COA 2 Flashcards
A patient’s history of pain and low vision could be attributed to
A. acute glaucoma
B. strabismus
C. stroke
D. subconjunctival hemorrhage
History and Documentation 5%
A. acute glaucoma
Which of the following is a symptom?
A. flakes on the lashes
B. flashes of light
C. red eye
D. swollen lid
History and Documentation 5%
B. flashes of light
Under what heading should the onset of current symptoms be recorded?
A. current medications
B. past history
C. physical signs
D. present illness
History and Documentation 5%
D. present illness
Which is the main reason for the patient’s visit to the ophthalmologist recorded?
A. chief complaint
B. family history
C. past medical history
D. past ocular history
History and Documentation 5%
A. chief complaint
Symptoms associated with a red, irritated, bloodshot eye are MOST likely due to
A. retinal detachment
B. cataracts
C. conjunctivitis
D. open-angle glaucoma
History and Documentation 5%
C. conjunctivitis
What is the term used to refer to symptoms due to uncorrected refractive error?
A. ametropia
B. asthenopia
C. esotropia
D. anisometropia
History and Documentation 5%
A. ametropia
What is an important question to ask a patient that complains of a “red-eye”?
A. do you have blurred vision?
B. do you see flashing lights?
C. do you wear glasses?
D. do you see floaters?
History and Documentation 5%
A. do you have blurred vision?
Which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence?
A. history
B. diagnosis
C. measurement
D. assessment
History and Documentation 5%
A. history
Which of the following conditions is NOT hereditary?
A. migraines
B. diabetes
C. nystagmus
D. conjunctivitis
History and Documentation 5%
D. conjunctivitis
History and Documentation 5%
What is a probable cause of blurred distance vision that is improved by squinting?
A. esotropia
B. glaucoma
C. uncorrected myopia
D. uncorrected presbyopia
Visual Assessment 6%
C. uncorrected myopia
Which of the following equivalences is correct?
A. 5/200 is equivalent to 20/400
B. 6/60 is equivalent to 3/120
C. 10/200 is equivalent to 20/100
D. 20/200 is equivalent to 10/100
Visual Assessment 6%
D. 20/200 is equivalent to 10/100
Which of the following is a measure of distance of visual acuity?
A. 20/20
B. 40 arc seconds
C. D-15
D. Jaeger 2
Visual Assessment 6%
A. 20/20
20/60 visual acuity means the patient sees a test object at
A. 6 meters that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet
B. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet
C. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 meters
D. 60 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 20 feet
Visual Assessment 6%
B. 20 feet that someone with 20/20 vision would see at 60 feet
An effective means of estimating visual acuity in infants would be to use…
A. an amblyoscope
B. preferential looking
C. prism bars
D. a Snellen chart
Visual Assessment 6%
B. preferential looking
In an industrial injury, in which the patient complains of a foreign body sensation, a 20/60 vision is recorded by the assistant. What is the next step the assistant should take?
A. instill a fluorescein dye
B. patch the eye
C. return the patient to the waiting room
D. try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve
Visual Assessment 6%
D. try a pinhole test to see if vision will improve
Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter useful in patients with
A. glaucoma
B. cataracts
C. optic neuritis
D. age-related macular degeneration
Visual Assessment 6%
B. cataracts
Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye?
A. 10-12
B. 14-16
C. 18-20
D. 22-24
Visual Assessment 6%
B. 14-16
If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with use of a(n)
A. placido disc
B. pinhole disc
C. occluder over non-dominant eye
D. occluder over dominant eye
Visual Assessment 6%
B. pinhole disc
What is the recommended distance used for assessing distance acuity?
A. 3’
B. 10’
C. 20’
D. 40’
Visual Assessment 6%
C. 20’
If a person is able to clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 80 feet by a person with no refractive error, their visual acuity is said to be
A. 20/20
B. 20/40
C. 20/60
D. 20/80
Visual Assessment 6%
D. 20/80
Which statement correctly refers to the letters on the Snellen chart?
A. because they subtend the same amount of arc, each letter is equally recognizable
B. even though they each subtend the same amount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others
C. different letters subtend different amounts of arc, yet each letter is equally recognizable
D. different letters subtend different amounts of arc, thus some letters are easier to recognize than others
Visual Assessment 6%
B. even though they each subtend the same amount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others
What is the central field of vision?
A. a 10 degree area of vision around the macula
B. a 25-30 degree area of vision around the blind spot
C. a 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point
D. the area where the visual fields of the two eyes overlap
Visual Field Testing 4%
C. a 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point
Which of the following is the BEST method for kinetic testing of the central visual field?
A. amsler grid
B. confrontation testing
C. harrington-Flocks screener
D. tangent screen
Visual Field Testing 4%
D. tangent screen
If a lesion is more anterior and is located toward one side, that may affect the junctional area involving the optic nerve of one eye and the inferior nasal fibers of the other eye. The eye on the side of the lesion will have what type of optic defect?
A. Bjerrum scotoma
B. central scotoma
C. centrocecal scotoma
D. pericentral scotoma
Visual Field Testing 4%
B. central scotoma
The autoplot tangent screen measures the
A. supra threshold kinetic field
B. supra threshold static field
C. threshold kinetic field
D. threshold static field of vision
Visual Field Testing 4%
A. supra threshold kinetic field
Visual field loss due to optic nerve cupping is related to which condition?
