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Winland Brown Review Book > Content 5 > Flashcards

Content 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for development of acquired thrombophilias in pregnancy

A

Immobilization, underlying malignancy, trauma, high estrogen levels, nephrotic syndrome, heart failure, A Fib, post op states, post partum states

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2
Q

When should infants be screened for anemia

A

At 9 months

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3
Q

Sexual transmission of HIV with antiretroviral therapy

A

Negligent

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4
Q

TRAM procedure for breast CA

A

Transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous

Performed immediately after removal of breast

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5
Q

Cause of thalassemia

A

Decreased synthesis of hemoglobin and malformation of red blood cells that increases their destruction

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6
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer

A

Smoking, high fat diet, 2+ alcoholic drinks per day, obesity, high socioeconomic status, breast trauma

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7
Q

Genotoxic carcinogens

A

Chemotherapy drugs

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8
Q

What disease is considered conclusive evidence of AIDS

A

Karposi sarcoma <60 years old

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9
Q

First line of therapy for HIV patient with oral candidiasis

A

Clotrimazole trcohes 5 times daily or nystatin 3-5x a day

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10
Q

3 most common signs/symptoms of primary HIV

A

Fever, fatigue, pharyngitis

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11
Q

3 risk factors for pancreatic cancer

A

smoking, diabetes, high fat diet

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12
Q

Primary reason for newborn screening for sickle cell disease

A

To allow for the prevention of septicemia with prophylactic medication (penicillin) and prompt clinical intervention for infection and future crises

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13
Q

Earlistes sign of oral and pharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma

A

Mucosal erythroplasia–red inflammatory lesions

–Leukoplakia is pre-malignant

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14
Q

How to prevent sickle cell crisis in infant

A

Prevent dehydration

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15
Q

A low platelet count may indicate

A

Hypersplenism or possible bone marrow failure

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16
Q

Most common type of invasive breast carcinoma

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

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17
Q

Breast cancer type that involves infiltration of the nipple; has itching or burning at the nipple

A

Pagets disease

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18
Q

Cancers that can be cured with chemotherapy alone

A

Testicular, ovarian, Hodgkins

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19
Q

Prophylaxis of PCP in an adult with HIV

A

Bactrim x 10 days

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20
Q

One pack of platelets can raise the platelet count by

A

5,000-8,000

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21
Q

Clients with sickle cell anemia should be given

A

Folic acid 1mg PO daily

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22
Q

Insidious onset with weakness, fatigue, massive lymphadenoapthy, pruritic vesicular skin lesions, anemia, thrombocytopenia

A

ALL

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23
Q

Most abundant Ig found in blood

A

IgG

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24
Q

Relationships between DM and CAD

A

Hyperinsulinemia causes a large number of vascular smooth muscle cells to be formed and deposited on the walls of vessels, causing buildup and eventual blockage

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25
Q

Why does polydipsia occur in diabetics

A

As a reslt of high serum glucose levels that have an osmotic effect on fluids, drawing fluids from the cells into the intravascular space and creating a dehydration

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26
Q

Rare adverse effect of metformin

A

Megaloblastic anemia due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12

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27
Q

What increases the sx of graves ophthamology

A

Smoking

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28
Q

Labs in cushings

A

High cortisol, high sodium, low potassium, low glucose, normal BUN

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29
Q

Common findings in elderly with hyperthyroid

A

A fib, depression, anorexia, weight loss

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30
Q

Possible causes of oligomenorrhea

A

Hypothyroidism, serum prolactinemia, pregnancy

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31
Q

Rapid acting insulin

A

LAG
Lispro
Aspart
Glulisine

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32
Q

Signs in hypoparathyroidism

A

Positive Chvosket’s sign, Postive trousseau’s sign, tetany, tingling of lips and hands, muscular cramps, low serum calcium level

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33
Q

Most ulcers on the feet begin at the site of

A

Callus

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34
Q

What medications may produce gynecomastia

A

Cimetidine, digoxin, spirinolactone, phenothiazines, anti TB agents

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35
Q

Myxedema

A

Abnormal deposits of mucin in the skin and other rissues; a dry, waxy type of swelling to the skin; nonpitting edema of pretibial and facial areas
Common in hypothyroidism

36
Q

Which diabetic agent is CI in patients with medullary thyroud cancer

A

Liraglutide (victoza)

37
Q

When are ACEI given to DM patients

A

When they have persistent albuminuria

38
Q

Which anti diabetic drugs have an increased risk of pancreatitis

A

DPP-4 inhibitors: gliptins

GLP1: -tide (injectable)

