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Certification Prep > COA > Flashcards

COA Flashcards

1
Q

Due to its shatter-resistant and light weight quality, what material is used in safety glasses?
A. chemically hardened lenses
B. CR39 plastic
C. polycarbonate plastic
D. polyurethane plastic

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. polycarbonate plastic

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2
Q

What is the location called where the nasal optic nerve fibers cross in the visual pathway?
A. lateral geniculate body
B. visual cortex
C. optic chiasm
D. optic tract

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. optic chiasm

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3
Q

When accompanying a patient with a physical disability you should
A. try to anticipate their needs and assume they need help
B. offer no help even if they are struggling to support their independence
C. ask if they want or need assistance first
D. require the patient use a wheelchair

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. ask if they want or need assistance first

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following surgical instruments is used to deliver liquids to the surgical site?
    A. forceps
    B. cautery
    C. cannula
    D. hemostat

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

C. cannula

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5
Q

What should you do if your doctor delegates a task to you that you are not comfortable with?
A. comply with the request
B. let the ophthalmologist know your concern
C. ignore the request and keep quiet
D. ask someone else to do it instead

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

B. let the ophthalmologist know your concern

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6
Q

The prescription of a lens is written in the following order
A. cylinder power, sphere power, axis
B. sphere power, axis, cylinder power
C. sphere power, cylinder power, axis
D. cylinder power, axis, sphere power

Lensometry 3%

A

C. sphere power, cylinder power, axis

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7
Q

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar is the culture medium of choice for infections caused by
A. a virus
B. bacteria
C. a fungus
D. Acanthamoeba

Microbiology 3%

A

C. a fungus

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8
Q

Wet retinoscopy is performed using which of the following eye drops?
A. lubricating eye drops
B. anesthetic eye drops
C. cycloplegic eye drops
D. antibiotic eye drops

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. cycloplegic eye drops

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9
Q

When a light is shined into a patient’s eye and the pupil of the other eye constricts; this is what type of reaction?
A. direct reaction
B. paradoxical reaction
C. confrontational reaction
D. consensual reaction

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

D. consensual reaction

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10
Q

The abbreviation “ung” stands for
A. once at bedtime
B. ointment
C. eye drop
D. four times a day

Pharmacology 3%

A

B. ointment

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11
Q

Circular optical elements should be cleaned with what type of motion?
A. up and down
B. side to side
C. spiral
D. does not matter

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

C. spiral

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12
Q

The outward deviation of the eye is called
A. exo deviation
B. eso deviation
C. hyper deviation
D. hypo deviation

Ocular Motility Testing 4%

A

A. exo deviation

eso is in, hyper is up, and hypo is down

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13
Q

What is the normal range of blood pressure?
A. 70/50 to 100/80 mmHg
B. 120/80 to 160/100 mmHg
C. 90/60 to 120/80 mmHg
D. 80/50 to 130/80 mmHg

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. 90/60 to 120/80 mmHg

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14
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Goldmann perimetry?
A. visual field testing by should be done in a brightly lit room
B. the patient should only have near correction when testing the central 30°
C. the machine should be calibrated once in a while for trouble shooting, but not daily
D. the target size and intensity of the stimulus is always kept constant

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

B. the patient should only have near correction when testing the central 30°

If the VF being tested is greater than 30°, near Rx should NOT be used

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15
Q

A lens can be read in plus or minus by
A. changing the axis 180°
B. changing the axis 90°
C. changing the axis 360°
D. changing the axis 45°

Lensometry 3%

A

B. changing the axis 90°

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16
Q

The fluid-filled space between the posterior cornea and the iris is called
A. anterior chamber
B. posterior chamber
C. anterior segment
D. anterior cavity

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. anterior chamber

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. thinner corneas cause increased IOP
B. thicker corneas cause increased IOP
C. thicker corneas cause decreased IOP
D. corneal thickness doesn’t affect IOP

Tonometry 4%

A

B. thicker corneas cause increased IOP

thinner than normal causes a false low IOP

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18
Q

The manual keratometer measures how much of the cornea?
A. the whole corneal curvature
B. approximately the central 3 mm
C. approximately the central 8 mm
D. only the peripheral cornea