A. glaucoma
B. tropia
C. phoria
D. nystagmus
Visual Field Testing 4%
A. glaucoma
Which type of perimetry involves a moving target?
A. threshold
B. kinetic
C. static
D. automatic
Visual Field Testing 4%
B. kinetic
What is the term for an area of complete or parital blindness in an otherwise normail visual field?
A. Scotoma
B. Sunechiae
C. Stye
D. Stroma
Visual Field Testing 4%
A. Scotoma
Visual Field Testing 4%
Marcus-Gunn pupil
A. has diminished pupil reaction to light
B. is fixed and dilated
C. responds slowly to light
D. shows asymptomatic anisocoria
Pupil Assessment 3%
A. has diminished pupil reaction to light
When performing the swinging flashlight test on a patient with a relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil) in the left eye, the expected findings would be a(n)…
A. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS
B. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and hippus movement when the light “swings” to OS
C. constriction of the left pupil in bright light and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OD
D. initial dilation followed by constriction with direct light OD and total dilation OU when the light “swings” to OS
Pupil Assessment 3%
A. constriction of both pupils with direct light OD and dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS
Shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called
A. indirect light reflex
B. consensual light reflex
C. direct light reflex
D. near light reflex
Pupil Assessment 3%
C. direct light reflex
Consensual light reflex in the right eye results in
A. right pupil constriction
B. right pupil dialtion
C. left pupil constriction
D. left pupil dilation
Pupil Assessment 3%
A. right pupil constriction
What is the term for pupillary constriction?
A. mydriasis
B. miosis
C. cycloplegia
D. anisocoria
Pupil Assessment 3%
B. miosis
If the amount of light information transmitted from the brain to one eye differs from that of the other eye, the patient has a(n)
A. afferent pupillary defect
B. Adie’s pupil
C. tonic pupil
D. third nerve palsy
Pupil Assessment 3%
A. afferent pupillary defect
What is the MAIN advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer?
A. applanation is a more modern technique
B. applanation tonometry causes less patient discomfort
C. it is more accurate
D. the intraocular pressure change is larger as compared to indentation
Tonometry 4%
C. it is more accurate
In applanation tonometry, excessive width of the mires can indicate…
A. improper alignment of the prism
B. need for recalibration of instrument
C. too little fluorescein
D. too much fluorescein
Tonometry 4%
D. too much fluorescein
What drug is used during tonometry to anesthetize the eye?
A. proparacaine
B. paredrine
C. phenylephrine
D. tropicamide
Tonometry 4%
A. proparacaine
Killing of the HIV and other viruses on the applanation prism is BEST accomplished by soaking in…
A. diluted betadine
B. gentamicin solution
C. isopropyl alcohol
D. sodium hypochlorite (Chlorine Bleach)
Tonometry 4%
D. sodium hypochlorite (Chlorine Bleach)
Which of the following statements best describes the process used to check the accuracy of the Goldmann applanation tonometer?
A. It should be calibrated daily for reliable results
B. It can be performed in the office with a calibrating rod
C. It can only be handled at the factory or instrument repair shop
D. It is accomplished with a test sphere with a standard tension of 20 mm Hg
Tonometry 4%
B. It can be performed in the office with a calibrating rod
Checking the calibration monthly is sufficient
Which type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp?
A. applanation
B. indentation
C. Perkins
D. air puff
Tonometry 4%
A. applanation
The calibration of the Goldmann applanation tonometer should be checked at which settings?
A. 0, 1, 2
B. 0, 2, 4
C. 0, 2, 6
D. 0, 4, 8
Tonometry 4%
C. 0, 2, 6
What is the diameter of the plastic prism comprised of a flat surface within the applanation tonometer?
A. 1.5 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 6.0 mm
D. 7.0 mm
Tonometry 4%
B. 3.0 mm
What is the number of a target illuminator replacement bulb?
A. 12419
B. 19241
C. 11249
D. 14129
Tonometry 4%
A. 12419
What type of corneal astigmatism does a keratometry reading of 42.25/44.75 x 090 indicate?
A. None
B. Oblique
C. With-the-rule
D. Against-the-rule
Keratometry 2%
C. With-the-rule
ATR = Steeper @180 (bowtie)
WTR = Steeper @ 90 (tie)
The purpose of keratometry is to measure the
A. thickness of the corneal stroma
B. curvature of the anterior corneal surface
C. diameter of the horizontal cornea
D. diameter of the vertical cornea
Keratometry 2%
B. curvature of the anterior corneal surface
Which process is useful for measiring corneal astigmatism?
A. Lensometry
B. Keratometry
C. Tonometry
D. Biometry
Keratometry 2%
B. Keratometry
The results of keratometry can be expressed in
A. cubic mm
B. mmHg
C. centimeters
D. diopters
Keratometry 2%
D. diopters
What examination distinguishes a constant tropia from an intermittent tropia?
A. The alternating cover test with prism
B. The cover-uncover test
C. The Krimsky test
D. The Hirschberg test
Ocular Motility 4%
B. The cover-uncover test
What is the best way to perform the Worth 4-Dot test on a child?
