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Certification Prep > COA 2 > Flashcards

COA 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A patient’s history of pain and low vision could be attributed to
A. acute glaucoma
B. strabismus
C. stroke
D. subconjunctival hemorrhage

History and Documentation 5%

A

A. acute glaucoma

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2
Q

Which of the following is a symptom?
A. flakes on the lashes
B. flashes of light
C. red eye
D. swollen lid

History and Documentation 5%

A

B. flashes of light

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3
Q

Under what heading should the onset of current symptoms be recorded?
A. current medications
B. past history
C. physical signs
D. present illness

History and Documentation 5%

A

D. present illness

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4
Q

Which is the main reason for the patient’s visit to the ophthalmologist recorded?
A. chief complaint
B. family history
C. past medical history
D. past ocular history

History and Documentation 5%

A

A. chief complaint

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5
Q

Symptoms associated with a red, irritated, bloodshot eye are MOST likely due to
A. retinal detachment
B. cataracts
C. conjunctivitis
D. open-angle glaucoma

History and Documentation 5%

A

C. conjunctivitis

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6
Q

What is the term used to refer to symptoms due to uncorrected refractive error?
A. ametropia
B. asthenopia
C. esotropia
D. anisometropia

History and Documentation 5%

A

A. ametropia

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7
Q

What is an important question to ask a patient that complains of a “red-eye”?
A. do you have blurred vision?
B. do you see flashing lights?
C. do you wear glasses?
D. do you see floaters?

History and Documentation 5%

A

A. do you have blurred vision?

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8
Q

Which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence?
A. history
B. diagnosis
C. measurement
D. assessment

History and Documentation 5%

A

A. history

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9
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT hereditary?
A. migraines
B. diabetes
C. nystagmus
D. conjunctivitis

History and Documentation 5%

A

D. conjunctivitis

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10
Q

History and Documentation 5%

A
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11
Q

What is a probable cause of blurred distance vision that is improved by squinting?
A. esotropia
B. glaucoma
C. uncorrected myopia
D. uncorrected presbyopia

Visual Assessment 6%

A

C. uncorrected myopia

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12
Q

Which of the following equivalences is correct?
A. 5/200 is equivalent to 20/400
B. 6/60 is equivalent to 3/120
C. 10/200 is equivalent to 20/100
D. 20/200 is equivalent to 10/100

Visual Assessment 6%

A

D. 20/200 is equivalent to 10/100

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13
Q

Which of the following is a measure of distance of visual acuity?
A. 20/20
B. 40 arc seconds
C. D-15
D. Jaeger 2

Visual Assessment 6%

A

A. 20/20

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14
Q

20/60 visual acuity means the patient sees a test object at
A. 6 meters that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet
B. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet
C. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 meters
D. 60 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet

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15
Q

An effective means of estimating visual acuity in infants would be to use…
A. an amblyoscope
B. preferential looking
C. prism bars
D. a Snellen chart

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. preferential looking

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16
Q

In an industrial injury, in which the patient complains of a foreign body sensation, a 20/60 vision is recorded by the assistant. What is the next step the assistant should take?
A. instill a fluorescein dye
B. patch the eye
C. return the patient to the waiting room
D. try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve

Visual Assessment 6%

A

D. try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve

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17
Q

Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter useful in patients with
A. glaucoma
B. cataracts
C. optic neuritis
D. age-related macular degeneration

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. cataracts

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18
Q

Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye?
A. 10-12
B. 14-16
C. 18-20
D. 22-24

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. 14-16

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19
Q

If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with use of a(n)
A. placido disc
B. pinhole disc
C. occluder over non-dominant eye
D. occluder over dominant eye

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. pinhole disc

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20
Q

What is the recommended distance used for assessing distance acuity?
A. 3’
B. 10’
C. 20’
D. 40’

Visual Assessment 6%

A

C. 20’

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21
Q

If a person is able to clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 80 feet by a person with no refractive error, their visual acuity is said to be
A. 20/20
B. 20/40
C. 20/60
D. 20/80

Visual Assessment 6%

A

D. 20/80

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22
Q

Which statement correctly refers to the letters on the Snellen chart?
A. because they subtend the same amount of arc, each letter is equally recognizable
B. even though they each subtend the same amount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others
C. different letters subtend different amounts of arc, yet each letter is equally recognizable
D. different letters subtend different amounts of arc, thus some letters are easier to recognize than others

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. even though they each subtend the same amount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others

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23
Q

What is the central field of vision?
A. a 10 degree area of vision around the macula
B. a 25-30 degree area of vision around the blind spot
C. a 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point
D. the area where the visual fields of the two eyes overlap

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

C. a 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point

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24
Q

Which of the following is the BEST method for kinetic testing of the central visual field?
A. amsler grid
B. confrontation testing
C. harrington-Flocks screener
D. tangent screen

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

D. tangent screen

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25
Q

If a lesion is more anterior and is located toward one side, that may affect the junctional area involving the optic nerve of one eye and the inferior nasal fibers of the other eye. The eye on the side of the lesion will have what type of optic defect?
A. Bjerrum scotoma
B. central scotoma
C. centrocecal scotoma
D. pericentral scotoma

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

B. central scotoma

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26
Q

The autoplot tangent screen measures the
A. supra threshold kinetic field
B. supra threshold static field
C. threshold kinetic field
D. threshold static field of vision

