Corrections 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is balanitis xerotica obliterans?

A

The male equivalent to lichen sclerosis in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Complication of balanitis xerotica obliterans?

A

In an uncircumcised male, it can cause phimosis which is when the foreskin is too tight and can not be pulled back past the glans.

This is due to the scarring that occurs from BXO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bullous pemphigoid vs pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Mucosal involvement –> pemphigus vulgaris

No mucosal involvement –> bullous pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common cause of nappy rash?

A

Irritant dermatitis –> due to irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

a skin disorder of unknown aetiology, most probably being immune-mediated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Features of lichen planus?

A

1) itchy, papular rash most common on the palms, soles, genitalia and flexor surfaces of arms

2) rash often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white-lines’ pattern on the surface (Wickham’s striae)

3) Koebner phenomenon may be seen (new skin lesions appearing at the site of trauma)

4) oral involvement in around 50% of patients: typically a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa

5) nails: thinning of nail plate, longitudinal ridging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mainstay of treatment of lichen planus?

A

Topical potent steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can cause rusty-red pigmentation of the calves in venous insufficiency?

A

Haemosiderin deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in infants?

A

Face & trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in younger children?

A

Extensor surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in older children?

A

Flexor surfaces (typical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a strong risk factor for singles?

A

HIV & other immunosuppressive conditions (e.g. steroids, chemotherapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is shingles (AKA herpes zoster)?

A

An acute, unilateral, painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the most commonly affected dermatomes in shingles?

A

T1-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Features of shingles?

A

1) prodromal period
- burning over the affected dermatome
- pain
- fever, headache, lethargy

2) rash:
- initially erythematous, macular rash over the affected dermatome
- quickly becomes vesicular
- well demarcated by the dermatome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mx of shingles?

A

1) analgesia: paracetamol & NSAIDs

2) antivirals e.g. aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Wat is a key benefit of prescribing antivirals in shingles?

A

Reduced incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long are people with shingles infective?

A

they are infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, usually 5-7 days following onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common complication of shingles?

Who is this more common in?

A

Post herpetic neuralgia

More common in older patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

give 3 complications of shingles

A

1) post-herpetic neuralgia

2) herpes zoster ophthalmicus

3) herpes zoster oticus (Ramsay Hunt syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some exacerbating factors for psoriasis?

A

1) trauma

2) alcohol

3) drugs e.g. beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials, NSAIDs & ACEi

4) withdrawal of systemic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What infection may trigger guttate psoriasis?

A

Streptococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a herald patch?

A

Pityriasis rosea is a rash that often begins as an oval spot on the face, chest, abdomen or back.

This is called a herald patch and is specific to pityriasis rosea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is topical adapalene?

A

Topical retinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long a break in between topical steroid courses should you aim for in psoriasis?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1st line mx of scalp psoriasis?

A

NICE recommend the use of potent topical corticosteroids used once daily for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the rash typically seen in SLE

A

Livedo reticularis –> a purplish, non-blanching, reticulated rash caused by obstruction of the capillaries resulting in swollen venules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mx of eczema herpeticum?

A

IV antivirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?

A

A potentially life-threatening skin disorder that is most commonly seen secondary to a drug reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some drugs known to induce TEN?

A

phenytoin
sulphonamides
allopurinol
penicillins
carbamazepine
NSAIDs

31
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice to treat erythrasma?

A

Erythromycin

32
Q

Mx of erythema nodosum?

A

no active treatment, arrange routine follow-up.

33
Q

Mx of lichen planus?

A

Topical steroids e.g. clobetasone butyrate

34
Q

2nd line mx of plaque psoriasis that hasn’t responded to 8w of potent steroid OD & vitamin D analogue OD?

A

Vitamin D analogue twice daily (BD)

35
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing contact dermatitis (e.g. nickel allergy)?

A

Skin patch test

A positive reaction typically presents as redness and swelling at the site where the allergen was applied.

36
Q

Mx of SCC?

A

Surgical excision & biopsy

37
Q

What is erythema multiforme?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction that is most commonly triggered by infections.

