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PDHPE > Core 2: Factors Affecting Performance > Flashcards

Core 2: Factors Affecting Performance Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of the alatacid energy system? (source of fuel, effeciency of ATP production, duration, cause of fatigue, by-products, process and rate of recovery)

A
  • Creatine Phosphate
  • Less than 1 ATP molecule
  • 5-10 seconds
  • Depletion of PC
  • No by-products
  • PC replenishment within 2-5 minutes
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2
Q

What are the features of the lactic acid energy system? (source of fuel, efficiency of ATP production, duration, cause of fatigue, by-products, process and rate of recovery)

A
  • Carbohydrate, glycogen
  • Approxiamtely 2 ATP molecules
  • 30-45 seconds
  • Increased accumulation of hydrogen ions
  • Lactic acid
  • Removal of latic acid with active recovery in 15-30mins
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3
Q

What are the features of the aerobic energy system? (source of fuel, effeciency of ATP production, duration, cause of fatigue, by-products, process and rate of recovery)

A
  • Carbohydrate, fats, protein (in that order)
  • 36 ATP molecules for glucose and 130 ATP molecules fir fats
  • Unlimited duration depending upon intensity
  • Depletion of fuel sources
  • Carbon dioxide, water
  • Resoration of glycogen- up to 48 hours
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4
Q

What is continuous training?

A

Training without rest for at least 20 minutes

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5
Q

What is fartlek training?

A

Continous exercise with sprints or a higher intensity effort (eg hill climb) interspred throughout the session engaging both the anaerobic and aerobic energy system

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6
Q

What is aerobic interval training?

A

The alternation repeitions of an exericse with short rest periods that don’t allow for full recovery and therefore mainatains stress on the aerobic system

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7
Q

What is circuit training?

A

Series of exercises that are performed one after the other with little or no rest in between each exercise. It is flexible and can focus on a range of training outcomes

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8
Q

What is plyometrics?

A

Exercises that produce an explosive muscular contraction in order to develop anaerobic power

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9
Q

What are the benefits of good flexibility?

A
  • Prevention of injury
  • Improved coordination
  • Muscular relaxation
  • Decreasing muscle soreness
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10
Q

What is static stretching?

A

The muscle is slowly and smoothly taken to the ends of its range of motion and held for approximately 30 seconds. Useful for rehabilitation, warm up and cool down

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11
Q

What is dynamic stretching?

A

A series of movements that replicate game movements and take the muscle through its full range of motion. Popular for warm-ups

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12
Q

What is ballistic stretching?

A

Involves a bouncing action at the end of the range of motion that activates the stretch reflex and takes the muscle beyond its preferred length. Thus it is only recommended for elite athletes

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13
Q

What is PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) stretching?

A

Lengthening a muscle against resistance, generally it involves a static stretch, followed by an isometric contraction and then a period of rest before being repeated. Used often in rehabilitation

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14
Q

What is progressive overload?

A

The progressive increase in training to maintain stress on the body to to allow for further adaptation. Overload can be achieved by increasing intensity, resistance, repetitions, duration, frequency etc

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15
Q

What is specificity?

A

Choosing exercises that meet the needs of the energy system, muscles and movement patterns required for the athlete’s sport

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16
Q

What is reversibility?

A

The lost of training adaptations once training ceases or drops below the current capacity of the athlete

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17
Q

What is the importance of variety?

A

Completing the same or similar activities can lead to boredom which in turn may result in a reduced training effort. Therefore it is important for training sessions to incorporate a range of training types, settings, activities and drills

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18
Q

What are training thresholds?

A
  • Training thresholds are the upper limit of a training zone and when passed take the athlete to a new level
  • The aerobic threshold is approximately 70% of max HR (aerobic training zone is above this threshold but below the anaerobic threshold)
  • The anaerobic threshold is approximately 85% of max HR and exercise beyond this point will see a marked increase of lactic acid build up and therefore fatigue
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19
Q

What the components of a good warm up?

A
  • Last at least 20 minutes
  • Incorporates a general warm up (aerobic activities and dynamic stretching) followed by a more specific warm up (activities relating to the sport)
  • Prepares the body physically and mentally for optimal performance
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20
Q

What are the aims of a cool down?