Keratometry 2%

A

B. approximately the central 3 mm

AKA the central Cap of the cornea, topography measures the whole cornea

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19
Q

Amsler grids are used to test the central this many degrees of vision.
A. 60°
B. 50°
C. 30°
D. 20°

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

D. 20°

It measures 10° from the center to each side and up and down

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20
Q

Phacoemulsification uses which types of waves?
A. ultraviolet waves
B. infrared waves
C. radio waves
D. ultrasound waves

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

D. ultrasound waves

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21
Q

An ophthalmic assistant can do which of the following?
A. perform visual acuity assessments
B. treat diseases
C. diagnose diseases
D. perform surgical procedures

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

A. perform visual acuity assessments

Technicians are not providers and cannot give medical advice/procedures

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22
Q

The axial length is the difference between which two ocular structures?
A. anterior chamber and the retina
B. iris and the optic nerve
C. posterior cornea and the sclera
D. anterior cornea and the retina

Biometry 3%

A

D. anterior cornea and the retina

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23
Q

The peripheral vision of a normal person is
A. 60° temporal and inferior, 75° nasal, and 95° superior
B. 75° temporal, 95° nasal, and 60° inferior and superior
C. 95° temporal, 75° nasal, and 60° inferior and superior
D. 95° temporal, 75° inferior, and 60° nasal and superior

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

D. 95° temporal, 75° inferior, and 60° nasal and superior

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24
Q

Having a new lens in place of the lens you were born with is called
A. pseudophakic
B. aphakic
C. presbyopia
D. phakic

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. pseudophakic

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25
Q

What is the easiest method of determining the presence of strabismus in a patient at any age?
A. Krimsky test
B. cover testing
C. Hirschberg test
D. Worth 4-dot

Ocular Motility Testing 4%

A

C. Hirschberg test

AKA the light reflex test

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26
Q

What does it mean when a patient sees 20/60?
A. what the patient can see at 20 feet, a normal eye can see at 60 feet
B. what the patient can see at 60 feet, a normal eye can see at 60 feet
C. what the patient can see at 20 feet, a normal eye can see at 20 feet
D. what the patient can see at 60 feet, a normal eye can see at 20 feet

Visual Assessment 6%

A

A. what the patient can see at 20 feet, a normal eye can see at 60 feet

The numerator is always the distance the patient is away from chart

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27
Q

What is the focal length of a 4 D lens?
A. 33 cm or 0.33 m
B. 50 cm or 0.50 m
C. 100 cm or 1 m
D. 25 cm or 0.25 m

Optics and Spectacles 2%

A

D. 25 cm or 0.25 m

F=1/4

F=1/D (F is focal length in meters; D is dioptor power of lens)

The stronger the lens, the shorter the focal length

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28
Q

What is the term for an area of reduced sensitivity in the visual field?
A. scotoma
B. isopter
C. boundary
D. contour

Visual Field Testing 4%

A

A. scotoma

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29
Q

What body system is the eye a part of?
A. integumentary
B. lymphatic
C. nervous
D. cardiovascular

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. nervous

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30
Q

All of the following information should be collected from the patient while taking a history except
A. onset of problem
B. location of problem
C. duration of problem
D. desired medication for problem

History and Documentation 5%

A

D. desired medication for problem

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31
Q

Inadequate drying after the use or cleaning of stainless steel instruments commonly leads to
A. corrosion
B. non-sterility
C. purplish spots
D. water stains

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

A. corrosion

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32
Q

All of the statements can be used regarding a cataract except
A. it is a clouding of the eye’s natural lens
B. it can cause damage to the retina
C. can cause colors to appear dull
D. it is a natural aging process

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. it can cause damage to the retina

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33
Q

What is the term meaning unequal pupil size?
A. anisocoria
B. anisometropia
C. anisochromia
D. aniseikonia

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

A. anisocoria

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34
Q

What is used to measure the vertex distance of a pair of eyeglasses?
A. caliper
B. Geneva lens gauge
C. distometer
D. near card

Optics and Spectacles 2%

A

C. distometer

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35
Q

The average axial length of the eye is
A. 20-22 mm
B. 23-25 mm
C. 24-26 mm
D. 27-29 mm

