Contemporary issues

Question 1

global concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

Answer 1

crossed 415 parts per million (ppm) mark fr the first time in recordings of Mauna Loa observatory

Question 2

Mauna Loa observatory

Answer 2

is the oldest continuous carbon dioxide (CO2) measurement station in the world situated in Hawaii.

• The observatory is part of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) - Earth System Research Laboratory (ESRL) - Global Monitoring Division (GMD).

Question 3

Keeling Curve?

Answer 3

Keeling Curve is a graph of the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere based on continuous measurements taken at the Mauna Loa Observatory

Question 4

T/F: According to IPCC SR 1.5°C, to avoid or limit any overshoot of the 1.5°C temperature goal, CO2 emissions will need to be phased out almost entirely by 2050

Answer 4

T

Question 5

BIO JET FUEL?

Answer 5

1. Recently, a Russian-origin AN-32 transport plane was formally fleet certified by DRDO to fly with the 10 per cent bio-jet blended ATF made from Jatropha oil.
2. India’s first biofuel-powered flight was successfully tested between Dehradun to Delhi in August 2018 by Spicejet Airlines to ascertain the feasibility of biofuel powered flights.
3. While developed countries like Canada, Australia and US have already conducted these test flights, India would be the first developing nation to experiment that.
4. The indigenous bio-jet fuel was first produced by the CSIR, and Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun in 2013.
5. Bio-jet fuel making involves a hydrocracking process (two-stage process that combines catalytic cracking and hydrogenation) with non-precious metal based catalyst developed inhouse at CSIR-IIP Dehradun
6. Bio-Fuel will be produced only from non-edible oils that grow well in arid lands, in states like Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana, Chattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Telangana.
7. this bio-fuel would be produced from Tree Borne Oils (TBOs) sourced from tribal areas and farmers, augmenting their income substantially
8. Green Aviation biojet-fuels contribute around 80% reduction in the carbon footprint of the aviation industry and are a potential offset for CO2 emissions in the aviation industry.

Question 6

Jatropha?

Answer 6

Jatropha is a plant of Latin American origin, which is now widespread throughout arid and semi-arid tropical regions of the world.

• It is a drought resistant perennial plant living up to 75 years.
• Jatropha seeds contain about 35% non-edible oil.
• Jatropha oil can be used directly in diesel engines, added to diesel fuel as an extender or Trans-esterifies to a bio-diesel fuel.
• Jatropha seed cake makes an excellent organic fertilizer with a high nitrogen content. It can also be used as a livestock feed.
• It is also used as an insecticide and fungicide.

Question 7

CORSIA?

Answer 7

1. Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation
2. CORSIA is the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) resolution for a global marketbased measure to address CO2 emissions from international aviation from 2021 to 2035.
3. Recently, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) issued draft guidelines for aeroplane operators flying on international routes for implementation of CORSIA
4. All civilian international operations undertaken by operators are covered by CORSIA with exceptions for humanitarian, medical and fire-fighting flights.

Question 8

Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures?

Answer 8

1. established by the Financial Stability Board in 2015 to develop a set of voluntary, consistent disclosure recommendations for use by companies in providing information to investors, lenders and insurance underwriters about their climate-related financial risks.
2. published its recommendations in June 2017
3. Following this, 20 institutional investors from 11 countries called as Investor Pilot Group, convened by the U.N. Environment Finance Initiative (UNEP FI) came up with a report titled, ‘Changing Course- a comprehensive investor guide to scenario-based methods for climate risk assessment that helps investors understand how to calculate the risk companies face from climate change.
   
   • report has noted that it is important to consider climate change in strategic decisions due to the longer time horizons of their asset and liability management, as well as their exposure to equity and unsecured debt.

Question 9

U.N. Environment Finance Initiative (UNEP FI)?