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

A. supra threshold kinetic field

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27
Q

Visual field loss due to optic nerve cupping is related to which condition?
A. glaucoma
B. tropia
C. phoria
D. nystagmus

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

A. glaucoma

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28
Q

Which type of perimetry involves a moving target?
A. threshold
B. kinetic
C. static
D. automatic

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

B. kinetic

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29
Q

What is the term for an area of complete or parital blindness in an otherwise normail visual field?
A. Scotoma
B. Sunechiae
C. Stye
D. Stroma

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

A. Scotoma

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30
Q

Visual Field Testing 4%

A
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31
Q

Marcus-Gunn pupil
A. has diminished pupil reaction to light
B. is fixed and dilated
C. responds slowly to light
D. shows asymptomatic anisocoria

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

A. has diminished pupil reaction to light

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32
Q

When performing the swinging flashlight test on a patient with a relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil) in the left eye, the expected findings would be a(n)…
A. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS
B. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and hippus movement when the light “swings” to OS
C. constriction of the left pupil in bright light and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OD
D. initial dilation followed by constriction with direct light OD and total dilation OU when the light “swings” to OS

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

A. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS

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33
Q

Shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called
A. indirect light reflex
B. consensual light reflex
C. direct light reflex
D. near light reflex

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

C. direct light reflex

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34
Q

Consensual light reflex in the right eye results in
A. right pupil constriction
B. right pupil dialtion
C. left pupil constriction
D. left pupil dilation

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

A. right pupil constriction

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35
Q

What is the term for pupillary constriction?
A. mydriasis
B. miosis
C. cycloplegia
D. anisocoria

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

B. miosis

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36
Q

If the amount of light information transmitted from the brain to one eye differs from that of the other eye, the patient has a(n)
A. afferent pupillary defect
B. Adie’s pupil
C. tonic pupil
D. third nerve palsy

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

A. afferent pupillary defect

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37
Q

What is the MAIN advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer?
A. applanation is a more modern technique
B. applanation tonometry causes less patient discomfort
C. it is more accurate
D. the intraocular pressure change is larger as compared to indentation

Tonometry 4%

A

C. it is more accurate

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38
Q

In applanation tonometry, excessive width of the mires can indicate…
A. improper alignment of the prism
B. need for recalibration of instrument
C. too little fluorescein
D. too much fluorescein

Tonometry 4%

A

D. too much fluorescein

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39
Q

What drug is used during tonometry to anesthetize the eye?
A. proparacaine
B. paredrine
C. phenylephrine
D. tropicamide

Tonometry 4%

A

A. proparacaine

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40
Q

Killing of the HIV and other viruses on the applanation prism is BEST accomplished by soaking in…
A. diluted betadine
B. gentamicin solution
C. isopropyl alcohol
D. sodium hypochlorite (Chlorine Bleach)

Tonometry 4%

A

D. sodium hypochlorite (Chlorine Bleach)

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41
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the process used to check the accuracy of the Goldmann applanation tonometer?
A. It should be calibrated daily for reliable results
B. It can be performed in the office with a calibrating rod
C. It can only be handled at the factory or instrument repair shop
D. It is accomplished with a test sphere with a standard tension of 20 mm Hg

Tonometry 4%

A

B. It can be performed in the office with a calibrating rod

Checking the calibration monthly is sufficient

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42
Q

Which type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp?
A. applanation
B. indentation
C. Perkins
D. air puff

Tonometry 4%

A

A. applanation

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43
Q

The calibration of the Goldmann applanation tonometer should be checked at which settings?
A. 0, 1, 2
B. 0, 2, 4
C. 0, 2, 6
D. 0, 4, 8

Tonometry 4%

A

C. 0, 2, 6

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44
Q

What is the diameter of the plastic prism comprised of a flat surface within the applanation tonometer?
A. 1.5 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 6.0 mm
D. 7.0 mm

Tonometry 4%

A

B. 3.0 mm

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45
Q

What is the number of a target illuminator replacement bulb?
A. 12419
B. 19241
C. 11249
D. 14129

Tonometry 4%

A

A. 12419

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46
Q

What type of corneal astigmatism does a keratometry reading of 42.25/44.75 x 090 indicate?
A. None
B. Oblique
C. With-the-rule
D. Against-the-rule

Keratometry 2%

A

C. With-the-rule

ATR = Steeper @180 (bowtie)

WTR = Steeper @ 90 (tie)

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47
Q

The purpose of keratometry is to measure the
A. thickness of the corneal stroma
B. curvature of the anterior corneal surface
C. diameter of the horizontal cornea
D. diameter of the vertical cornea

Keratometry 2%

A

B. curvature of the anterior corneal surface

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48
Q

Which process is useful for measiring corneal astigmatism?
A. Lensometry
B. Keratometry
C. Tonometry
D. Biometry

Keratometry 2%

A

B. Keratometry

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49
Q

The results of keratometry can be expressed in
A. cubic mm
B. mmHg
C. centimeters
D. diopters

Keratometry 2%

A

D. diopters

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50
Q

What examination distinguishes a constant tropia from an intermittent tropia?
A. The alternating cover test with prism
B. The cover-uncover test
C. The Krimsky test
D. The Hirschberg test

Ocular Motility 4%

A

B. The cover-uncover test

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51
Q

What is the best way to perform the Worth 4-Dot test on a child?
A. Tell the child there are four lights and ask which colors they see
B. Tell the child to alternately close one eye and the other
C. Ask which color the child sees
D. Give the child the flashlight before they put the glasses on