38
Q

Features of erythema multiforme?

A
  • target lesions
  • initially seen on the back of the hands / feet before spreading to the torso
  • mildly itchy
39
Q

What is the most common cause of erythema multiforme?

A

HSV

40
Q

What drugs can cause erythema multiforme?

A

penicillin, sulphonamides, carbamazepine, allopurinol, NSAIDs, COCP, nevirapine

41
Q

What is erythema ab igne?

A

a skin disorder caused by over exposure to infrared radiation e.g. hot water bottles

42
Q

1st line mx of pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Oral steroids

43
Q

Mx of children with new onset purpura?

A

Refer immediately for investigations to exclude ALL and meningococcal disease

44
Q

How long a break between courses of topical corticosteroids in patients with psoriasis should you aim for?

A

4 weeks

45
Q

1st line mx for rosacea with severe papules and/or pustules?

A

Topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

46
Q

Mx of otitis externa?

A

Topical antibiotic + topical steroid (e.g. neomycin + dexamethasone ear spray)

47
Q

What is a strong risk factor for shingles?

A

HIV

48
Q

1st line mx of impacted ear wax?

A

1 week olive oil drops then review

49
Q

What is a branchial cyst?

A

typically a benign lesion that is situated in the lateral neck, superficial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

50
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

describes skin lesions that appear at the site of injury

51
Q

What conditions is the Koebner phenomenon seen in?

A
  • psoriasis
  • vitiligo
  • warts
  • lichen planus
  • lichen sclerosus
  • molluscum contagiosum
52
Q

Mx of perioral dermatitis?

A

Doxycycline

53
Q

What can be used on a long-term basis for mx of psoriasis?

A

Calcipotriol

54
Q

What is often the most effective treatment for prominent telangiectasia in rosacea?

A

Laser therapy

55
Q

Mx for chronic sinusitis?

A

Nasal irrigation with saline solution

56
Q

Sensitivity to which medication can be associated with nasal polyps?

A

Aspirin

57
Q

Mx of vitiligo?

A
  • sunblock for affected areas
  • camouflage make up
  • topical steroids
  • topical tacrolimus
  • phototherapy
58
Q

What can exacerbate plaque psoriasis?

A
  • trauma
  • alcohol
  • drugs: beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, infliximab
  • withdrawal of systemic steroids
59
Q

What can trigger guttate psoriasis?

A

Strep infection

60
Q

What condition features an itchy, papular rash with ‘white-lines’ pattern on the surface (Wickham’s striae)?

A

Lichen planus

61
Q

Features of lichen planus?

A

1) itchy, papular rash

2) rash often has ‘white-lines’ pattern on the surface (Wickham’s striae)

3) Koebner phenomenon may be seen

4) oral involvement in around 50% of patients: typically a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa

5) nails: thinning of nail plate, longitudinal ridging

62
Q

Typical location of rash in lichen planus?

A

palms, soles, genitalia and flexor surfaces of arms

63
Q

What is the mainstay of mx of lichen planus?

A

Potent topical steroids e.g. topical betamethasone

Oral –> benzydamine mouthwash or spray

64
Q

Mx of pityriasis versicolor?

A

Topical ketoconazole

65
Q

What is the most common side effect of isotretinoin?

A

Dry skin

66
Q

What is Curling’s ulcer?

A

Acute gastric ulcers that develop in response to severe physiological stress, such as burns.

67
Q

1sat line for hyperhidrosis?

A

aluminium chloride –> can be given in the form of roll-ons applied at nighttime

68
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

A premalignant condition which presents as white, hard spots on the mucous membranes of the mouth.

It is more common in smokers.

69
Q

Can ketoconazole cause gynaecomastia?

A

Yes

70
Q

Where are keloid scars most common?

A

Sternum

71
Q

Mx of epistaxis that has failed all emergency management?

A

Sphenopalatine ligation in theatre

72
Q

What is the cause of the majority of sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Idiopathic in nature

73
Q

Mx of a nasal septal haematoma?

A
  • surgical drainage
  • intravenous antibiotics

If not treated –> can result in ‘saddle-nose’ deformity

74
Q
A