A
  • Return the body to a pre exercised state
  • Decrease blood lactate levels
  • Minimise muscle soreness
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21
Q

What is positive motivation?

A

The desire to be successful in a pursuit that will result in happiness, satisfaction and pleasure

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22
Q

What is negative motivation?

A

The desire to be successful with the aim of avoiding unpleasant consequences

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23
Q

What is intrinsic motivation?

A

Internal motivation emphasised by feelings of satisfaction and enjoyment and is usually self-sustaining and promotes longevity

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24
Q

What is extrinsic motivation?

A

Motivation that comes from external sources such as money, trophies and praise and tends to have an outcome orientation. It generally doesn’t promote longevity as it isn’t often sustainable

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25
Q

What is the difference between trait and state anxiety?

A
  • Anxiety is a negative emotional state that is a result of perceiving situations as threatening
  • State anxiety is the feelings of tension related to a specific event or moment in time
  • Trait anxiety is a behavioural or personality disposition to display anxiety and to perceive various situations
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26
Q

What is stress?

A
  • Stress is the imbalance between what is expected of a person and their perceived ability to meet those expectations
  • When there is a large imbalance then the person becomes stressed
  • There are many sources of stress including financial concerns, selection concerns, injury concerns, contract concerns, crowds, preparation and expectations
27
Q

What is optimal arousal?

A
  • Arousal is the physical and emotional response related to a specific moment or event
  • Arousal is important for successful sporting performance, however not all athletes or sport require the same level of arousal
  • Optimal arousal is the arousal level required for maximal performance
28
Q

Why should an athlete use concentration/attention skills (focusing)?

A
  • Shutting out distractions and irrelevant cues will assist the athlete to perform at a higher level
  • Distractions can include weather conditions, crowd noise, sledging, thoughts, emotions etc
  • Strategies for focusing or regaining focus include music, cues, set rountines, training for distraction etc.
29
Q

What is mental rehearsal/visualisation/imagery and its benefits?

A
  • Involves creating mental images or pictures of the upcoming event, action or skill and this allows the athlete to experience success prior to the actual event
  • It allows the athlete to feel confident and for negative situations overcome feelings of anxiety
  • Mental rehearsal needs to be realistic as possible for it to be effective
30
Q

Why should an athlete use relaxation techniques?

A
  • Over-aroused and anxious athletes benefit greatly from having a range of relaxation strategies available to them
  • It lowers breathing rates, heart rate, blood pressure and muscle tension leading to greater control and focus
  • Examples of relaxation techniques include music, massage, breathing exercises, yoga etc.
31
Q

What are the benefits of goal setting?

A
  • Setting long-term and short-term goals can assist an athlete greatly to remain focus
  • Short term goals should contribute to achieving long-term goals
  • Goal setting can incoporate the SMARTER framework
32
Q

What are the primary aims of good nutrition?

A
  • Adequate fuel reserves
  • Repair of damaged body tissues from training
  • Prevention of dehydration
  • Optimal functioning of all body systems e.g immune systems
33
Q

What are the nutritional considerations pre-performance (food)?

A
  • Endurance athletes should undergo carbohydrate loading 3-4 days leading up to competition where they should taper and eat small meals more often that consist of complex carbohydrates but low in fat and protein
  • The last significant meal should be eaten 4 hours before competition containing at least 100g of carbohydrates but low in fat, fibre and protein
  • A light meal can also be eaten 1-2 hours prior and should consist of some high GI carbohydrates
34
Q

What are the hydrational considerations pre-performance?

A
  • Athletes should over-compensate for their projected fluid needs, they should drink 2-3L per day leading up to the event
  • In the hours leading up to the event, 150mL should be consumed each hour
35
Q

What are the nutritional considerations during performance?

A
  • Continued hydration is the main priority where small amount of fluids should be consumed at all possible times, e.g. time-out
  • For endurance events lasting more than an hour, refuelling may also be necessary, this is best achieved by eating concentrated forms of glucose such as bananas, sports drinks etc.
36
Q

What are the nutritional considerations post-performance?