39
Q

Basal insulins

A

Glargine + Detemir

40
Q

What labs values are needed before initiating anithyroid drugs

A

WBC + LFT

41
Q

After a thyroidectomy, how often should you check TSH

A

Every year

42
Q

Ferriman-Gallwey scale is used to define

A

Hirsutism

43
Q

Tx of ophthalmology in graves

A

Oral and optic prednisone

44
Q

Most common autoimmune disease in the US

A

Graves

45
Q

Most common cause of chronic hypocalcemia

A

Hypoalbuminemia

46
Q

Tx of alcohol abuse

A

Naltraxone

Opioid anatagonist

47
Q

Tx enuperesis in children 6-12 years old

A

Imipramine

Desmopressin also used

48
Q

Severe SE of clozapine

A

Severe neurtropenia

49
Q

AIMS

A

Assesses for signs of tardive dyskinesia

50
Q

Best drug to treat opioid overuse disorder

A

Buprenorphine (suboxone)

51
Q

Kidney stone that is teardrop shaped and red-orange in color

A

Uric acid

52
Q

Kidney stone that is large dumbbell in shape and light in color

A

Calcium

53
Q

Kidney stone that is Flat or hexagonal in shape and radiopaque

A

Struvite stone

54
Q

Kidney stone that is lemon yellow and sparkling

A

Cystine

55
Q

Lithonephrotomy

A

Incision of the kidney to remove the calculi

56
Q

Lithotomy

A

Incision of the bladder or ureter to remove the calculi

57
Q

Which medications reduce the production of aquous humor for tx of glaucoma

A

Beta blockers, carbonic anyhydrase inhibitors, alpha agonists

Other meds: cholinergic agents constrict the pupils to open the angle and allow humor to escape, prostaglandin analogs decrease the IOP by increased outflow drainage, immunomodulators increase tear production

58
Q

Primary cutaneous T cell lymphoma

A

Well defined, erythematous, irregular, and scaly with slight pigmentation

59
Q

Most common pathogen for PID

A

Chlamydia

60
Q

moderate hypothermia

A

Temp between 82.4-89.6; hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, junctional bradycardia

61
Q

Pain in hip area and groin area with movement; externally rotated and shortened left leg

A

Proximal fracture of femur

62
Q

Suture removal guidelines

A 
Face: 4-6 days
Trunk: 7-10 days
Scalp: 6-10 days 
Arms/legs: 10-14 days 
Joints: 14 days
63
Q

How many colds/year does average adult have

A

2-4

64
Q

If diarrhea lasts >7 days, suspect

A

Parasitic infection

65
Q

Nursing home medicare law

A

Patients must be provided care under supervision of a physician

66
Q

Reportable diseases to the health department

A

TB , syphilis, hepatitis

67
Q

Maximum number of teaching points you should aim to make in 1 teaching session

A

3-4

68
Q

Health care delivery service with greatest freedom of choice

A

Fee for service plan

69
Q

Best way to monitor compliance to medication

A

Ask the client

70
Q

Centrifugal venous return radiating outward from the umbilicus is due to

A

Portal hypertension

71
Q

Narrowing or blocked vessels in the eye, bulging vessels, hemorrhage

A

Diabetic retinopathy

72
Q

Arteriole narrowing, AV nicking, hemorrhages, exudates, papilledema

A

hypertensive retinopathy

73
Q

Most common sx of toxoplasmosis

A

Headache

74
Q

Stasis dermatitis with edema and brown discoloration is seen with

A

Venous insufficiency

75
Q

Predominant organism in bartholin gland cyst

A

Gonoccous

76
Q

WHen should microalbumin be checked

A

Anually after patient has had diabetes for 5 years

77
Q

Bullous myringitis

A

Middle ear infection with oozing blisters on TM

78
Q

How much iron do menstruating women lose

A

2mg per day

79
Q

Cancer that begins in cartilage around bones

A

Chondrosarcoma

80
Q

How much iron is lost during pregnancy

A

500-1000mg

81
Q

Peak onset for IBD

A

15-30 years

Same for men as women

82
Q

Specificity vs sensitivity

A

Specificity: true negatives
Sensitivity: true positives

83
Q

Buergers disease

A

Recurring, progressive inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries and veins of the hands and feet

84
Q

Liver flap

A

Tremor of the hand associated with various ecephalopathies

85
Q

Prostatodynia

A

Noninfective prostate disorder

Pelvic pain, irritative voiding, abnormal flow

86
Q

Atrial gallop

A

S4

Due to hypertrophic ventricle

87
Q

What position gives the most accurate fundal height

A

Supine and legs straight

Winland Brown Review Book (5 decks)

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