A. Tell the child there are four lights and ask which colors they see
B. Tell the child to alternately close one eye and the other
C. Ask which color the child sees
D. Give the child the flashlight before they put the glasses on
Ocular Motility 4%
C. Ask which color the child sees
Evaluating the range and symmetry of motion of both eyes together is known as…
A. Ductions
B. Versions
C. Phorias
D. Tropias
Ocular Motility 4%
B. Versions
Stereoacuity testing is indicated if a patient has…
A. Retinitis
B. A phoria
C. A chalazion
D. Hyperplasia
Ocular Motility 4%
B. A phoria
Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria?
A. Worth 4-dot
B. Ishihara plates
C. Maddox rod
D. Marcus Gunn
Ocular Motility 4%
C. Maddox rod
Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex?
A. Hess
B. Worth 4-dat
C. Hirschberg
D. Krimsky
Ocular Motility 4%
D. Krimsky
How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ocular Motility 4%
C. 3
A patient’s prescription from a referring doctor is written in minus cylinder notation, while your ophthalmologist works in plus cylinder. Transpose the following prescription: +2.25-0.75x165, +3.75-1.25x003
A. +1.50+0.75x075, +2.50+1.25x093
B. +1.50+0.75x165, +2.50+1.25x003
C. +1.50-0.75x165, +2.50-1.25x003
D. -1.50+0.75x075, -3.75+1.25x093
Lensometry 3%
A. +1.50+0.75x075, +2.50+1.25x093
On the back of a frame are a few figures such as 46 X 22. What do these numbers represent?
A. Bridge and lens size
B. Pupillary distance and segment height
C. Lens and bridge size
D. Segment height and pupillary distance
Lensometry 3%
C. Lens and bridge size
The lens size is larger than bridge size
What is the ONLY accurate method for measuring pupillary distance?
A. Pupil gauge
B. Light reflex method
C. Ruler
D. Dark reflex method
Lensometry 3%
B. Light reflex method
A lens with the focal length of 2 meters has a power of
A. 0.50 D
B. 1.00 D
C. 2.00 D
D. 5.00 D
Lensometry 3%
A. 0.50 D
The stronger the lens, the shorter the focal length
D = 1/F (in meters)
D = 1/2
Ex: Focal length is 20 cm (1/5th of a meter or 0.20 meters)
D = 1/.20 = 5 D
What part of the spectacle frame connects the two lenses?
A. Temple
B. Cover
C. Rim
D. Bridge
Lensometry 3%
D. Bridge
The measurement used to determine the distance between the optical centers of spectacle lenses is the
A. pupillary distance
B. axial length
C. vertex distance
D. refractive error
Lensometry 3%
A. pupillary distance
Visual acuity of 6/12 is equivalent to
A. 20/20
B. 20/30
C. 20/40
D. 20/50
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
C. 20/40
What is the principle reason for the routine preference of subjective over objective refraction?
A. Automated retinoscopy systems make refraction efficient
B. Jackson’s cross cylinder is easy to use
C. Sphero-cylinder evaluation is easy
D. The patient’s preference is considered the process
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
D. The patient’s preference is considered the process
The fact that most glasses have a downward tilt to minimize oblique astigmatism is called…
A. Interpupillary distance
B. Pantoscopic tilt
C. Oblique astigmatism
D. Image displacement
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
B. Pantoscopic tilt (or angle)
What is the result of a loss of accommodation?
A. Myopia
B. Hyperopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Amblyopia
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
C. Presbyopia
What is the ocular structure with the greatest refractive power?
A. Cornea
B. Lens
C. Pupil
D. Retina
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
A. Cornea
What test illuminates the screen with a filter that is red on one side and green on the other?
A. Worth 4-dot
B. Ishihara
C. Duochrome
D. Maddox
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
C. Duochrome
The distance from the anterior surface of the eye to the back surface of the spectacle lens in the
A. base curve
B. pipillary distance
C. lens distance
D. vertex distance
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
D. vertex distance
Retinoscopy is an example of what type of refractometry?
A. Objective
D. Subjective
C. Immediate
D. Latent
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
A. Objective
What is the term for the “bending of light”?
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Emergence
D. Incidence
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
B. Refraction
The area between the two focal points of a spheroculindracial lens is call the Conoid of
A. Schlemm
B. Streit
C. Schiotz
D. Sturm
Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%
D. Sturm
Axial length is provided by which measurement?
A. Precorneal tear film to the posterior vitreous face
B. Anterior corneal surface to the macula
C. Anterior corneal surface to the optic disc
D. Anterior pole to the posterior pole
Biometry 3%
B. Anterior corneal surface to the macula
How are ultrasound biometric measurements obtained?
A. The anterior lens spike should be lower than posterior lens spike
B. The patient must have good vision
C. The probe should be aligned along the visual axis of the eye
D. The biometrist must press firmly on the globe
Biometry 3%
C. The probe should be aligned along the visual axis of the eye
What A-scan measurements is most important in determining intraocular lens (IOL) power?
A. Corneal curvature
B. Anterior chamber depth
C. Lens thickness
D. Axial length
Biometry 3%
D. Axial length
What is the most commonly used technique to perform a B-scan?
