Core Review GU Flashcards

1
Q

Male w/elevated PSA undergoes prostate MR for an observation in the TZ. Which sequence is important for determining the PI-RADS score for this?

A

T2

  • The dominant sequence for TZ interpretation is T2WI.
  • Key features for benignity: circumscribed margins & homogeneous hyper- or hypointensity to background parenchyma.
  • Malignancy: lenticular shape, non circumscribed margins, moderate hypointensity to background parenchyma & extracapsular extension.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Horseshoe kidneys:

  1. At what pole are they most often fused?
  2. Is the isthmic tissue usually functional or not?
  3. These pts are at risk of what kind of tumour?
A
  1. Lower pole.
  2. Usually functional, less often fibrous.
  3. Wilms, weirdly enough.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dx, renal xplant pt w/hematuria.

A

Iatrogenic injury, AVF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a big differentiator b/w RCC and TCC re: the renal vein.

A
  • RCC often invades the renal vein, and TCC rarely does.
  • Both have a propensity for nodal mets.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the big 3 tumours that cause IVC tumour thrombus?

A
  • RCC
  • HCC
  • primary adrenal carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • Which key imaging feature of a Gartner duct cyst distinguishes it from other cystic lesions in the female pelvis?
A
  • It is located in the anterolateral vaginal wall, above the public symphysis.
  • In contrast, Bartholin duct cysts are located in the posterior lateral inferior third of the vagina below the level of the pubic symphysis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the most common cause of this finding?

A
  • Dx: medullary nephrocalcinosis.
  • HyperPTH is the most common cause (40%).
  • Next most common is renal tubular acidosis type I - 20%.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DDx?

A

Dx: renal medullary nephrocalcinosis

HAMHOP:

HyperPTH: most common cause-40%

Acidosis: renal tubular-20%

Medullary sponge kidney

Hypercalcemia/hypercaliuria

Oxalosis

Papillary necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most sensitive US indicator of urinary calculi?

A

Twinkling artifact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prior to Bx of this lesion (an adrenal mass), which lab tests need to be performed?

A
  • Plasma free metanephrines & normetanephrines to see if it’s a pheo.
    • They have the highest sensitivity for pheo.
    • Pheo must be ruled out biochemically prior to an adrenal Bx b/c of the risk of fatal hypertensive crisis during a FNA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most important factor predicting malignancy within an intrascrotal mass?

A

Location in or outside the testicle.

  • A mass within the testicle is very likely cancer.
  • A mass outside the testicle is very unlikely to be cancer.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the Weigert-Meyer rule predict re: the upper pole moiety?

A

It will insert inferior and medial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common fluid collection seen in renal xplant recipients?

A

Lymphocele.

  • Typically occur 1-3 wks post-xplant.
  • They may contain septations, like this one.
    • Urinomas are way less common.
      • They are usually b/c of breakdown of ureter implantation into the bladder so are generally in close proximity to the bladder.
    • Hematomas are common in the early post-op period.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the stage of this cervical cancer?

A

Less than IIB

  • There is an intact low-signal intensity ring around the mass on T2W images, so there is no evidence of invasion through the endocervical stroma into the parametrium.
17
Q

4 types of urachal disorders?

A

Patent urachus: completely patent urachal tract.

Sinus: blind-ending tract from the umbilicus.

Diverticulum: blind-ending tract from the bladder.

Cyst: a cyst within the urachus that doesn’t connect to the umbilicus nor bladder.

18
Q
  • What is the management for a pt w/pyonephrosis 2dry to an obstructing stone?
A
  • Urgent drainage of the collecting system.
    • To evacuate infected uring & allow the Abx to penetrate the infected kidney.
    • Lack of decompression of the collecting system has been shown to be associated w/increased mortality.
  • Do not manipulate the obstructing calculus first as this can lead to life-threatening sepsis, so this is delayed until after Tx of the obstruction & infection.
19
Q

In prostate MR, what are specific signs of extracapsular disease?

A
  • Focal capsular bulge.
  • Loss of the rectoprostatic angle.
  • Soft tissue ingrowth into the neurovascular bundles.
  • Measurable extraprostatic extension.
20
Q

What is the likelihood of osseous mets in a pt w/prostate cancer with PSA <10mg/mL?

A

<1%

21
Q
  1. What is the most common hereditary renal cystic disease?
  2. What are these pts at increased risk for?
A
  1. ADPKD
  2. HTN
  • There is no increased risk for RCC unless they are undergoing prolonged dialysis.
22
Q

Dx, w/in 1 week of renal xplant?

  1. Name 2 other causes.
A

RV thrombosis: diastolic flow reversal w/in intrarenal arcuate arteries (confirmed if there is absent RV flow).

  1. ATN & acute rejection.
23
Q

What is the likelihood of malignant xformation of an adrenal myelolipoma?

A

0%!!!!

24
Q

Mnemonic for common causes of renal papillary necrosis:

A

NSAID:

NSAIDs

Sickle cell disease

Analgesic abuse

Infection: TB, fungal

DM

25
Q

The most common fungus to affect the urinary tract?

A

Candida albicans

26
Q

Typical US findings of acute, uncomplicated pyelo?

A
  • Mild enlargement.
  • Patchy, geographic areas of hyperechogenicity
  • Decreased corticomedullary differentiation
  • Decreased perfusion in the affected area
27
Q

Name the most common primary IVC tumour.

A

leiomyosarcoma

28
Q

Dx: 1mth old w/abnormal kidneys.

  1. What other structure/organ will be involved by this disease.
A

ARPCKD

  1. Liver: hepatic fibrosis.
29
Q
A
30
Q

What is the best MR sequence for estimating depth of endometrial cancer myometrial invasion?

A

Dynamic CE T1W GRE w/fat sat

31
Q
  1. In lithium nephropathy, what are the renal lesions?
  2. What modality can be best used to confirm this finding?
A
  1. Microcysts, 1-2mm
  2. MRI
  • They are in the medulla and cortex.
  • Assoc w/long-term lithium use.
32
Q

What 2 entities are most commonly associated w/spontaneous renal vein thrombosis in an otherwise healthy person?

A
  • RCC: usually tumour thrombus
  • Nephrotic syndrome: usually bland thrombus
33
Q

Name these spaces:

A

A: anterior pararenal space

B: Gerota’s fascia (anterior rental fascia)

C: Lateroconal fascia

D: perirenal space

E: posterior perirenal space

F: Zuckerkandl’s fascia

34
Q

How do stages IA & IB differ in endometrial cancer?

A

IA <50% myometrial invasion; IB >50% myometrial invasion.

35
Q

List the tenets for the Weigert-Meyer rule:

A

Upper moiety:

  • Inserts ectopically: inferomedial.
  • Obstructs.
  • May not contain functioning renal tissue.

Lower moiety: the drooping lily

  • Inserts orthotopically: at the expected anatomic location.
  • Refluxes.