Biometry 3%

A

B. 23-25 mm

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36
Q

What does a pinhole acuity test confirm?
A. the patient has a vitreous hemorrhage
B. the patient is legally blind
C. the patient is presbyopic
D. the patient has a refractive error

Visual Assessment 6%

A

D. the patient has a refractive error

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37
Q

Fundus photography can help the doctor diagnose all of the following except
A. drusen
B. neovascularization
C. cotton wool spots
D. thinning of the optic disc

Photography and Videography 5%

A

D. thinning of the optic disc

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38
Q

When performing a test on a patient it is important to
A. get the results by any means necessary
B. explain to the patient what they can expect and why the test is necessary
C. give the patient the results immediately after you complete the test
D. always hold the head still to get the results

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. explain to the patient what they can expect and why the test is necessary

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39
Q

Which of the following is false regarding convex lenses?
A. they cause magnification
B. the movement of the images are against movement of the lens
C. they are used in the treatment of hyperopia
D. they are used in the treatment of myopia

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

D. they are used in the treatment of myopia

False!

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40
Q

An example of a sign is
A. the patient says which part of the eye hurts
B. an elevated intraocular pressure reading
C. the patient complains of blurred vision
D. the patient complains of a pressure sensation behind the eyes

History and Documentation 5%

A

B. an elevated intraocular pressure reading

A sign is something the doctor sees/finds out during the exam

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41
Q

If a patient is suffering from monocular diplopia
A. they will always be myopic
B. covering one eye will resolve it
C. double vision will persist even with one eye closed
D. they will have better than 20/20 vision

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. double vision will persist even with one eye closed

42
Q

Alpha agonists combination drop lids are noted by which color?
A. light green
B. purple
C. yellow
D. dark blue

Pharmacology 3%

A

A. light green

43
Q

The main principle of ____________ is that only sterile surfaces may touch each other
A. universal precaution
B. the aseptic technique
C. personal protection
D. cleanliness

Surgical Assisting 4%

A

B. the aseptic technique

44
Q

When a patient brings in a form for a vision evaluation, you should
A. fill out the form completely and sign your signature
B. fill out the form completely and leave it for the doctor to sign
C. leave the form for the doctor to completely fill out and then sign
D. require the patient fill out the form themselves and have the doctor sign it

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. fill out the form completely and leave it for the doctor to sign

45
Q

What test is the most helpful in confirming the diagnosis of a full-thickness macular hole?
A. fundus photography
B. B-scan
C. OCT/HRT
D. A-scan

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

C. OCT/HRT

46
Q

The eye is a compound refractive system composed of
A. the lens and sclera
B. the cornea and the iris
C. the lens and the cornea
D. the cornea and retina

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

C. the lens and the cornea

47
Q

A new patient brings in an old glasses prescription written in minus cylinder. What is the prescription in plus cylinder?
-2.50 - 1.25 x 180
A. -2.50 + 1.25 x 090
B. -3.75 + 1.25 x 180
C. -2.50 + 3.75 x 090
D. -3.75 + 1.25 x 090

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. -3.75 + 1.25 x 090

48
Q

What combination of extraocular muscle actions occur when a patient looks left?
A. left LR contracts; right LR relaxes
B. left LR contracts; right LR contracts
C. left MR contracts; right LR relaxes
D. left MR relaxes; right MR relaxes

Ocular Motility Testing 4%

A

A. left LR contracts; right LR relaxes

Left LR and Right MR contract, while the Right LR and Left MR must relax

Sherrington’s Law

49
Q

To reduce systemic absorption of an eye drop, the patient should be instructed to
A. use only half the prescribed dose
B. avoid getting the eye drops on their fingers
C. blink rapidly after instilling the drops
D. put pressure over the punctum after instilling the eye drops

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. put pressure over the punctum after instilling the eye drops

50
Q

What is the end point of applanation tonometry?
A. when the outer ends of the mires meet
B. when the mires are on top of each other
C. when the inner ends of the mires meet
D. when the mires make a circle