Ocular Motility 4%

A

C. Ask which color the child sees

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52
Q

Evaluating the range and symmetry of motion of both eyes together is known as…
A. Ductions
B. Versions
C. Phorias
D. Tropias

Ocular Motility 4%

A

B. Versions

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53
Q

Stereoacuity testing is indicated if a patient has…
A. Retinitis
B. A phoria
C. A chalazion
D. Hyperplasia

Ocular Motility 4%

A

B. A phoria

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54
Q

Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria?
A. Worth 4-dot
B. Ishihara plates
C. Maddox rod
D. Marcus Gunn

Ocular Motility 4%

A

C. Maddox rod

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55
Q

Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex?
A. Hess
B. Worth 4-dat
C. Hirschberg
D. Krimsky

Ocular Motility 4%

A

D. Krimsky

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56
Q

How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Ocular Motility 4%

A

C. 3

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57
Q

A patient’s prescription from a referring doctor is written in minus cylinder notation, while your ophthalmologist works in plus cylinder. Transpose the following prescription: +2.25-0.75x165, +3.75-1.25x003
A. +1.50+0.75x075, +2.50+1.25x093
B. +1.50+0.75x165, +2.50+1.25x003
C. +1.50-0.75x165, +2.50-1.25x003
D. -1.50+0.75x075, -3.75+1.25x093

Lensometry 3%

A

A. +1.50+0.75x075, +2.50+1.25x093

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58
Q

On the back of a frame are a few figures such as 46 X 22. What do these numbers represent?
A. Bridge and lens size
B. Pupillary distance and segment height
C. Lens and bridge size
D. Segment height and pupillary distance

Lensometry 3%

A

C. Lens and bridge size

The lens size is larger than bridge size

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59
Q

What is the ONLY accurate method for measuring pupillary distance?
A. Pupil gauge
B. Light reflex method
C. Ruler
D. Dark reflex method

Lensometry 3%

A

B. Light reflex method

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60
Q

A lens with the focal length of 2 meters has a power of
A. 0.50 D
B. 1.00 D
C. 2.00 D
D. 5.00 D

Lensometry 3%

A

A. 0.50 D

The stronger the lens, the shorter the focal length

D = 1/F (in meters)
D = 1/2
Ex: Focal length is 20 cm (1/5th of a meter or 0.20 meters)
D = 1/.20 = 5 D

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61
Q

What part of the spectacle frame connects the two lenses?
A. Temple
B. Cover
C. Rim
D. Bridge

Lensometry 3%

A

D. Bridge

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62
Q

The measurement used to determine the distance between the optical centers of spectacle lenses is the
A. pupillary distance
B. axial length
C. vertex distance
D. refractive error

Lensometry 3%

A

A. pupillary distance

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63
Q

Visual acuity of 6/12 is equivalent to
A. 20/20
B. 20/30
C. 20/40
D. 20/50

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. 20/40

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64
Q

What is the principle reason for the routine preference of subjective over objective refraction?
A. Automated retinoscopy systems make refraction efficient
B. Jackson’s cross cylinder is easy to use
C. Sphero-cylinder evaluation is easy
D. The patient’s preference is considered the process

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. The patient’s preference is considered the process

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65
Q

The fact that most glasses have a downward tilt to minimize oblique astigmatism is called…
A. Interpupillary distance
B. Pantoscopic tilt
C. Oblique astigmatism
D. Image displacement

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

B. Pantoscopic tilt (or angle)

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66
Q

What is the result of a loss of accommodation?
A. Myopia
B. Hyperopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Amblyopia

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. Presbyopia

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67
Q

What is the ocular structure with the greatest refractive power?
A. Cornea
B. Lens
C. Pupil
D. Retina

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

A. Cornea

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68
Q

What test illuminates the screen with a filter that is red on one side and green on the other?
A. Worth 4-dot
B. Ishihara
C. Duochrome
D. Maddox

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. Duochrome

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69
Q

The distance from the anterior surface of the eye to the back surface of the spectacle lens in the
A. base curve
B. pipillary distance
C. lens distance
D. vertex distance

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. vertex distance

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70
Q

Retinoscopy is an example of what type of refractometry?
A. Objective
D. Subjective
C. Immediate
D. Latent

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

A. Objective

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71
Q

What is the term for the “bending of light”?
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Emergence
D. Incidence

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

B. Refraction

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72
Q

The area between the two focal points of a spheroculindracial lens is call the Conoid of
A. Schlemm
B. Streit
C. Schiotz
D. Sturm

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. Sturm

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73
Q

Axial length is provided by which measurement?
A. Precorneal tear film to the posterior vitreous face
B. Anterior corneal surface to the macula
C. Anterior corneal surface to the optic disc
D. Anterior pole to the posterior pole

Biometry 3%

A

B. Anterior corneal surface to the macula

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74
Q

How are ultrasound biometric measurements obtained?
A. The anterior lens spike should be lower than posterior lens spike
B. The patient must have good vision
C. The probe should be aligned along the visual axis of the eye
D. The biometrist must press firmly on the globe

Biometry 3%

A

C. The probe should be aligned along the visual axis of the eye

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75
Q

What A-scan measurements is most important in determining intraocular lens (IOL) power?
A. Corneal curvature
B. Anterior chamber depth
C. Lens thickness
D. Axial length

Biometry 3%

A

D. Axial length

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76
Q

What is the most commonly used technique to perform a B-scan?
A. Slit lamp
B. Handheld probe
C. Computed Topography (CT)
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

Biometry 3%

A

B. Handheld probe

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77
Q

Axial length measurements should be rechecked if there is a difference between the two eyes of more than
A. 0.1mm
B. 0.3mm
C. 1mm
D. 3mm

Biometry 3%

A

B. 0.3mm

0.3 mm is about ~1D worth of power, which is unusual between the eyes.