Answer 9

1. It is a partnership between UN Environment and the global financial sector created in the wake of the 1992 Earth Summit with a mission to promote sustainable finance
2. UNEP FI consists of 215 members from financial institutions, banks, investors and insurance companies among others.
3. UNEP FI hosts its Global Roundtable every other year and has done so since 1994.
4. UNEP Statement of Commitment by Financial Institutions on Sustainable Development represents the backbone of the Initiative.
5. It is also a founding member of
   
   1. the UN Sustainable Stock Exchanges (SSE) initiative along with
   2. the Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI),
   3. the UNCTAD, and
   4. the UN Global Compact.

Question 10

Saffir-Simpson scale?

Answer 10

1. Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is a 1 to 5 rating based on a hurricane’s sustained wind speed.
2. This scale estimates potential property damage.
3. Hurricanes reaching Category 3 and higher are considered major hurricanes because of their potential for significant loss of life and damage.
4. eg. Cyclone Fani was Category 4

Question 11

Cyclone Fani?

Answer 11

hit Odisha coast

Uniqueness:

1. Place of origin: The in situ cyclonic systems in the BoB usually originate around latitude 10°, in line with Chennai or Thiruvananthapuram. Fani, on the other hand, originated quite close to the Equator, around latitude 2°, well below the Sri Lankan landmass.
2. Lifespan: Tropical cyclones over the Bay of Bengal have a lifespan of four-seven days, whereas Fani traveled longer which allowed it to gather a lot of moisture and momentum, resulting in strong winds.
3. Fani was initially headed north-westwards, towards the Tamil Nadu coast but changed its course midway and moved northeast away from the coastline to reach Odisha. The recurve it has taken gave it more time over the sea and has ensured that it has gathered unusual strength.
4. Strength: Most cyclones that generate exclusively in the BoB become relatively weaker by the time they reach the Indian landmass. Cyclone Fani made a landfall in Odisha with wind speeds of more than 170 km/h.
5. Timing: It started developing in April, a month that has historically seen very few cyclones of extremely severe category. According to the IMD, in the past 126 years (1891-2017) only 14 severe tropical cyclones have formed in April over the Bay of Bengal. Out of those, only one storm crossed the Indian mainland

Question 12

T/F: Cyclones emerging in April-May usually are much stronger than those during October-December.

Answer 12

F

weaker

Question 13

more cyclones are generated in the Bay of Bengal and cyclones here have also been more severe than the one generated over the Arabian Sea. Why?

Answer 13

1. The Bay of Bengal receives higher rainfall and constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. This means that the Bay’s surface water keeps getting refreshed, making it impossible for the warm water to mix with the cooler water below, making it ideal for a depression.
2. On the other hand, the Arabian Sea receives stronger winds that help dissipate the heat, and the lack of constant fresh water supply helps the warm water mix with the cool water, reducing the temperature.

Question 14

Naming of cyclone in Indian Ocean?

Answer 14

1. World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) and the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) started the tropical cyclone naming system in 2000.
2. Eight north Indian Ocean countries — Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand, gave eight names each which was combined into a list of 64 names.

Question 15

Global Assessment Report?

Answer 15

by UN Office fr Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR)

Findings:

1. Threat to Asia-Pacific: Asia Pacific region accounts for 40% of the global economic losses due to extreme climate changes, with the greatest impact in the largest economies of Japan, China, Korea and India.
2. Miniscule Investment: About $5.2 billion was spent on reducing disaster risk between 2005 and 2017, representing just 3.8% of total humanitarian spending
3. Economic losses to the extent of 4% of GDP annually are projected if countries don’t invest in DRR.
4. Regional Variation: Human losses and asset losses relative to GDP tend to be higher in the countries with the least capacity to prepare, finance and respond to disasters and climate change
5. Increasing Social Divide: Disasters may exacerbate conflict by placing additional stressors on fatigued governance systems and fuelling existing divides
6. Spiral Effect: There is a high potential for one type of disaster to produce or exacerbate another
7. Displacement of People: About 265 million people have been displaced by disasters since 2008, which is more than three times as many as those forced from their homes by conflicts and violence

Question 16

United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR)?