Tonometry 4%

A

C. when the inner ends of the mires meet

51
Q

On which principle is the optotype used in Snellen’s vision chart based upon?
A. Each letter subtends an angle of 5 minutes of arc and each limb of the optotype subtends an angle of 1 minute of arc
B. Each letter subtends an angle of 1 minute of arc and each limb of the optotype subtends an angle of 5 seconds of arc
C. Each letter subtends an angle of 1 minute of arc and each limb of the optotype subtends an angle of 5 minutes of arc
D. Each letter subtends an angle of 5 seconds of arc and each limb of the optotype subtends an angle of 1 minute of arc

Visual Assessment 6%

A

A. Each letter subtends an angle of 5 minutes of arc and each limb of the optotype subtends an angle of 1 minute of arc

52
Q

There are generally three variables printed on a contact lens box; “Dia”, “BC”, and “D”. What does the “D” stand for?
A. distance of pupils
B. diopter power
C. Dk value (permeability)
D. differential

Contact Lenses 2%

A

B. diopter power

“Dia” is diameter and “BC” is base curve

53
Q

Which of the following steps does not apply to the process of applying a pressure patch?
A. the eye is anesthetized
B. two patches are used, one is folded
C. the pieces of tape are placed diagonally from the forehead to the cheek
D. the patient closes their eye

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. the eye is anesthetized

54
Q

What is enucleation?
A. removal of the entire contents of the eyeball, leaving the scleral shell
B. corneal transplant
C. removal of chalazions
D. removal of the entire eyeball leaving only the muscles and orbit intact

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. removal of the entire eyeball leaving only the muscles and orbit intact

Eviseration leaves the scleral shell & Exenteration removes eye & orbit

55
Q

Herpes zoster can occur in patients who have had
A. malaria
B. tetanus booster
C. tuberculosis
D. chicken pox

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. chicken pox

AKA Shingles

56
Q

The purpose of using scanning laser devices, i.e. OCT or HRT, to image and evaluate the retina is to
A. generate normative data
B. detect subtle changes in the retinal structure
C. detect subtle visual field defects
D. perform a cell count of the retina

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

B. detect subtle changes in the retinal structure

57
Q

Prism direction is indicated by
A. the rings in the reticle
B. the number of lines in the target
C. the position of the target
D. the position of the glasses on the stage

Lensometry 3%

A

C. the position of the target

58
Q

Using a single eye drop bottle for multiple patients increases the risk of
A. overdose
B. inactivation
C. allergic reactions
D. spreading infections

Microbiology 3%

A

D. spreading infections

59
Q

How does the flow of aqueous humor begin?
A. entering the anterior chamber
B. entering the posterior chamber from the ciliary body
C. flowing through the pupil
D. exiting through the trabecular meshwork

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. entering the posterior chamber from the ciliary body

then through pupil - AC - trabecular meshwork - canal of schlemm - veins

60
Q

The time required for dry spots to appear on the corneal surface after blinking is
A. tear drying time
B. tear break-up time
C. tear evaporation time
D. dry eyes

Supplemental Testing 3%

A

B. tear break-up time

61
Q

What is the wavelength of visible light?
A. 100 to 300 nanometers
B. 400 to 750 nanometers
C. 200 to 600 nanometers
D. 1000 to 1200 nanometers

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. 400 to 750 nanometers

red is shortest and violet is the longest

62
Q

When examining the pupils with a light, the patient should be instructed to not
A. open their eyes
B. look directly at the light
C. move their eyes
D. blink their eyes

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

B. look directly at the light

Pupils should ALWAYS be tested at distance. They constrict at near.

63
Q

It is best to check an amblyopic eye first because
A. the child will object to having the strong eye covered
B. the child will object to having the amblyopic eye covered
C. the child might memorize the chart if the strong eye is tested first
D. it is important to learn if the stronger eye has been patched

Visual Assessment 6%

A

C. the child might memorize the chart if the strong eye is tested first

64
Q

Which of the following is used to examine the circulation of the retina and choroid?
A. scanning laser test
B. fluorescein angiogram
C. fundus photography
D. corneal topography

Photography and Videography 5%

A

B. fluorescein angiogram

65
Q

What time of the day is the intraocular pressure highest?
A. morning
B. midday
C. afternoon
D. night