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78
Q

Schirmer testing is frequently used for a patient who is considering
A. new spectacles
B. cataract surgery
C. contact lenses
D. muscle recession

Supplemental Skills 3%

A

C. Contact lenses

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79
Q

Titmus testing evaluates stereopsis by assessing if certain portions of the images are
A. elevated
B. darker
C. clear
D. not visible

Supplemental Skills 3%

A

A. Elevated

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80
Q

What is the correct abbreviation used for the unit “gram”?
A. g
B. gt
C. gr
D. gm

Supplemental Skills 3%

A

A. g

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81
Q

The cones of the humans eye are sensitive to which colors?
A. Red, green, and blue
B. Green, blue, and yellow
C. Blue, yellow, and red
D. Red, green, and black

Supplemental Skills 3%

A

A. Red, green, and blue

82
Q

How many layers comprise the tear layer?
A. 3 layers
B. 4 layers
C. 5 layers
D. 6 layers

Supplemental Skills 3%

A

A. 3 layers

83
Q

Which of the following organisms is most likely to cause a dendritic corneal ulcer?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus

Microbiology 3%

A

B. Herpes simplex virus

84
Q

What is the most prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

Microbiology 3%

A

B. Eosinophils

85
Q

Which one of the following stains is useful for determining the inflammatory cellular response to a particular agent?
A. Giemsa’s
B. Gram’s
C. Sabouraud’s
D. Safranin

Microbiology 3%

A

A. Giemsa’s

86
Q

What is a common medium used to culture microorganisms?
A. Plasma
B. Water
C. Agar
D. Stain

Microbiology 3%

A

C. Agar

87
Q

Universal Precautions require that equipment or devices that only come in contact with a patient’s intact skin should undergo
A. sterilization before every use
B. daily sterilization
C. surface disinfection
D. cleaning with detergent

Microbiology 3%

A

D. cleaning with detergent

88
Q

What is the term for the “degerming” of the hands?
A. Cleaning
B. Scrubbing
C. Sterilizing
D. Septicizing

Microbiology 3%

A

B. Scrubbing

89
Q

What is an important factor in the delivery of eye medication?
A. Instilling extra drops of medication at the same time
B. Massaging the tear duct before using drops
C. The person who is administering the drops
D. Prolonging medication contact time with the eye

Pharmacology 3%

A

D. Prolonging medication contact time with the eye

90
Q

Which of the following modes of drug delivery involves placing the drug directly on the surface of the eye?
A. Periocular
B. Sub-Tenon’s
C. Subcutaneous
D. Topical

Pharmacology 3%

A

D. Topical

91
Q

Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing an allergic or bad reaction?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ampicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Tobramycin

Pharmacology 3%

A

B. Ampicillin

92
Q

Which eye drop inactivates the sphincter muscle of the iris?
A. Cycloplegic
B. Anesthetic
C. Miotic
D. Mydriatic

Pharmacology 3%

A

A. Cycloplegic

A mydriatic eye drop activates the dilator muscle

93
Q

What type of drug is used to treat actue allergic reactiong?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antivirals
C. Antihistamines
D. Antiparasitic

Pharmacology 3%

A

C. Antihistamines

94
Q

What is a cycloplegic that is ideal for office use because it is relatively weak and is primarily used for its dilating ability?
A. Tropicamide
B. Phenylephrine
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Atropine

Pharmacology 3%

A

A. Tropicamide

95
Q

What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?
A. Constriction of the pupil
B. Reduction of pressure in the aqueous veins
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
D. Increased rate of flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork

Pharmacology 3%

A

C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body

96
Q

What cycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting effect?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Tropicamide
D. Cyclopentolate

Pharmacology 3%

A

B. Atropine Sulfate

97
Q

Which is the most important instruction regarding the instillation of eye drops?
A. Lie down
B. Pull up the upper lid
C. Pull down the lower lid
D. Touch the tip of the bottle to the eyelid

Pharmacology 3%

A

C. Pull down the lower lid

98
Q

How soon should aspirin and other blood thinners be discontinued prior to cataract surgery?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

A. 1 week

99
Q

For which of the following in-office minor surgeries might an ophthalmologist ask that the operative site be prepped with topical 5% Povidone-iodine?
A. Chalazion excision
B. Corneal debridement
C. Foreign body removal
D. Canaliculus repair

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

A. Chalazion excision

100
Q

The ophthalmologist asks for the room and equipment to be prepared for a patient who will undergo a minor surgical procedure. What may be the procedure that is going to be performed if electrolysis has been selected as the preferred treatment?
A. Trichiasis
B. Chalazion excision
C. Skin tumor removal
D. Conjunctival lesion removal

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

A. Trichiasis

101
Q

An ophthalmologist asks you to educate a patient on cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation. Which of the following is correct?
A. A cataract is a film that grows over the eye
B. An implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens
C. A cataract results from increased intraocular pressure
D. An implant periodically needs to be removed and cleaned

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

B. An implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens

102
Q

A granulated inflammation of the eyelid that may be removed surgically if it does not subside is a
A. xanthelasma.
B. pterygium.
C. stye.
D. chalazion.