Answer 16

1. UNDRR was established in 1999, as part of the United Nations Secretariat.
2. It serves as the focal point for the coordination of disaster reduction and to ensure synergies among the disaster reduction activities of the United Nations system and regional organizations and activities in socio-economic and humanitarian fields.
3. It supports the implementation, follow-up and review of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction: To reduce disaster deaths economic losses and strengthen risk governance by building resilience and investing in early warning system.
4. The GAR (GLobal assessment report) is published biennially by the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR)

Question 17

Sasakawa Award?

Answer 17

1. UNDRR confers this award during sessions of Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDRR)
2. GPDRR is a biennial multi-stakeholder forum established by the UN General Assembly to review progress, share knowledge and discuss the latest developments and trends in reducing disaster risk.
3. United Nations Sasakawa Award is the most prestigious international award in the area of Disaster Risk Management.
4. during 6th session of GPDRR, Sasakama award was awarded to Dr. Pramod Kmar Mishra

Question 18

Anthropocene Epoch?

Answer 18

1. Anthropocene Working Group (AWG) has voted in favour of designating a new geological epoch; finally to be decided by International Commission on Stratigraphy, which oversees the official geologic time chart. signals the end of the Holocene epoch, which began 12,000 to 11,600 years ago.
2. term ‘Anthropocene’ was coined in 2000 by Nobel Laureate Paul Crutzen and Eugene Stoermer
3. phenomena associated with the Anthropocene include:
   
   1. Rising global temperatures, sea levels,
   2. depleting ozone layer
   3. acidifying oceans
   4. an order-of-magnitude increase in erosion and sediment transport associated with urbanisation and agriculture
   5. marked and abrupt anthropogenic perturbations of the cycles of elements such as carbon
   6. proliferation and global dispersion of many new ‘minerals’ and ‘rocks’ including concrete, fly ash and plastics, and the myriad ‘technofossils’ produced from these and other materials
4. focus is now on identifying a definitive geologic marker or golden spike (technically called Global boundary Stratotype Section and Point) to signal the beginning of the Anthropocene Epoch. The golden spike must be present globally and should be a part of deposits for geological record.
5. According to experts, the new epoch should begin about 1950 and was likely to be defined by the radioactive elements dispersed across the planet by nuclear bomb tests, although an array of other signals, including plastic pollution, soot from power stations, concrete, and even the bones left by the global proliferation of the domestic chicken were now under consideration.

Question 19

Basel Convention ?

Answer 19

1. on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Waste and their Disposal
2. adopted in 1989 and entered into force on 5 May 1992
3. created to address concerns over the management, disposal, and transboundary movement of the estimated 400 million tonnes of hazardous wastes that are produced worldwide each year
4. key principles: hazardous wastes should be:
   
   1. reduced to a minimum;
   2. minimized at the source;
   3. managed in an environmentally sound manner; and
   4. treated and disposed of as close as possible to their source of generation.
5. scope:
   
   1. ‘hazardous wastes’ defined based on their origin and/or composition and their characterestics; in Annex I of the convention; these are subject to control procedures of the convention
   2. ‘other wastes’: household wastes and incinerator ash; Annex II; require special consideration
   3. includes waste slike Biomedical wastes, used oils, used lead acid batteries, POPs wastes, PCBs etc.
   4. does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste
6. 186 states and the European Union are parties to the Convention. Haiti and the USA have signed the Convention but not ratified it
7. incidents that led to it: Khian sea waste disposal incident; 1988 Koko case; these cases deemed as ‘Toxic colonialism’
8. The 1995 Basel Ban Amendment, a global waste dumping prohibition, has become an international law after Croatia (97th country to ratify) ratified it on September 6, 2019. (refer Sept week2)

Question 20

Rotterdam Convention?