A. Slit lamp
B. Handheld probe
C. Computed Topography (CT)
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Biometry 3%
B. Handheld probe
Axial length measurements should be rechecked if there is a difference between the two eyes of more than
A. 0.1mm
B. 0.3mm
C. 1mm
D. 3mm
Biometry 3%
B. 0.3mm
0.3 mm is about ~1D worth of power, which is unusual between the eyes.
Schirmer testing is frequently used for a patient who is considering
A. new spectacles
B. cataract surgery
C. contact lenses
D. muscle recession
Supplemental Skills 3%
C. Contact lenses
Titmus testing evaluates stereopsis by assessing if certain portions of the images are
A. elevated
B. darker
C. clear
D. not visible
Supplemental Skills 3%
A. Elevated
What is the correct abbreviation used for the unit “gram”?
A. g
B. gt
C. gr
D. gm
Supplemental Skills 3%
A. g
The cones of the humans eye are sensitive to which colors?
A. Red, green, and blue
B. Green, blue, and yellow
C. Blue, yellow, and red
D. Red, green, and black
Supplemental Skills 3%
A. Red, green, and blue
How many layers comprise the tear layer?
A. 3 layers
B. 4 layers
C. 5 layers
D. 6 layers
Supplemental Skills 3%
A. 3 layers
Which of the following organisms is most likely to cause a dendritic corneal ulcer?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Microbiology 3%
B. Herpes simplex virus
What is the most prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
Microbiology 3%
B. Eosinophils
Which one of the following stains is useful for determining the inflammatory cellular response to a particular agent?
A. Giemsa’s
B. Gram’s
C. Sabouraud’s
D. Safranin
Microbiology 3%
A. Giemsa’s
What is a common medium used to culture microorganisms?
A. Plasma
B. Water
C. Agar
D. Stain
Microbiology 3%
C. Agar
Universal Precautions require that equipment or devices that only come in contact with a patient’s intact skin should undergo
A. sterilization before every use
B. daily sterilization
C. surface disinfection
D. cleaning with detergent
Microbiology 3%
D. cleaning with detergent
What is the term for the “degerming” of the hands?
A. Cleaning
B. Scrubbing
C. Sterilizing
D. Septicizing
Microbiology 3%
B. Scrubbing
What is an important factor in the delivery of eye medication?
A. Instilling extra drops of medication at the same time
B. Massaging the tear duct before using drops
C. The person who is administering the drops
D. Prolonging medication contact time with the eye
Pharmacology 3%
D. Prolonging medication contact time with the eye
Which of the following modes of drug delivery involves placing the drug directly on the surface of the eye?
A. Periocular
B. Sub-Tenon’s
C. Subcutaneous
D. Topical
Pharmacology 3%
D. Topical
Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing an allergic or bad reaction?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ampicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Tobramycin
Pharmacology 3%
B. Ampicillin
Which eye drop inactivates the sphincter muscle of the iris?
A. Cycloplegic
B. Anesthetic
C. Miotic
D. Mydriatic
Pharmacology 3%
A. Cycloplegic
A mydriatic eye drop activates the dilator muscle
What type of drug is used to treat actue allergic reactiong?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antivirals
C. Antihistamines
D. Antiparasitic
Pharmacology 3%
C. Antihistamines
What is a cycloplegic that is ideal for office use because it is relatively weak and is primarily used for its dilating ability?
A. Tropicamide
B. Phenylephrine
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Atropine
Pharmacology 3%
A. Tropicamide
What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?
A. Constriction of the pupil
B. Reduction of pressure in the aqueous veins
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
D. Increased rate of flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork
Pharmacology 3%
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
What cycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting effect?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Tropicamide
D. Cyclopentolate
Pharmacology 3%
B. Atropine Sulfate
Which is the most important instruction regarding the instillation of eye drops?
A. Lie down
B. Pull up the upper lid
C. Pull down the lower lid
D. Touch the tip of the bottle to the eyelid
Pharmacology 3%
C. Pull down the lower lid
How soon should aspirin and other blood thinners be discontinued prior to cataract surgery?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
Surgical Assisting 4%
A. 1 week
For which of the following in-office minor surgeries might an ophthalmologist ask that the operative site be prepped with topical 5% Povidone-iodine?
A. Chalazion excision
B. Corneal debridement
C. Foreign body removal
D. Canaliculus repair
Surgical Assisting 4%
A. Chalazion excision
The ophthalmologist asks for the room and equipment to be prepared for a patient who will undergo a minor surgical procedure. What may be the procedure that is going to be performed if electrolysis has been selected as the preferred treatment?
A. Trichiasis
B. Chalazion excision
C. Skin tumor removal
D. Conjunctival lesion removal
Surgical Assisting 4%
A. Trichiasis
An ophthalmologist asks you to educate a patient on cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation. Which of the following is correct?