Tonometry 4%

A

A. morning

66
Q

When a medical error has been discovered, the best course of action is to
A. disclose the error to the patient affected
B. fix the error immediately when possible
C. determine how to reduce the risk factor of such and error from happening again
D. all of the above

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

D. all of the above

67
Q

An inflammation of the white part of the eye that can be very painful is
A. episcleritis
B. scleritis
C. uveitis
D. iritis

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. scleritis

68
Q

Which of the following microorganisms are responsible for epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC)?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Adenovirus
C. Treponema
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Microbiology 3%

A

B. Adenovirus

Same as the common cold and is highly contageous

AKA “Pink Eye”

69
Q

What does it mean when neither eye moves when the cover is removed during cover-uncover?
A. tropia
B. suppression
C. amblyopia
D. orthophoria

Ocular Motility Testing 4%

A

D. orthophoria

70
Q

In the medical field, the documented process through which a patient is educated and brought in to the decision-making process of what will or will not happen to them is called
A. informed consent
B. informed autonomy
C. a consent form
D. coercion

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. informed consent

71
Q

The normal thickness of the central cornea is
A. 0.56 mm
B. 0.47 mm
C. 0.61 mm
D. 1 mm

Supplemental Testing 3%

A

A. 0.56 mm

The center is ~550 microns, which is 1/2 a millimeter.

72
Q

Compared to other mydriatic agents, how to cycloplegic drops effect the eye?
A. dilates the pupil
B. constricts the pupil
C. paralyzes accommodation
D. numb the eye

Pharmacology 3%

A

C. paralyzes accommodation

“plegic” means to paralyze

73
Q

The condition of having no lens is called
A. astigmatism
B. aphakia
C. pseudophakia
D. ametropia

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

B. aphakia

74
Q

Why should a patient be told not to squint?
A. it will give a false low acuity
B. it will make the pupil enlarge
C. it will give a false high acuity
D. it will make the pupil smaller

Visual Assessment 6%

A

C. it will give a false high acuity

75
Q

Jaeger notation, the point system, and the Snellen M-unit are units of measure used in recording what type of visual acuity?
A. far
B. near
C. color vision
D. contrast sensitivity

Visual Assessment 6%

A

B. near

76
Q

After taking a fundus photo, the patient complains of seeing dark spots in their vision, this can be explained to them as
A. floaters
B. positive afterimages
C. negative afterimages
D. cataracts

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

C. negative afterimages

77
Q

Indocyanine green (ICG) angiography highlights details of what vascular system?
A. iris vasculature
B. optic nerve vasculature
C. choroidal vasculature
D. retinal vasculature

Photography and Videography 5%

A

C. choroidal vasculature

78
Q

A patient’s ocular history should include all of the following questions except
A. “Does the patient wear optical correction?”
B. “Has the patient had past eye problems?”
C. “What has been the frequency of change to the patient’s prescription?”
D. “Does the patient have diabetes?”

History and Documentation 5%

A

D. “Does the patient have diabetes?”

79
Q

Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is an indicator of damage to which structure?
A. lens
B. cornea
C. optic nerve
D. iris

Pupil Assessment 3%

A

C. optic nerve

We are checking to see if the nerves are receiving light equally

80
Q
  1. What type of lenses are used to correct for astigmatism?
    A. cylinder lenses
    B. prism lenses
    C. plus lenses
    D. minus lenses

Refraction, Retinoscopy, and Refinement 5%

A

A. cylinder lenses

81
Q

Retinal tears and detachments occur most often in those who are
A. hyperopic
B. myopic
C. presbyopic
D. diabetic

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

B. myopic

82
Q

Corneal topography uses Placido discs technology to map out the cornea which is useful in each of the following except
A. evaluation of corneal sensitivity
B. evaluation of corneal warpage
C. evaluation of corneal astigmatism
D. determine incision site for surgery

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

A. evaluation of corneal sensitivity

Except!

