Conventionally Cultured Bacteria Flashcards

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0
Q

List 3 Major distinguishing features of Staphylococcus

A
  1. Gram +ve
  2. Cocci in clusters
  3. Catalase +ve
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1
Q

What were the two Gram +ve aerobic cocci groups covered in class?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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2
Q

What two Staphylococci species were presented?

A
  1. S. aureus

2. Coagulase negative Staphylococci (CNS)

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3
Q

What are two virulence factors of S. aureus?

A
  1. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin 1 (TSST-1)

2. Enterotoxins

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4
Q

What 7 clinical presentations is S. aureus associated with?

A
  1. SSTI
  2. Necrotizing fasciitis
  3. Osteomyelitis
  4. Endocarditis
  5. Toxic shock syndrome
  6. Cystic fibrosis pneumonia
  7. Diarrhea
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5
Q

Primary pathogenicity of CNS, such as S. epidermidis?

A

Biofilms

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6
Q

Clinical significance of CNS (2)

A
  1. Nosocomial bloodstream infections from IV catheters

2. Prosthetic material infections

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7
Q

3 major distinguishing features of Streptococcus species

A
  1. Gram +ve
  2. Cocci in pairs and chains
  3. Catalase -ve
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8
Q

List all Streptococcus species presented in class (5)

A
  1. Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)
  2. Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae)
  3. S. pneumoniae
  4. S. mitis
  5. Enterococci
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9
Q

What are the 2 B-hemolytic Strep species presented?

A
  1. GAS (S. pyogenes)

2. GBS (S. agalactiae)

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10
Q

What are the 2 a-hemolytic strep species that were presented?

A
  1. S. pneumoniae

2. S. mitis

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11
Q

What was the only non-hemolytic strep species presented?

A

Enterococci

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12
Q

Pathogenicity of GAS

A

Streptolysin O and S

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13
Q

Pathogenicity of GBS

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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14
Q

Pathogenicity of S. pneumoniae

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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15
Q

Pathogenicity of S. mitis

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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16
Q

Pathogenicity of enterococci

A

Surface adhesins

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17
Q

Diseases associated with GAS (4)

A
  1. Pharyngitis
  2. Necrotizing fasciitis
  3. Rheumatic fever
  4. Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (STSS)
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18
Q

Diseases associated with GBS (2)

A
  1. Early onset neonatal disease (pneumonia, sepsis)

2. Late onset neonatal disease (meningitis, sepsis)

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19
Q

Diseases associated with S. pneumoniae (4)

A
  1. Community acquired pneumonia
  2. Otitis media
  3. Conjunctivitis
  4. Meningitis
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20
Q

Diseases associated with S. mitis (2)

A
  1. Endocarditis

2. Bacteremia

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21
Q

Diseases associated with enterococci (3)

A
  1. UTI
  2. Endocarditis
  3. Nosocomial VRE
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22
Q

Aerobic Gram +ve bacilli groups presented (2)

A
  1. Corynebacterium

2. Listeria

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23
Q

Major features of Corynebacterium (4)

A
  1. Gram +ve
  2. Rods
  3. Non-branching
  4. Catalase +ve
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24
Q

2 examples of Corynebacterium

A
  1. C. diphtheriae

2. C. jeikeium

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25
Q

Pathogenicity and disease associated with C. diphtheriae

A
  1. Diphtheria toxin

2. Diphtheria

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26
Q

C. jeikeium has unknown pathogenicity, but causes this type of infection(s)

A

Foreign body infections

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27
Q

5 features of Listeria

A
  1. Gram +ve
  2. Single or short chain rods
  3. Non-branching
  4. Motile
  5. Catalase +ve
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28
Q

Pathogenicity of L. monocytogenes (1)

A
  1. Hemolysin
29
Q

6 problems caused by L. monocytogenes

A
  1. Gastroenteritis
  2. Meningitis
  3. Encephalitis
  4. Abortion
  5. Stillbirth
  6. Preterm labour
30
Q

Anaerobic Gram +ve cocci genus presented (1)

A

Peptostreptococcus

31
Q

3 features of Peptostreptococcus

A
  1. Elongated cocci
  2. Gram +ve
  3. Non-spore forming
32
Q

Pathogenicity of Peptostreptococcus is unknown, what is its clinical significance? (4)

A
  1. Cutaneous
  2. Respiratory
  3. Oral
  4. Female pelvic infections
    Often mixed infections
33
Q

Anaerobic Gram +ve bacilli (2 genus)

A
  1. Actinomyces

2. Clostridium

34
Q

2 features of Actinomyces

A
  1. Gram +ve

2. Branching, filamentous bacilli

35
Q

Actinomyces israelii has unknown pathogenicity and causes 2 things

A
  1. Cervicofacial infections

2. Pelvic infections (IUD)

36
Q

5 features of Clostridium spp.