A. A cataract is a film that grows over the eye
B. An implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens
C. A cataract results from increased intraocular pressure
D. An implant periodically needs to be removed and cleaned
Surgical Assisting 4%
B. An implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens
A granulated inflammation of the eyelid that may be removed surgically if it does not subside is a
A. xanthelasma.
B. pterygium.
C. stye.
D. chalazion.
Surgical Assisting 4%
D. chalazion
PRobing of the tear duct may be useful treatment for patients with
A. epiphora.
B. epicanthus.
C. exophoria.
D. episcleritis.
Surgical Assisting 4%
A. epiphora
Before sterilization, minor surgical instruments should be
A. soaked in instrument milk.
B. bleached.
C. dusted.
D. cleaned with soapy water.
Surgical Assisting 4%
D. cleaned with soapy water
Which instrument is used in chalazion surgery?
A. Clamp
B. Dilator
C. Forceps
D. Needle
Surgical Assisting 4%
Of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wavelength?
A. Argon
B. Excimer
C. Krypton
D. Carbon Dioxide
Surgical Assisting 4%
B. Excimer
The ophthalmologist is asked to discuss post-operative medications with a patient for whom they just inserted punctal plugs. What medication would likely be discussed?
A. Artificial tears
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Topical steroids drops
D. Topical antibiotic drops
Surgical Assisting 4%
A. Artificial tears
Skin preperation around the preoperative eye is performed using an alternative technique of cleansing with
A. soap and water.
B. antiseptic solution and rinsing with water.
C. water, then applying antiseptic solution.
D. water then drying with a sterile towel.
Surgical Assisting 4%
B. antiseptic solution and rinsing with water
The isolating eye drape is
A. applied tightly so it does not slip.
B. adhesive backed with precut apertures.
C. removed prior to surgery.
D. loose for easy removal.
Surgical Assisting 4%
B. adhesive backed with precut apertures
Which structure secretes aqueous fluid and serves as an attachment site for zonules?
A. Ciliary processes
B. Iris root
C. Lens capsule
D. Ora serrata
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Ciliary processes
A condition in which blood has settled in the bottom half of the anterior chamber of the eye is called a(n)
A. erythema
B. hematoma
C. hyphema
D. hypopyon
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. hyphema
A person with a fold of skin overlying the nasal area of the eye lids has
A. blepharochalasis
B. entropion
C. epicanthus
D. lagophthalmos
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. epicanthus
Aqueous humor drains out into the
A. Canal of Schlemm
B. ciliary body
C. iris
D. uveal tract
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Canal of Schlemm
A parent calls to say that his child has been hit in the eye with a rock from a sling shot. You advise the patient to
A. bring the child to the office immediately
B. give the child a mild analgesic for pain
C. patch the eye tightly to stop bleeding
D. pry the lids open to check the eye
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. bring the child to the office immediately
Inflammation of the tear sac associated with faulty tear drainage is
A. trichiasis
B. blepharitis
C. conjunctivitis
D. dacryocystitis
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
D. Dacryocystitis
A patient with severe seasonal allergic conjunctivitis relates that the primary care doctor will not prescribe medication for an allergy due to the patient’s glaucoma. The doctor’s concern is related to which type of glaucoma?
A. Angle closure
B. Open angle
C. Uveitic
D. Pigmentary
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Angle closure
Which patient symptoms would require the most immediate attention?
A. Double vision for less than a week
B. Lid swelling for less than 3 weeks
C. Blurred vision for more than a week
D. Progressive vision loss over the last 3 months
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Double vision for less than a week
Atropine is not used to dilate the pupil for routine examinations in adults chiefly because
A. it induces allergic sensitization
B. its effects do not last long enough
C. its effects last too long
D. it’s a poor mydriatic
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. its effects last too long
A firmly applied unilateral eye pad will
A. limit the movement in both eyes
B. limit the movement of the patched eye
C. limit the movement of the patched eyelid
D. reduce pressure on the globe
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. limit the movement of the patched eyelid
Which of the following is the most common complication of patching an eye?
A. Corneal abrasion
B. Elevated intraocular pressure
C. Dilation of the pupil
D. Tear flow reduction
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Corneal abrasion
In counseling a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following statements is accurate?
A. A cataract is a film that grows over the eye
B. A cataract need not be treated if vision is good
C. A cataract may grow back
D. A cataract must be “ripe” before it is removed
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
B. A cataract need not be treated if vision is good
In coulseling a patient about upcoming surgery, which of the following is best left for the surgeon to discuss?
A. Specific risks and outcomes of the procedure
B. What to expect during the procedure
C. Instructions for post operative care
D. Emergency contact information
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Specific risks and outcomes of the procedure
Which of the following symptoms is of most concern in the early postoperative course following cataract surgery?
A. Intense pain
B. Redness
C. Blurry vision
D. Tearing
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Intense pain
A patient who wears contact lenses has had a red eye for two days. How should this patient be triaged?
A. Schedule routinely within 1 month
B. Schedule at your office within 1 week
C. Send immediately to the nearest emergency room
D. Schedule at your clinic as an urgent add-on within 24 hours
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
D. Schedule at your clinic as an urgent add-on within 24 hours
Which of the following is a sign?
A. A black spot in the field of vision
B. Complaints of difficulty reading
C. Double vision
D. A shallow anterior chamber
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
D. A shallow anterior chamber
Which of the following has been designed to measure visual acuity by bypassing optical medical defects?
A. ETDRS acuity charts
B. Snellen charts
C. HOTV
D. Laser interferometry (LI)
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
D. Laser interferometry (LI)
LI is another way of checking visual potential like the PAM.
