowledge 5%
A. Mydriatics
The physiologic blind spot correlates with what anatomy?
A. fundus
B. macula
C. optic nerve
D. posterior pole
General Medical Knowledge 5%
C. optic nerve
The optic nerve has no photoreceptor cells so there isn’t any vision
The use of topical steroids may induce which of the following conditions?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Cataracts
C. Keratoconus
D. Hyphema
General Medical Knowledge 5%
B. Cataracts
The power of a contact lens may be measured on a standard lesmeter. A small error in the power may arise if the lens is held in place by fingers, particularly with what type of lens?
A. High power
B. Low power
C. Therapeutic
D. Cosmetic
Optics and Spectacles 5%
A. High power
Vertex distance refers to the
A. distance between the two optical centers of the spectacle lenses
B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens
C. difference between the distance PD and near PD
D. the pantoscopic angle of the fram
Optics and Spectacles 5%
B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens
A +12 D lens is designated as a magnifier of which power?
A. 2x
B. 3x
C. 4x
D. 5x
Optics and Spectacles 5%
B. 3x
When a bundle of light rays are brought together the ray are said to
A. by symbolized by a minus sign
B. converge to a point of focus
C. create a virtual image
diverge from a point source
Optics and Spectacles 5%
B. converge to a point of focus
Which of the following is a benefit of a flat-top bifocal lens?
A. Better vision in sunlight
B. Lessen or eliminate image jump
C. Improved distance vision
D. Improved peripheral vision
Optics and Spectacles 5%
B. Lessen or eliminate image jump
What is the formula for the “Index of Refraction”?
A. Speed of light in air/Speed of light in substance
B. Speed of light in substance/Speed of light in air
C. Speed of light in air/Speed of light through a prism
D. Speed of light through a prism/Speed of light in air
Optics and Spectacles 5%
A. Speed of light in air/Speed of light in substance
What is the traditional term for the measurement of light intensity?
A. Wavelengths
B. Frequency
C. Foot-candles
D. Velocity
Optics and Spectacles 5%
C. Foot-candles
Now we call these lumens
1 foot candle = the amount of light it takes to saturate a 1 square foot space
What is the term for a path of a single corpuscle of light traveling through a tiny aperture and through two successive screens?
A. Ray of light
B. Pencil of light
C. Beam of light
D. Shaft of light
Optics and Spectacles 5%
A. Ray of light
A beam of light is a group of light rays
Prisms used in ophthalmology are measured in
A. diopters
B. inches
C. feet
D. yards
Optics and Spectacles 5%
A. diopters
Light travels in which way?
A. Waves
B. Straight lines
C. Circles
D. Beams
Optics and Spectacles 5%
A. Waves
Corneal astigmatism is best correct by
A. extended wear spherical soft contact lenses
B. hydrogel spherical soft contact lenses
C. spherical RGP lens
D. spherical spin cast soft contact lenses
Contact Lenses 5%
C. spherical RGP lens
The DK value of contact lens material is the
A. measurement of the light transmittance of the material
B. measurement of the refractive index of the material
C. oxygen transmissibility of the material
D. diffusion, solubility, and movement of qxygen in the lens material
Contact Lenses 5%
D. diffusion, solubility, and movement of qxygen in the lens material
A contact lens fit “steeper than K” is defined as a
A. minus lens
B. corneal radius of 7.6 mm and the contact lens radius could be 7.8 mm
C. corneal measurement of 44.00 diopters and the contact lens curvature would be 44.50 diopters.
D. base curve of the contact lens which is the same radius of the curvature of the anterior cornea
Contact Lenses 5%
C. corneal measurement of 44.00 diopters and the contact lens curvature would be 44.50 diopters.
All of the following are manifestations of hypoxia from a contact lens except
A. giant papillary conjunctivitis
B. intraepithelial microcysts
C. stromal edema
D. warping of the cornea (irregular astigmatism)
Contact Lenses 5%
A. giant papillary conjunctivitis
Contact lens warpage should be checked with a
A. lensmeter
B. shadowgraph
C. slit lamp
D. rasiuscope
Contact Lenses 5%
D. rasiuscope
How many dimensions are represented in a B-scan image?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
B. 2
When performing A-scan biometry, correct alignment of the probe is best determined by
A. tissue spikes that gradually increase in height
B. an axial length measurement between 22 mm and 25 mm
C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp
D. an axial length measurement that is almost equal between the two eyes
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp
The source used to obtain the image in Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is
A. ultrasonic energy
B. visible white light
C. visible red-green light
D. high resolution imaging
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
D. high resolution imaging
When a sound wave travels from one medium to another an echo is produced by
A. frequency
B. acoustic impedance
C. optical density
D. gain setting
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
B. acoustic impedance
Why is immersion A-scan considered more accurate than contact A-scan?
A. Faster to perform
B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated
C. Abrading the cornea is eliminated
D. Uses light instead of sound
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated
The most common error made in contact biometry is
A. improper gate placement
B. erroneous K readings
C. corneal compression
D. wrong eye type
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
C. corneal compression
B-scan biometry is necessary when
A. the IOL master cannot measure the eye
B. there is a cataracy
C. there is any media opacity
D. there is a Staphyloma in the eye
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
C. there is any media opacity
What is the term for a noncontact method that allows for detailed cross-sectional imaging of the anterior eye and retina?