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

D. chalazion

103
Q

PRobing of the tear duct may be useful treatment for patients with
A. epiphora.
B. epicanthus.
C. exophoria.
D. episcleritis.

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

A. epiphora

104
Q

Before sterilization, minor surgical instruments should be
A. soaked in instrument milk.
B. bleached.
C. dusted.
D. cleaned with soapy water.

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

D. cleaned with soapy water

105
Q

Which instrument is used in chalazion surgery?
A. Clamp
B. Dilator
C. Forceps
D. Needle

Surgical Assisting 4%

A
106
Q

Of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wavelength?
A. Argon
B. Excimer
C. Krypton
D. Carbon Dioxide

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

B. Excimer

107
Q

The ophthalmologist is asked to discuss post-operative medications with a patient for whom they just inserted punctal plugs. What medication would likely be discussed?
A. Artificial tears
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Topical steroids drops
D. Topical antibiotic drops

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

A. Artificial tears

108
Q

Skin preperation around the preoperative eye is performed using an alternative technique of cleansing with
A. soap and water.
B. antiseptic solution and rinsing with water.
C. water, then applying antiseptic solution.
D. water then drying with a sterile towel.

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

B. antiseptic solution and rinsing with water

109
Q

The isolating eye drape is
A. applied tightly so it does not slip.
B. adhesive backed with precut apertures.
C. removed prior to surgery.
D. loose for easy removal.

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

B. adhesive backed with precut apertures

110
Q

Which structure secretes aqueous fluid and serves as an attachment site for zonules?
A. Ciliary processes
B. Iris root
C. Lens capsule
D. Ora serrata

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Ciliary processes

111
Q

A condition in which blood has settled in the bottom half of the anterior chamber of the eye is called a(n)
A. erythema
B. hematoma
C. hyphema
D. hypopyon

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. hyphema

112
Q

A person with a fold of skin overlying the nasal area of the eye lids has
A. blepharochalasis
B. entropion
C. epicanthus
D. lagophthalmos

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. epicanthus

113
Q

Aqueous humor drains out into the
A. Canal of Schlemm
B. ciliary body
C. iris
D. uveal tract

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Canal of Schlemm

114
Q

A parent calls to say that his child has been hit in the eye with a rock from a sling shot. You advise the patient to
A. bring the child to the office immediately
B. give the child a mild analgesic for pain
C. patch the eye tightly to stop bleeding
D. pry the lids open to check the eye

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. bring the child to the office immediately

115
Q

Inflammation of the tear sac associated with faulty tear drainage is
A. trichiasis
B. blepharitis
C. conjunctivitis
D. dacryocystitis

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. Dacryocystitis

116
Q

A patient with severe seasonal allergic conjunctivitis relates that the primary care doctor will not prescribe medication for an allergy due to the patient’s glaucoma. The doctor’s concern is related to which type of glaucoma?
A. Angle closure
B. Open angle
C. Uveitic
D. Pigmentary

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Angle closure

117
Q

Which patient symptoms would require the most immediate attention?
A. Double vision for less than a week
B. Lid swelling for less than 3 weeks
C. Blurred vision for more than a week
D. Progressive vision loss over the last 3 months

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Double vision for less than a week

118
Q

Atropine is not used to dilate the pupil for routine examinations in adults chiefly because
A. it induces allergic sensitization
B. its effects do not last long enough
C. its effects last too long
D. it’s a poor mydriatic

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. its effects last too long

119
Q

A firmly applied unilateral eye pad will
A. limit the movement in both eyes
B. limit the movement of the patched eye
C. limit the movement of the patched eyelid
D. reduce pressure on the globe

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. limit the movement of the patched eyelid

120
Q

Which of the following is the most common complication of patching an eye?
A. Corneal abrasion
B. Elevated intraocular pressure
C. Dilation of the pupil
D. Tear flow reduction

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Corneal abrasion

121
Q

In counseling a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following statements is accurate?
A. A cataract is a film that grows over the eye
B. A cataract need not be treated if vision is good
C. A cataract may grow back
D. A cataract must be “ripe” before it is removed

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. A cataract need not be treated if vision is good

122
Q

In coulseling a patient about upcoming surgery, which of the following is best left for the surgeon to discuss?
A. Specific risks and outcomes of the procedure
B. What to expect during the procedure
C. Instructions for post operative care
D. Emergency contact information

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Specific risks and outcomes of the procedure

123
Q

Which of the following symptoms is of most concern in the early postoperative course following cataract surgery?
A. Intense pain
B. Redness
C. Blurry vision
D. Tearing

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Intense pain

124
Q

A patient who wears contact lenses has had a red eye for two days. How should this patient be triaged?
A. Schedule routinely within 1 month
B. Schedule at your office within 1 week
C. Send immediately to the nearest emergency room
D. Schedule at your clinic as an urgent add-on within 24 hours

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. Schedule at your clinic as an urgent add-on within 24 hours

125
Q

Which of the following is a sign?
A. A black spot in the field of vision
B. Complaints of difficulty reading
C. Double vision
D. A shallow anterior chamber

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. A shallow anterior chamber

126
Q

Which of the following has been designed to measure visual acuity by bypassing optical medical defects?
A. ETDRS acuity charts
B. Snellen charts
C. HOTV
D. Laser interferometry (LI)

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. Laser interferometry (LI)

LI is another way of checking visual potential like the PAM.