How is a properly applied eye dress secured?
A. Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of adhesive tape
B. Horizontal patallel strips of adhesive tape
C. Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
D. Strips of adhesive tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone
Which of the following is NOT normally considered in the differential diagnosis of an inflamed, red eye?
A. Acute conjunctivitis
B. Keratitis
C. Dacryocystitis
D. Acute iritis
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. Dacryocystitis
Which of the following organisms is likely to cause a corneal ulcer?
A. Adenovirus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. Herpes simplex virus
In which of the following ocular conditions is the direction of gaze a factor in intraocular pressure determination?
A. Chronic angle glaucoma
B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Iritis with secondary glaucoma
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
What eye disorder reveals a constricted pupil and keratic precipitates?
A. Iritis
B. Conjunctiva
C. Episcleritis
D. Keratoconus
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Iritis
The swelling of the optic disc with engorged blood vessels is known as
A. papilledema
B. endopthalmitis
C. optic nerve compression
D. anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. papilledema
Which organ is included in the cardiovascular system?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Brain
D. Kidneys
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Heart
A non-contact lens used to exam the macula is a
A. goniolens
B. Hruby lens
C. Koeppe lens
D. Maddox lens
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
B. Hruby lens
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause diplopia in a patient only when wearing spectacles?
A. High minus lenses
B. High plus lenses
C. Improper centering of the lenses
D. Large frames
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. Improper centering of the lenses
Which eye care professional specializes in fitting spectacles?
A. Orthopedist
B. Orthodontist
C. Orthoptist
D. Optician
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
D. Optician
Which eye care professional specializes in measurement of eye movemebt and the extraocular muscles?
A. Orthodontist
B. Orthoptist
C. Optician
D. Orthopedist
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
B. Orthoptist
If a patient must be kept waiting, convey
A. their appointment was never scheduled
B. they should not complain
C. how long the wait will be and unfortunately, schedules cannot always be controlled due to emergencies
D. they should read the pamphlets in the waiting room
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. how long the wait will be and unfortunately, schedules cannot always be controlled due to emergencies
What is a key factor affecting the overall rating of a practitioner?
A. Cost of Medicare coverage
B. Number of technicians in the office
C. Time spent in the waiting room
D. Size of the waiting area
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
C. Time spent in the waiting room
A patient has been hit in the eye with a raquetball and now sees flashes of light and cobwebs. You tell the patient
A. if the eye is not red or painful to schedule a routine appointment
B. to come into the office the same day
C. if symptoms persist for at least 24 hours, to come into the office
D. to patch both eyes and come into the office the next day
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
B. to come into the office the same day
Which of the following could cause a medical emergency?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Ocular hypertension
C. Ocular migraine
D. Open angle glaucoma
Ophthalmic Patient Services and Education 14%
A. Angle closure glaucoma
A patient has been diagnosed with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC). The most effective role you can take in preventing the spread of EKC is to
A. identify carriers of the disease
B. treat all those infected with sulfacetamide drops
C. wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments
D. wear disposable gloves when coming in contact with all patients
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. wash hands and disinfect all ophthalmic instruments
Which of the conditions listed below may be characterized by a white pupillary reflex in a pediatric patient?
A. Choroidal nevus
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Iris coloboma
D. Retinoblastoma
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. Retinoblastoma
Color deficient individuals can be
A. denied a driver’s license
B. aided through drug therapy
C. detected by visual field examination
D. disqualified from certain occupations
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. disqualified from certain occupations
The three color receptors found in cones are
A. blue, green, and yellow
B. red, green, and blue
C. red, green, and yellow
D. red, yellow, and blue
General Medical Knowledge 14%
B. Red, green, and blue
If an ophthalmologist states that a patient’s condition is “OU”, this means that the condition is present in
A. neither eye
B. the left eye
C. the right eye
D. both eyes
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. both eyes
Scattered light rays produce which visual phenomenon?
A. Diplopia
B. Photpsia
C. Glare
D. Metamorphosia
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. Glare
Color vision defects may be
A. refractive
B. subjective
C. congenital or acquired
D. more common in women
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. congenital or acquired
A latent deviation that can only be observed when binocular fusion is disrupted is called a(n)
A. tropia
B. hemianopia
C. phoria
D. ametropia
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. phoria
Axial length in IOL formulas refers to the distance from the
A. cornea to the iris
B. cornea to the lens
C. lens to the retina
D. cornea to the retina
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. cornea to the retina
The name of the oil-secreting glands found in the posterior margin of the eyelid is the
A. gland of Moll
B. gland of Wolfring
C. lacrimal gland
D. Meibomian gland
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. Meibomian gland
What is the name of the condition where both the globe and the ocular tissue are missing?
A. Anophthalmia
B. Aniscoria
C. Buphthalmos
D. Cytinosis
General Medical Knowledge 14%
A. Anophthalmia
Evisceration is the
A. surgical removal of the contents of the eyeball
B. abnormal turning of the eye outward
C. tendency of the eye to turn inward
D. turning outward of the eyelid
General Medical Knowledge 14%
A. surgical removal of the contents of the eyeball
Enucleation is the
A. inflammation of the ciliary body
B. complete or partial separation of the retina from the choroid
C. complete surgical removal of the globe
D. aberration of rays of light
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. complete surgical removal of the globe
What is the name of the condition where a fibrovascular growth forms from the conjunctiva to a portion of the cornea?