A
  • Restore glycogen levels- Initially eat a serve of high GI foods then 50-100 grams of complex carbohydrates every 1-2 hours afterwards until approximately 500 grams has been consumed
  • Repair damaged muscle tissue- At each serve of carbohydrates, an athlete should also consume 10-20 grams of protein, which is used to rebuild muscle tissue that has been used in the activity
  • Rehydration- Initially drink 500mL of water and then consume 1.5L of water for every 1kg of body weight loss through sweating
37
Q

When is the body most sensitive to protein absorption?

A

30 minutes before and after exercise

38
Q

What are the possible negative consequences of supplementation?

A
  • Developing a habitual over-reliance on artificial nutrients, at the expense of a healthy balanced diet
  • Possible side-effects which may actually decrease performance
  • Risk of overdosing on nutrients which the body will store as fats
  • Wasting time, money and effort on unproven products instead of investing it elsewhere where effective
  • Risk of inadvertent doping, through unclear labelling of a supposed performance-enhancing product
39
Q

What are the proposed benefits of caffeine supplementation?

A
  • Increased alertness
  • Decreased perception of fatigue
  • Mobilisation of fat cells leading to ‘glycogen sparing’
40
Q

What are the possible side effects of caffeine supplementation?

A
  • Elevated heart rate, over-arousal and uncontrolled muscle twitching leading to decreased fine motor control
  • Acts as a diuretic at high doses leading to dehydration
41
Q

What are examples of physiological recovery strategies?

A
  • Hydration (should start immediately and continue for 12-24 hours post exercise)
  • Nutrition (body is best able to effectively absorb nutrients in the first 2 hours after exercise, as the elevated metabolic processes and body systems increase the transport and sensitivity of the body ‘s cells to these nutrients)
  • Cool down (Assists in the removal of metabolic waste products such as lactic acid and reduces DOMS, cramps, muscle spasms)
  • Stretches (Allows the muscle to relax, return to normal length, restore a full range of motion and promotes realignment of muscle fibres)
42
Q

What are examples of neural recovery strategies?

A
  • Hydrotherapy (Immersion in water)
  • Massage (Assists in the continued release of tension in soft tissue, promotes flexibility and eliminates waste by-products)
43
Q

What are the different forms of hydrotherapy?

A
  • Cold water immersion may lead to reduced body temperature, decreased swelling and reduced perceptions of fatigue and pain
  • Hot water immersion increases blood flow and relaxes the body, but should only be used after rehydration and where there is no soft tissue damage
  • Contrast water therapy can be an effective way of achieving both validation and vasoconstriction
  • Another benefit of water is its buoyancy which allows the muscle to float to a degree which can alleviate the impact of a heavy training session or game
44
Q

What is an example of a tissue damage recovery strategy?

A

Cryotherapy which involves the use of ice or cold for recovery. It is very effective in reducing the blood flow to minor blood vessels and capillaries (vasoconstriction). As the body warms up, fresh blood flows again, helping eliminate wastes products and stimulating recovery

45
Q

What are examples of psychological recovery strategies?

A
  • Relaxation (Varies between individual athletes and can include mediation, controlled breathing etc.)
  • Sleep (Where most of the body and mind’s internal restoration and recovery occur)
46
Q

What is the cognitive skill stage characterised by?

A

The learner is beginning to understand the task requirements. The learner will make frequent and gross errors, as they are in the initial stages of developing the coordination of their body and the equipment

47
Q

What is the associative skill stage characterised by?

A

The learner needs to practice the skill until a correct motor pattern is established in the mind and body. The athlete can begin to recognise their own errors and develop a degree of intrinsic feedback and the athlete is more consistent in their execution, and errors are less frequent and gross.

48
Q

What is the autonomous stage characterised by?

A

The athlete is able to perform skills automatically, without an intentional thought about the task’s requirement. To an observer, the skill will look smooth, fluent and effortless. A coach is still required to provide training drills but the focus now is more on tactics and strategies. The athlete will mostly use intrinsic feedback to identify the cause of error which are now infrequent and less obvious`

49
Q

What are the characteristics of the learner?