127
Q

How is a properly applied eye dress secured?
A. Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of adhesive tape
B. Horizontal patallel strips of adhesive tape
C. Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
D. Strips of adhesive tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT normally considered in the differential diagnosis of an inflamed, red eye?
A. Acute conjunctivitis
B. Keratitis
C. Dacryocystitis
D. Acute iritis

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. Dacryocystitis

129
Q

Which of the following organisms is likely to cause a corneal ulcer?
A. Adenovirus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Staphylococcus aureus

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. Herpes simplex virus

130
Q

In which of the following ocular conditions is the direction of gaze a factor in intraocular pressure determination?
A. Chronic angle glaucoma
B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Iritis with secondary glaucoma

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy

131
Q

What eye disorder reveals a constricted pupil and keratic precipitates?
A. Iritis
B. Conjunctiva
C. Episcleritis
D. Keratoconus

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Iritis

132
Q

The swelling of the optic disc with engorged blood vessels is known as
A. papilledema
B. endopthalmitis
C. optic nerve compression
D. anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. papilledema

133
Q

Which organ is included in the cardiovascular system?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Brain
D. Kidneys

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Heart

134
Q

A non-contact lens used to exam the macula is a
A. goniolens
B. Hruby lens
C. Koeppe lens
D. Maddox lens

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. Hruby lens

135
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause diplopia in a patient only when wearing spectacles?
A. High minus lenses
B. High plus lenses
C. Improper centering of the lenses
D. Large frames

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. Improper centering of the lenses

136
Q

Which eye care professional specializes in fitting spectacles?
A. Orthopedist
B. Orthodontist
C. Orthoptist
D. Optician

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. Optician

137
Q

Which eye care professional specializes in measurement of eye movemebt and the extraocular muscles?
A. Orthodontist
B. Orthoptist
C. Optician
D. Orthopedist

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. Orthoptist

138
Q

If a patient must be kept waiting, convey
A. their appointment was never scheduled
B. they should not complain
C. how long the wait will be and unfortunately, schedules cannot always be controlled due to emergencies
D. they should read the pamphlets in the waiting room

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. how long the wait will be and unfortunately, schedules cannot always be controlled due to emergencies

139
Q

What is a key factor affecting the overall rating of a practitioner?
A. Cost of Medicare coverage
B. Number of technicians in the office
C. Time spent in the waiting room
D. Size of the waiting area

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. Time spent in the waiting room

140
Q

A patient has been hit in the eye with a raquetball and now sees flashes of light and cobwebs. You tell the patient
A. if the eye is not red or painful to schedule a routine appointment
B. to come into the office the same day
C. if symptoms persist for at least 24 hours, to come into the office
D. to patch both eyes and come into the office the next day

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. to come into the office the same day

141
Q

Which of the following could cause a medical emergency?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Ocular hypertension
C. Ocular migraine
D. Open angle glaucoma

Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. Angle closure glaucoma

142
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC). The most effective role you can take in preventing the spread of EKC is to
A. identify carriers of the disease
B. treat all those infected with sulfacetamide drops
C. wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments
D. wear disposable gloves when coming in contact with all patients

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments

143
Q

Which of the conditions listed below may be characterized by a white pupillary reflex in a pediatric patient?
A. Choroidal nevus
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Iris coloboma
D. Retinoblastoma

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. Retinoblastoma

144
Q

Color deficient individuals can be
A. denied a driver’s license
B. aided through drug therapy
C. detected by visual field examination
D. disqualified from certain occupations

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. disqualified from certain occupations

145
Q

The three color receptors found in cones are
A. blue, green, and yellow
B. red, green, and blue
C. red, green, and yellow
D. red, yellow, and blue

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. Red, green, and blue

146
Q

If an ophthalmologist states that a patient’s condition is “OU”, this means that the condition is present in
A. neither eye
B. the left eye
C. the right eye
D. both eyes

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. both eyes

147
Q

Scattered light rays produce which visual phenomenon?
A. Diplopia
B. Photpsia
C. Glare
D. Metamorphosia

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. Glare

148
Q

Color vision defects may be
A. refractive
B. subjective
C. congenital or acquired
D. more common in women

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. congenital or acquired

149
Q

A latent deviation that can only be observed when binocular fusion is disrupted is called a(n)
A. tropia
B. hemianopia
C. phoria
D. ametropia

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. phoria

150
Q

Axial length in IOL formulas refers to the distance from the
A. cornea to the iris
B. cornea to the lens
C. lens to the retina
D. cornea to the retina

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. cornea to the retina

151
Q

The name of the oil-secreting glands found in the posterior margin of the eyelid is the
A. gland of Moll
B. gland of Wolfring
C. lacrimal gland
D. Meibomian gland

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. Meibomian gland

152
Q

What is the name of the condition where both the globe and the ocular tissue are missing?
A. Anophthalmia
B. Aniscoria
C. Buphthalmos
D. Cytinosis

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. Anophthalmia

153
Q

Evisceration is the
A. surgical removal of the contents of the eyeball
B. abnormal turning of the eye outward
C. tendency of the eye to turn inward
D. turning outward of the eyelid

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. surgical removal of the contents of the eyeball