A. Pterygium
B. Pinguecula
C. Exteration
D. Entropion
General Medical Knowledge 14%
A. Pterygium
What is a symptom of hyperthyroidism?
A. Low voice
B. Dry skin
C. Weight gain
D. Shortness of breath
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. Shortness of breath
Almost all patients who enter the ophthalmologist’s office require a determination of what status regarding their eyes?
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Glaucoma
C. Refractive error
D. Strabismus
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. Refractive error
What is measured during Schirmer testing?
A. Tear production
B. Corneal thickness
C. Pupillary reflexes
D. Corneal curvature
General Medical Knowledge 14%
A. Tear production
The purpose of glare testing (BAT), is to determine if visual scuity varies with different
A. refractive errors
B. pinhole sizes
C. dark adaptations
D. lighting conditions
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. lighting conditions
What is the term for “eye up”?
A. Hypotropia
B. Esotropia
C. Hypertropia
D. Exotropia
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. Hypertropia
The denominator in the visual acuity recording of a low vision patient is
A. equal to the numerator
B. the same for both eyes
C. larger than for the patient with normal visual acuity
D. smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. larger than for the patient with normal visual acuity
What happens at the chiasmal junction?
A. All nerve fibers from the right eye cross to the left side of the brain and vice versa
B. Some of the nasal and some of the remporal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side
C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side
D. The temporal nerve fibers of each optic nerve cross over the oth other side
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side
Calibration of the applanation tonometer is checked by
A. a qualified service technician
B. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 2, and 6
C. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 3, and 5
D. having a second technician verify the IOP measurements on several patients to confirm tonometry accuracy
General Medical Knowledge 14%
B. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 2, and 6
Dioptric power of the cornea is determind by what type of reading?
A. Ultrasonography
B. Keratometry
C. Tonometry
D. Tomography
General Medical Knowledge 14%
B. Keratometry
What two items are used to clean the following lenses: retinoscopy, polarizing, red, and Maddox rod?
A. Lens cloth and canned air
B. Lens cloth and alcohol
C. Cotton tip swab and glass cleaner
D. Cotton tip swab and alcohol
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. Cotton tip swab and glass cleaner
What is the name of the visual receptors that process color?
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Ganglion
D. Bipolar
General Medical Knowledge 14%
B. Cones
What is the term for the condition where the crystalline lens of the eye or its capsule, or both, beceom opaque, with consequent loss of visual acuity?
A. Neuritis
B. Hyphemia
C. Angioma
D. Cataract
General Medical Knowledge 14%
D. Cataract
What is the term for the concentration of a chemical in a pharmaceutical solution?
A. Stability
B. Sterility
C. Tonicity
D. Toxicity
General Medical Knowledge 14%
C. Tonicity
What is a possible side effect of Ampicillin?
A. Anaphylactic reaction
B. Colitis
C. Kidney damage
D. Renal damage
General Medical Knowledge 14%
A. Anaphylactic reaction
The strength of the middle segment in a trifocal lens is
A. -1.00D weaker than the reading segment add
B. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add
C. difficult to measure
D. stronger in magnification than the reading segment add
Optics and Spectacles 2%
B. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add
Which of the following properly represents the steps used to convert a spherocylindrical lens into its spherical equivalent?
A. Divide the spherical power in half; then add the cylinder power
B. Add the spherical and cylinder power; then divide by 2
C. Divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power
D. Divide the cylinder power in half; then subtract the spherical power
Optics and Spectacles 2%
C. Divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power
What are the two types of bridges located on a spectacle frame?
A. Apex and saddle
B. Nose holder and apex
C. Keyhole and saddle
D. Triangle and circle
Optics and Spectacles 2%
C. Keyhole and saddle
Part of the rules for transposition is to change the axis of the cylinder by how many degrees?
A. 45
B. 90
C. 180
D. 270
Optics and Spectacles 2%
B. 90
Spectacle blur is unclear vision associated with
A. changing from an old spectacle prescription to a new one
B. changing from contacts to spectacles
C. changing from spectacles to contacts
D. spasm of accommodation
Contact Lenses 2%
B. changing from contacts to spectacles
Changing the base curve of a contact lens changes the fitting characteristics of that lens due to a change in sagittal depth. Increasing the base curve radius of a contact lens while maintaining the same diameter will cause the lens to fit…
A. Steeper and tighter
B. Flatter and looser
C. Higher and tighter
D. Lower and looser
Contact Lenses 2%
B. Flatter and looser
What is a contraindication to contact lens wear?
A. Seizure disorders
B. Strabismus as a child
C. High blood pressure
D. Cataracts
Contact Lenses 2%
A. Seizure disorders
Daily wear contact lenses should be removed each night or patients are at a greater risk of developing what condition?
A. Detached retina
B. Shallow anterior chamber
C. Corneal edema
D. Giant papillary conjunctivitis
Contact Lenses 2%
C. Corneal edema
Extended wear contact lenses are made of materials that allow greater permeability of
A. water
B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide
D. proteins
Contact Lenses 2%
B. oxygen
What ocular tissue does the A-scan spike labeled A and B represent?