A
  • Personality (Individual/team, response to criticism etc.)
  • Heredity (Body shape, gender, muscle fibre type)
  • Confidence
  • Prior Experience ( Motor patterns, tactics/strategies, skills, components of fitness)
  • Ability (Kinaesthetic sense, spatial awareness, coordination etc.)
50
Q

What is the difference between open and closed skills?

A
  • Closed skills are performed in an environment which is unchanging, stable and predictable
  • Open skills are performed in an environment which is changing, less stable and somewhat unpredictable
51
Q

What is the difference between gross and fine motor skills?

A
  • Gross motor skills require the use of large muscle groups to produce a less refined movement
  • Fine motor skills require the use of small muscle groups to produce a precise and accurate movement
52
Q

What is the difference between self-paced skills and externally paced skills?

A
  • Self-paced skills are performed when the athlete chooses to, such as when to bowl a cricket ball
  • Externally-paced skills are not at the discretion of the athlete, and they must perform the skill based on forces out of their control, such as hitting a baseball or being a goalkeeper save
53
Q

What is the difference between discrete, serial and continuous skills?

A
  • Discrete skills have a clearly defined beginning and end, such as a golf shot, a 100m sprint or a football pass
  • Serial skills are a combination of a range of discrete skills into one whole movement. Team sports require serial skills as an athlete is constantly using a variety of skills in competition
  • Continous skills have no clear beginning or end,and the point at which they start or end is at the discretion of the athlete
54
Q

What are the performance elements?

A
  • Decision Making (the ability to know what to do and when to do it based on external cures as well as a preconceived game plan)
  • Strategic and Tactical Development (Specific patterns of play enable success )
  • These skills can be developed using scenario based drills and modified games
55
Q

What is the difference between mass and distributed practice?

A
  • Mass practice is characterised by periods of continuous practice with short rest intervals. This is suitable for activities that are fun, of moderate intensity or for highly motivated athletes. Eg golf putting
  • Distributed practice is characterised by shorter periods of work with more regular periods of rest. This is suitable for monotonous or difficult activities, for high-intensity activities that cause excessive change or where the motivational level is low
56
Q

What is the difference between whole and part practice?

A
  • Whole practice involves practising the skill in its entirety. This suits advanced learners or skills that cannot be broken down into sub-components that can be practised in isolation eg archery
  • Part practice involves isolating the various sub-component, practising each and then combining them all together in a complete movement. This is suitable for very complex skills such as pole vault, or for beginners who are in the cognitive stage
57
Q

What are the different sources of feedback?

A
  • Intrinsic feedback which is received internally through the senses of the performer
  • Extrinsic feedback which is received from an external source such as a coach or video analysis
58
Q

What are the different timings of feedback?

A
  • Concurrent feedback is received during performance and is closely related to intrinsic feedback in that the athlete may be able to adjust the current movement as it is being executed
  • Delayed feedback is received the completion of the skill
59
Q

What are the different types of feedback?

A
  • Knowledge of results is information concerning the outcome or success of the skill, such as whether the ball was in or not. Can be used to analyse why the skill was successful or not
  • Knowledge of performance is information concerning the actual technique or patterns of play. This is used more by learners in the autonomous stage
60
Q

What are the characteristics of a skilled performer?

A
  • Kinaesthetic sense (athletes who have developed highly refined motor patterns perform skills consistently and effectively and can also ‘feel’ when performance goes wrong, therefore there is an ability to adjust movements mid-execution)
  • Anticipation (the ability to ‘read’ and interpret the game and respond accordingly)
  • Consistency
  • Technique
  • Mental approach (high levels of self-belief and confidence allowing them to perform under extreme pressure)
61
Q

What is the difference between objective and subjective performance measures?

A
  • Objective measurements are not based on human interpretation or analysis eg high jump
  • Subjective measurements rely on personal opinion and judgement e.g diving
62
Q

What is the difference between validity and reliability?

A
  • Validity refers to how well the assessment measures what it is suppose to measure
  • Reliability refers to the consistency of the test results regardless of who, where or when the test is administrated
63
Q

What is the difference between personal and prescribed judging criteria?

A
  • Personal judging criteria are the presuppositions brought to the performance by the judge and are very subjective
  • Prescribed judging criteria, on the other hand are established criteria created by a sporting body which are then used to appraise peformance

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