154
Q

Enucleation is the
A. inflammation of the ciliary body
B. complete or partial separation of the retina from the choroid
C. complete surgical removal of the globe
D. aberration of rays of light

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. complete surgical removal of the globe

155
Q

What is the name of the condition where a fibrovascular growth forms from the conjunctiva to a portion of the cornea?
A. Pterygium
B. Pinguecula
C. Exteration
D. Entropion

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. Pterygium

156
Q

What is a symptom of hyperthyroidism?
A. Low voice
B. Dry skin
C. Weight gain
D. Shortness of breath

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. Shortness of breath

157
Q

Almost all patients who enter the ophthalmologist’s office require a determination of what status regarding their eyes?
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Glaucoma
C. Refractive error
D. Strabismus

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. Refractive error

158
Q

What is measured during Schirmer testing?
A. Tear production
B. Corneal thickness
C. Pupillary reflexes
D. Corneal curvature

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. Tear production

159
Q

The purpose of glare testing (BAT), is to determine if visual scuity varies with different
A. refractive errors
B. pinhole sizes
C. dark adaptations
D. lighting conditions

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. lighting conditions

160
Q

What is the term for “eye up”?
A. Hypotropia
B. Esotropia
C. Hypertropia
D. Exotropia

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. Hypertropia

161
Q

The denominator in the visual acuity recording of a low vision patient is
A. equal to the numerator
B. the same for both eyes
C. larger than for the patient with normal visual acuity
D. smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. larger than for the patient with normal visual acuity

162
Q

What happens at the chiasmal junction?
A. All nerve fibers from the right eye cross to the left side of the brain and vice versa
B. Some of the nasal and some of the remporal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side
C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side
D. The temporal nerve fibers of each optic nerve cross over the oth other side

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side

163
Q

Calibration of the applanation tonometer is checked by
A. a qualified service technician
B. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 2, and 6
C. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 3, and 5
D. having a second technician verify the IOP measurements on several patients to confirm tonometry accuracy

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 2, and 6

164
Q

Dioptric power of the cornea is determind by what type of reading?
A. Ultrasonography
B. Keratometry
C. Tonometry
D. Tomography

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. Keratometry

165
Q

What two items are used to clean the following lenses: retinoscopy, polarizing, red, and Maddox rod?
A. Lens cloth and canned air
B. Lens cloth and alcohol
C. Cotton tip swab and glass cleaner
D. Cotton tip swab and alcohol

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. Cotton tip swab and glass cleaner

166
Q

What is the name of the visual receptors that process color?
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Ganglion
D. Bipolar

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. Cones

167
Q

What is the term for the condition where the crystalline lens of the eye or its capsule, or both, beceom opaque, with consequent loss of visual acuity?
A. Neuritis
B. Hyphemia
C. Angioma
D. Cataract

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. Cataract

168
Q

What is the term for the concentration of a chemical in a pharmaceutical solution?
A. Stability
B. Sterility
C. Tonicity
D. Toxicity

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. Tonicity

169
Q

What is a possible side effect of Ampicillin?
A. Anaphylactic reaction
B. Colitis
C. Kidney damage
D. Renal damage

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. Anaphylactic reaction

170
Q

The strength of the middle segment in a trifocal lens is
A. -1.00D weaker than the reading segment add
B. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add
C. difficult to measure
D. stronger in magnification than the reading segment add

Optics and Spectacles 2%

A

B. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add

171
Q

Which of the following properly represents the steps used to convert a spherocylindrical lens into its spherical equivalent?
A. Divide the spherical power in half; then add the cylinder power
B. Add the spherical and cylinder power; then divide by 2
C. Divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power
D. Divide the cylinder power in half; then subtract the spherical power

Optics and Spectacles 2%

A

C. Divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power

172
Q

What are the two types of bridges located on a spectacle frame?
A. Apex and saddle
B. Nose holder and apex
C. Keyhole and saddle
D. Triangle and circle

Optics and Spectacles 2%

A

C. Keyhole and saddle

173
Q

Part of the rules for transposition is to change the axis of the cylinder by how many degrees?
A. 45
B. 90
C. 180
D. 270

Optics and Spectacles 2%

A

B. 90

174
Q

Spectacle blur is unclear vision associated with
A. changing from an old spectacle prescription to a new one
B. changing from contacts to spectacles
C. changing from spectacles to contacts
D. spasm of accommodation

Contact Lenses 2%

A

B. changing from contacts to spectacles

175
Q

Changing the base curve of a contact lens changes the fitting characteristics of that lens due to a change in sagittal depth. Increasing the base curve radius of a contact lens while maintaining the same diameter will cause the lens to fit…
A. Steeper and tighter
B. Flatter and looser
C. Higher and tighter
D. Lower and looser

Contact Lenses 2%

A

B. Flatter and looser

176
Q

What is a contraindication to contact lens wear?
A. Seizure disorders
B. Strabismus as a child
C. High blood pressure
D. Cataracts

Contact Lenses 2%

A

A. Seizure disorders

177
Q

Daily wear contact lenses should be removed each night or patients are at a greater risk of developing what condition?
A. Detached retina
B. Shallow anterior chamber
C. Corneal edema
D. Giant papillary conjunctivitis

Contact Lenses 2%

A

C. Corneal edema

178
Q

Extended wear contact lenses are made of materials that allow greater permeability of
A. water
B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide
D. proteins