A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
C. Computed Tomography (CT)
D. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
Instead of sound, the OCT is an optical imaging technique that uses
A. lasers
B. air
C. water
D. light
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
D. light
What imaging technique is used to identify liquefaction of the vitreous that results in vitreous detachment?
A. A-Scan
B. B-Scan
C. Pentacam
D. OCT
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
D. OCT
OCT testing can accurately measure the thickness of the
A. iris
B. cornea
C. retina
D. lens capsule
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
B. cornea
Intracorneal rings are used primarily in the treatment of which condition?
A. Keratoconus
B. Retinal detachment
C. Glaucoma
D. Age-related macular degeneration
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
A. Keratoconus
Computerized topography analysis is the measurement of the curvature of the
A. corneal surface
B. anterior chamber
C. posterior chamber
D. vitreous body
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
A. corneal surface
OCT imaging is not useful in determining which of the following conditions?
A. Glaucoma
B. Macular edema
C. Macular holes
D. Dextroversion
Ophthalmic Imaging 7%
D. Dextroversion
What is the earliest phase of retinal circulation in fluorescein angiography?
A. Arterial phase
B. Capillary phase
C. Choroidal flush
D. Venous phase
Photography and Videography 6%
C. Choroidal flush
Specular microscopy images are used to
A. identify bacteria
B. identify retinal abnormalities
C. measure corneal endothelial cell density
D. measure corneal thickness
Photography and Videography 6%
C. measure corneal endothelial cell density
Retroillumination detects
A. opacities or defects in the iris
B. eyelids or eyelash anomalies
C. the palpebral conjunctiva or sclera
D. adverse corneal effects from contact lenses
Photography and Videography 6%
A. opacities or defects in the iris
Gonioscopy is a technique for imaging the
A. junction of the iris and cornea
B. axons of the optic nerve head
C. chiasmal and post chiasmal field defects
D. nerve fiber pathways aboce the raphe
Photography and Videography 6%
A. junction of the iris and cornea
Which dystrophy is noted by wart like deposits on Descemet’s membrane, thickening of Descemet’s membrane, and defects of size and shape of the endothelial cells?
A. Fuch’s dystrophy
B. Narrow angle glaucoma
C. Lattice corneal dystrophy
D. Retinal detachment
Photography and Videography 6%
A. Fuch’s dystrophy
What type of stromal corneal dystrophy is manifested by a dense gray central opacity that starts in Bowman’s layer?
A. Macular
B. Granular
C. Lattice
D. Reis-Buckler
Photography and Videography 6%
A. Macular
Taken with a green filter, in a red-free photograph
A. veins and arteries appear black; optic nerve appears white
B. veins and arteries appear white; optic nerve appears black
C. fluorescein dye is present in the arteries and choroid only
D. arteries and capillaries fluoresce
Photography and Videography 6%
A. veins and arteries appear black; optic nerve appears white
What fluorescein angiography phase is present when fluorescein dye is indicated in the arteries and choroid only?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late venous
Photography and Videography 6%
A. Arterial
What fluorescein angiography phase is present when arteries and capillaries fluoresce?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late venous
Photography and Videography 6%
C. Early venous
What fluorescein angiography phase is present when there is a full filling of larger veins?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late venous
Photography and Videography 6%
D. Late venous
What fluorescein angiography phase is present when leakage can be seen and diminution of fluorescence in all retinal blood vessels is indicated?
A. Arterial
B. Normal
C. Early venous
D. Late
Photography and Videography 6%
D. Late
What is the term for mid-phase fluorescein angiography?
A. Arterial phase
B. Fluorescein phase
C. Choroidal flush
D. Venous phase
Photography and Videography 6%
D. Venous phase
When all the arteries and veins are full
The forehead and cheek rests on the phoropter are cleanded
A. after each patient with liquid detergent
B. periodically with a 1:10 dilution of liquid bleach
C. with soap and water, soaked in alcohol, or boiled in water
D. after each patient by a sterilization process only
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%
C. with soap and water, soaked in alcohol, or boiled in water
If the lenses are dirty on a refractor/phoropter, they should be cleaned with a
A. lint-free swab lightly moistened with either alcohol or ether
B. lint-free swab lightly moistened with bleach
C. lint-free swab lightly moistened with distilled water
D. lint-free swab lightly moistened with dish wash detergent
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%
A. lint-free swab lightly moistened with either alcohol or ether
How often should the calibration on the applanation tonometer be checked?
A. Every month
B. Every 2 months
C. Every 3 months
D. Every 4 months
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%
B. Every 2 months
Which of the following statements about the Snellen visual acuity chart is true?
A. A special slide is available for testing color vision
B. It can be used only with a patient-to-screen distance of twenty feet ( six meters)
C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the optotypes on the screen
D. With proper adjustment it can be used to test near vision
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%
C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the optotypes on the screen
If the slit lamp will no longer slide easily on the tabletop, which of the following remedies should be tried first?
A. Clean the friction pad (plate)
B. Grease the joystick
C. Replace the ball bearings
D. Replace the locking screw
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 1%
A. Clean the friction pad (plate)
What fundamental issue enhances patient trust and partnership while aiding patients to understand their disease?
A. Informed consent
B. Cultural beliefs
C. Honest patient communication
D. Proper communication
Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 2%
C. Honest patient communication
The term for the education of the patient, asking for their participation in the decision making process is
A. client confidentiality
B. informed consent
C. patient privacy
D. paient responsibility
Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 2%
B. informed consent