A. Cornea
B. Lens
C. Retina
D. Sclera
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
B. Lens
Which ocular tissue produces A-scan spikes?
A. Cornea
B. Choroid
C. Optic disc
D. Vitreous
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
A. Cornea
Spikes: probe, ant and post cornea, ant and post lens, retina, & sclera
Advances in digital imaging technology facilitated the practical use of what type of dye?
A. Trypan blue
B. Rose bengal
C. Indocyanine green
D. Gentian violet
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
C. Indocyanine green
What is the condition where parallel rays of light come to focus at a point just in front of the retina with respect to the unaccommodated eye?
A. Myopia
B. Cycloplegia
C. Hyperopia
D. Hyperopia with astigmatism
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
A. Myopia
What is the purpose for dilating the eye?
A. Help increase aqueous outflow
B. Anesthetize the eye
C. Allow a more complete posterior segment exam
D. Stimulate accommodation
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
C. Allow a more complete posterior segment exam
Which type of imaging provides a cross-sectional view of the retina that is useful in evaluating glaucoma?
A. Optical Coherence Tomography
B. Indocyanine Green Photography
C. Wavefront analysis
D. Scanning laser interferometry
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
A. Optical Coherence Tomography
What imaging technique doe not provide a color-coded map?
A. Indocyanine Green (ICG)
B. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
C. Scanning Laser Polarimeter (GDx)
D. Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRT)
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
A. Indocyanine Green (ICG)
Which instrument is best suited to evlauate the refractive states of the eye?
A. Vertometer
B. Retinoscope
C. Pahcymeter
D. B-scan ultrasound
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
B. Retinoscope
In what phase is the “chorodial flush” seen?
A. Pre-arterial
B. Arterial
C. Arteriovenous
D. Recirculatory
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
A. Pre-arterial
A statement that describes the best use of A-scan ultrasonography would be to
A. detect a chorodial detachement
B. detect a retinal detachment
C. define the size and location of intraocular masses
D. depict a two-dimensional image of the orbit and globe
Ophthalmic Imaging 5%
C. define the size and location of intraocular masses
To photograph the posterior pole, the center of focus is
A. the macula
B. the optic disc
C. between the macula and the optic disc
D. between the optic disc and the nasal arcades
Photography and Videography 5%
C. between the macula and the optic disc
What is first seen (recorded) in fluorescein angiography?
A. Arterial phase
B. Capillary phase
C. Choroidal flush
D. Venous phase
Photography and Videography 5%
C. Choroidal flush
A fluorescein angiogram is used for which of the following?
A. Counting epithelial cells
B. Measuring the eye’s contrast sensitivity
C. Viewing detail, such as blockages in fundus blood vessels
D. Estimating the cornea’s ability to withstand stress of an operation
Photography and Videography 5%
C. Viewing detail, such as blockages in fundus blood vessels
The three principle types of ophthalmic imaging are
A. specular, pachymetry, and contrast sensitivity
B. external, slit lamp, and fundus
C. slit lamp, pachymetry, and ultrasonography
D. contrast sensitivity, viewing blockages, and viewing vessels
Photography and Videography 5%
B. external, slit lamp, and fundus
Retroillumination detects
A. opacities or defects in the iris
B. irregularities of the eyelids or eyelashes
C. the palperal conjunctiva or sclera
D. adverse corneal effects from CLS
Photography and Videography 5%
A. opacities or defects in the iris
Health care professionals who have open lesions, dermatitis, or other skin irritations should not participate in direct patient care activities or handle
A. contaminated equipment
B. gowns and masks
C. sealed instruments
D. disposable gloves
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2 %
A. contaminated equipment
Why should laminated acuity projector slides not be cleaned under running water?
A. Retained moisture might short out the projector
B. The letters, numerals, and/or characters will be washed off the slide
C. The specially heated glass of the projector slide will lose its heat-resistant properties
D. Water beads can pool between the two layers of glass
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2 %
D. Water beads can pool between the two layers of glass
How often are the forehead and cheek rests on the phoropter cleaned?
A. After each patient with liquid detergent
B. Periodically with a 1:10 dilution of liquid bleach
C. With an alcohol wipe after each patient
D. After each patient by a sterilization process only
Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2 %
C. With an alcohol wipe after each patient
Informed consent occurs
A. when the patient signs the consent form
B. when the patient acknowledges understanding of the treatment recommended
C. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat
D. when a reasonable patient verbally agrees to the recommended treatment
Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%
C. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat
The application of coding facilitates the processing of insurance claims. The assigned code, as it refers to procedures and services, must be supported by
A. all billing practices
B. the medical records
C. the policies and procedures manual
D. the length of time the appointment took
Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%
B. the medical records
Obtaining informed consent for a procedure
A. is having the patient sign the consent form
B. begins at the preoperative visit
C. is not needed if the procedure is medically necessary
D. is a process involving education of the patient
Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%
D. is a process involving education of the patient
What are the principles that dictate appropriate or inappropriate behaviors?
A. Ethics
B. Decency
C. Morality
D. Standards
Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%
A. Ethics