Contact Lenses 2%

A

B. oxygen

179
Q

What ocular tissue does the A-scan spike labeled A and B represent?
A. Cornea
B. Lens
C. Retina
D. Sclera

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

B. Lens

180
Q

Which ocular tissue produces A-scan spikes?
A. Cornea
B. Choroid
C. Optic disc
D. Vitreous

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

A. Cornea

Spikes: probe, ant and post cornea, ant and post lens, retina, & sclera

181
Q

Advances in digital imaging technology facilitated the practical use of what type of dye?
A. Trypan blue
B. Rose bengal
C. Indocyanine green
D. Gentian violet

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

C. Indocyanine green

182
Q

What is the condition where parallel rays of light come to focus at a point just in front of the retina with respect to the unaccommodated eye?
A. Myopia
B. Cycloplegia
C. Hyperopia
D. Hyperopia with astigmatism

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

A. Myopia

183
Q

What is the purpose for dilating the eye?
A. Help increase aqueous outflow
B. Anesthetize the eye
C. Allow a more complete posterior segment exam
D. Stimulate accommodation

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

C. Allow a more complete posterior segment exam

184
Q

Which type of imaging provides a cross-sectional view of the retina that is useful in evaluating glaucoma?
A. Optical Coherence Tomography
B. Indocyanine Green Photography
C. Wavefront analysis
D. Scanning laser interferometry

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

A. Optical Coherence Tomography

185
Q

What imaging technique doe not provide a color-coded map?
A. Indocyanine Green (ICG)
B. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
C. Scanning Laser Polarimeter (GDx)
D. Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRT)

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

A. Indocyanine Green (ICG)

186
Q

Which instrument is best suited to evlauate the refractive states of the eye?
A. Vertometer
B. Retinoscope
C. Pahcymeter
D. B-scan ultrasound

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

B. Retinoscope

187
Q

In what phase is the “chorodial flush” seen?
A. Pre-arterial
B. Arterial
C. Arteriovenous
D. Recirculatory

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

A. Pre-arterial

188
Q

A statement that describes the best use of A-scan ultrasonography would be to
A. detect a chorodial detachement
B. detect a retinal detachment
C. define the size and location of intraocular masses
D. depict a two-dimensional image of the orbit and globe

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

C. define the size and location of intraocular masses

189
Q

To photograph the posterior pole, the center of focus is
A. the macula
B. the optic disc
C. between the macula and the optic disc
D. between the optic disc and the nasal arcades

Photography and Videography 5%

A

C. between the macula and the optic disc

190
Q

What is first seen (recorded) in fluorescein angiography?
A. Arterial phase
B. Capillary phase
C. Choroidal flush
D. Venous phase

Photography and Videography 5%

A

C. Choroidal flush

191
Q

A fluorescein angiogram is used for which of the following?
A. Counting epithelial cells
B. Measuring the eye’s contrast sensitivity
C. Viewing detail, such as blockages in fundus blood vessels
D. Estimating the cornea’s ability to withstand stress of an operation

Photography and Videography 5%

A

C. Viewing detail, such as blockages in fundus blood vessels

192
Q

The three principle types of ophthalmic imaging are
A. specular, pachymetry, and contrast sensitivity
B. external, slit lamp, and fundus
C. slit lamp, pachymetry, and ultrasonography
D. contrast sensitivity, viewing blockages, and viewing vessels

Photography and Videography 5%

A

B. external, slit lamp, and fundus

193
Q

Retroillumination detects
A. opacities or defects in the iris
B. irregularities of the eyelids or eyelashes
C. the palperal conjunctiva or sclera
D. adverse corneal effects from CLS

Photography and Videography 5%

A

A. opacities or defects in the iris

194
Q

Health care professionals who have open lesions, dermatitis, or other skin irritations should not participate in direct patient care activities or handle
A. contaminated equipment
B. gowns and masks
C. sealed instruments
D. disposable gloves

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2 %

A

A. contaminated equipment

195
Q

Why should laminated acuity projector slides not be cleaned under running water?
A. Retained moisture might short out the projector
B. The letters, numerals, and/or characters will be washed off the slide
C. The specially heated glass of the projector slide will lose its heat-resistant properties
D. Water beads can pool between the two layers of glass

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2 %

A

D. Water beads can pool between the two layers of glass

196
Q

How often are the forehead and cheek rests on the phoropter cleaned?
A. After each patient with liquid detergent
B. Periodically with a 1:10 dilution of liquid bleach
C. With an alcohol wipe after each patient
D. After each patient by a sterilization process only

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2 %

A

C. With an alcohol wipe after each patient

197
Q

Informed consent occurs
A. when the patient signs the consent form
B. when the patient acknowledges understanding of the treatment recommended
C. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat
D. when a reasonable patient verbally agrees to the recommended treatment

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

C. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat

198
Q

The application of coding facilitates the processing of insurance claims. The assigned code, as it refers to procedures and services, must be supported by
A. all billing practices
B. the medical records
C. the policies and procedures manual
D. the length of time the appointment took

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

B. the medical records

199
Q

Obtaining informed consent for a procedure
A. is having the patient sign the consent form
B. begins at the preoperative visit
C. is not needed if the procedure is medically necessary
D. is a process involving education of the patient

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

D. is a process involving education of the patient

200
Q

What are the principles that dictate appropriate or inappropriate behaviors?
A. Ethics
B. Decency
C. Morality
D. Standards

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

A. Ethics

Certification Prep (9 decks)

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