A
  1. Gram +ve
  2. Box car rods = C. perfringens
  3. Straight rods = C. difficile, C. tetani
  4. Straight/curved rods = C. botulinum
  5. Spores
37
Q

4 Clostridium species

A
  1. C. tetani
  2. C. difficile
  3. C. perfringens
  4. C. botulinum
38
Q

2 toxins made by C. perfringens

A
  1. a - toxin

2. Enterotoxin

39
Q

3 diseases associated with C. perfringens

A
  1. Gas gangrene
  2. Bloody diarrhea
  3. Acute necrotizing GI infection
40
Q

2 toxins and disease caused by C. difficile

A
  1. Toxin A
  2. Toxin B
  3. Diarrhea
41
Q

2 genus of aerobic Gram -ve fermenters mentioned in class

A

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrio spp.

42
Q

The group Enterobacteriaceae includes the following 4 organisms

A
  1. E. coli
  2. Enterobacter
  3. Salmonella
  4. Proteus
43
Q

3 features of Enterobacteriaceae

A
  1. Gram -ve
  2. Rods
  3. Oxidase -ve
44
Q

Virulence factors of E. coli (4)

A
  1. Endotoxin
  2. Exotoxins
  3. Capsule
  4. Pili
45
Q

3 infections caused by E. coli

A
  1. Meningitis in newborns
  2. UTI
  3. GI infection
46
Q

3 pathogenic factors of Enterobacter spp.

A
  1. Exotoxins
  2. Endotoxins
  3. Capsules
47
Q

3 diseases associated with Enterobacter spp.

A
  1. UTI
  2. Nosocomial infections
  3. Blood infections
48
Q

Pathogenicity of Salmonella spp. (3)

A
  1. Adhesion proteins
  2. Survival in phagocytes
  3. Dissemination to other tissues
49
Q

2 common infections associated with Salmonella spp.

A
  1. GI infections

2. Bacteremia

50
Q

Pathogenicity of Proteus spp. (4)

A
  1. Exotoxins
  2. Endotoxins
  3. Capsules
  4. Adhesion proteins
51
Q

3 infections associated with Proteus spp.

A
  1. UTI
  2. Nosocomial infections
  3. Blood infections
52
Q

3 major features of Vibrio

A
  1. Gram -ve
  2. Rods
  3. Oxidase +ve
53
Q

Pathogenicity of V. cholerae (2)

A
  1. Somatic O antigens

2. Exotoxins

54
Q

Aerobic Gram -ve non-fermenters shown in class include these 2 groups

A
  1. Moraxella

2. Pseudomonas

55
Q

3 major features of Moraxella

A
  1. Gram -ve
  2. Diplococci
  3. Oxidase +ve
56
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis has which pathogenicity and causes what disease…

A
  1. Uncertain, but has cell envelope adhesion factors

2. Community acquired pneumonia

57
Q

Major features of Pseudomonas (5)

A
  1. Gram -ve
  2. Slender bacilli
  3. Oxidase +ve
  4. Metallic sheen
  5. Grape-like odor
58
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa has exotoxins and endotoxin - what infections is it associated with? (4)

A
  1. Otitis externa
  2. Pneumonia in cystic fibrosis
  3. Ventilator acquired pneumonia
  4. UTI
59
Q

Haemophilus and Neisseria belong to which category of pathogen we learned about?

A

Fastidious Gram -ve bacilli/cocci/coccobacilli

60
Q

4 features of Haemophilus spp.

A
  1. Gram -ve
  2. Coccobacilli or short rods
  3. Satellite
  4. Oxidase +ve
61
Q

2 virulence factors of Haemophilus influenzae

A
  1. Capsule

2. Outer membrane protein

62
Q

5 clinical presentations of H. influenzae infection

A
  1. Meningitis
  2. Epiglottitis
  3. Conjunctivitis
  4. Otitis media
  5. Pneumonia
63
Q

3 features of Neisseria spp.

A
  1. Gram -ve
  2. Diplococci
  3. Oxidase +ve
64
Q

Genus Neisseria includes these 2 species

A
  1. N. meningitidis

2. N. gonorrhea

65
Q

Pathogenicity of N. meningitidis (2)

A
  1. Capsule

2. Outer membrane protein

66
Q

Pathogenicity of N. gonorrhea (4)

A
  1. Pili
  2. Capsule
  3. Proteases
  4. Adherence proteins
67
Q

3 clinical presentations of N. gonorrhea

A
  1. Gonorrhea
  2. Pharyngitis
  3. Conjunctivitis
68
Q

Bacteroides is a “BLANK” Gram “BLANK”

A

Anaerobic, negative

69
Q

Pathogenicity of Bacteroides fragilis (3)

A
  1. Capsule
  2. Endotoxin
  3. Enzymes
70
Q

Clinical significance of Bacteroides fragilis (3)

A
  1. Abscesses throughout body
  2. Bacteremia
  3. Aspiration pneumonia
71
Q

“BLANK” is the only genus of aerobic gram -ve fermenters shown in class

A

Vibrio