83
Q

Anterior chamber depth measures the distance between which two ocular structures?
A. outer surface of the cornea and lens
B. outer surface of the iris and lens
C. inner surface of the cornea and iris
D. inner surface of the cornea and lens

Supplemental Testing 3%

A

C. inner surface of the cornea and iris

84
Q

Diffuse slit-lamp illumination does what?
A. illuminates directly on the site of interest
B. illuminates the structure behind the site of interest
C. illuminates the entire area
D. illuminates the area across the surface of a structure

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

C. illuminates the entire area

85
Q

How often should an applanation tonometer be calibrated?
A. every week
B. every month
C. every 6 months
D. every year

Equipment Maintenance and Repair 2%

A

B. every month

A calibration bar is used to see how much the tip moves at 0, 20, and 60

86
Q

Amaurosis fugax (painless transient vision loss) is most likely due to
A. inflammation
B. cataracts
C. a bacterial infection
D. an ischemic event

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

D. an ischemic event

87
Q

Patients taking a diuretic might have which special need during the exam?
A. frequent trips to the bathroom
B. an increase in the amount of oxygen they are receiving
C. frequent stops to catch their breath
D. an early appointment because they tire easily

History and Documentation 5%

A

A. frequent trips to the bathroom

88
Q

In photography, what does exposure refers to?
A. the amount of the eye that is visible
B. all of light that hits the image sensor
C. the size of the photograph
D. the size of the aperture

Photography and Videography 5%

A

B. all of light that hits the image sensor

89
Q

Which corneal layer acts to limit corneal edema?
A. endothelium
B. stroma
C. Bowman’s layer
D. epithelium

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

A. endothelium

90
Q

Typically reading material given to a patient should be at what comprehension level?
A. grade 3-5
B. grade 4-6
C. grade 6-8
D. grade 10-12

Medical Ethics, Legal, and Regulatory Issues 4%

A

C. grade 6-8

Most people have completed school through these grade levels.

91
Q

A measurement error of 1 mm in the axial length of the eye can result in how much of an unwanted postoperative refractive error?
A. 3 D
B. 2 D
C. 1 D
D. no difference

Biometry 3%

A

A. 3 D

The measurements should always be redone to confirm the difference

92
Q

What is the definition of a chief complaint?
A. the condition causing the visual problem
B. the condition explaining the patient’s complaint
C. the reason causing the patient to seek care
D. a serious medical problem from the patient’s past medical history

History and Documentation 5%

A

C. the reason causing the patient to seek care

93
Q

When are rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lenses preferred over soft contact lenses?
A. in severe cases of dry eyes
B. in some cases of astigmatism
C. in cases of irregularly shaped corneas
D. all of the above

Contact Lenses 2%

A

D. all of the above

94
Q

Goniography is used to view what part of the eye?
A. the anterior segment
B. the posterior segment
C. the optic nerve
D. the eyelids

Photography and Videography 5%

A

A. the anterior segment

95
Q

Keratometry would be useful in evaluating all of the following except
A. keratoconus
B. preoperative cataract surgery
C. contact lens fitting
D. corneal ulcer

Keratometry 2%

A

D. corneal ulcer

Except!

96
Q
  1. The unit of measurement for IOP is
    A. gm/mm2
    B. mmHg
    C. a scale from 0 to 18
    D. lb/in2

Tonometry 4%

A

B. mmHg

97
Q

The B-scan is used to diagnose abnormalities in which of the following structure of the eye?
A. cornea
B. anterior chamber
C. posterior chamber
D. posterior segment

Ophthalmic Imaging 5%

A

D. posterior segment

There are 2 segments anterior and posterior

There are 2 chambers in the anterior segments, also called anterior and posterior

98
Q

A parent of a child who is being patched for amblyopia asks how will the patch help, how do you respond?
A. the strong eye is patched to force the weak eye to work
B. the patch prevents secondary infections
C. the weak eye is patched to relieve strain
D. the patch prevents the eyes from crossing

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

A. the strong eye is patched to force the weak eye to work

99
Q
  1. The condition in which there is a difference of >1 D in refractive error of the eyes is
    A. aphakia
    B. presbyopia
    C. anisometropia
    D. pseudophakia

General Medical Knowledge 14%

A

C. anisometropia

100
Q

BLS/CPR recreates the function of the
A. brain only
B. brain and heart
C. brain and lungs
D. lungs and heart

Patient Services and Education 14%

A

D. lungs and heart

Certification Prep (9 decks)

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