Answer 20

1. on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure (PIC) for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
2. adopted in September 1998 and entered into force on 24 February 2004
3. jointly administered by FAO and UNEP
4. creates legally-binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.
5. obj:
   
   1. environmentally sound use of those hazardous chemicals
   2. facilitating information exchange about their characteristics
   3. roviding for a national decision-making process on their import and export
   4. disseminating these decisions to parties.
   5. calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans
   6. Signatory nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty, and exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply.
6. annex III chemicals: those that are banned or severely restricted fr health or env reasons by two or more parties and which COP has decided to subject to PIC procedures; includes 32 pesticides and 11 industrial chemicals

Question 21

Stockholm Convention?

Answer 21

1. on POPs (Persistent Organic POllutants); POPs become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have harmful impacts
2. adopted in May 2001 and entered into force on 17 May 2004
3. India had ratified the Stockholm Convention on January 13, 2006 as per Article 25(4), which enabled it to keep itself in a default “opt-out” position such that amendments in various Annexes of the convention cannot be enforced on it unless an instrument of ratification/ acceptance/ approval or accession is explicitly deposited with UN depositary.
4. It calls for international action on three categories of POPs: pesticides (like DDT; Endosulfan was added later), industrial chemicals, and unintentionally produced POPs
5. Key provisions:
   
   • Elimination (POPs in annex A);
   • Restriction (POPs in annex B) &
   • Reduction or elimination (unintentionally produced POPs in annex C)
6. It requires parties to prevent the development of new POPs and promote best available techniques (BAT) and best environmental practices (BEP) for replacing existing POPs
7. It initially addressed 12 substances (known as “the dirty dozen”), but now 30 chemicals of global concern are listed under it, including Dicofol and PFOA.
8. Is it legally binding?
   Yes. Article 16 of the Convention requires that effectiveness of the measures adopted by the Convention is evaluated in regular intervals.
9. Other Conventions dealing with POPs:
   Convention on Long-Range Transboundary Air Pollutants (LRTAP), Protocol on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
10. Recent developments:
    
    1. The Union Cabinet, in 2021, approved the Ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). These are:
11. Chlordecone.
    2. Hexabromobiphenyl.
    3. Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Heptabromodiphenylether.
    4. Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether.
    5. Pentachlorobenzene.
    6. Hexabromocyclododecane.
    7. Hexachlorobutadiene.
    
    2. The Cabinet has also delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to the Union Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations.
    3. Benefits for India:
       The ratification process would enable India to access Global Environment Facility (GEF) financial resources in updating the National Implementation Plan (NIP).

Question 22

COP meeting in Geneva?

Answer 22

COP meet of Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm conventions occur jointly

This yr (2019) at Geneva: Basel-COP 14; rotterdam- COP 9 and Stockholm- COP 9

Question 23

COP meeting in geneva: decisions under Basel convention?

Answer 23

1. Adoption of an amendment to include unsorted, mixed and contaminated plastic waste under PIC and improve the regulation of its transboundary movement
2. The legally binding framework for reducing plastic waste means countries will have to monitor and track thousands of types of plastic waste outside their borders
3. It would also empower developing countries to refuse plastic waste dumping. Even though the U.S. and a few others have not signed the accord, they cannot ship plastic waste to countries that are on board with the deal.
4. Partnership on Plastic Waste was also established to mobilise business, government, academic etc. assist in implementing the new measures, to provide a set of practical supports
5. It also adopted technical guidelines on environmentally sound management (ESM) of electrical and electronic wastes (e-wastes).

Question 24

COP meeting in geneva: decisions under Rotterdam convention?

Answer 24

1. Establishment of a compliance mechanism to assist Parties to identify and address gaps in complying with the Convention, with the aim of ensuring that governments have the information they need about hazardous chemicals to assess the risks and take informed decisions when importing chemicals.
2. Two chemicals, the pesticide phorate and the industrial chemical hexabromocyclododecane were added to Annex III of the convention, making them subject to the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) Procedure, through which countries can decide on future imports of these chemicals.

Question 25

COP meeting in geneva: decisions under Stockholm convention?

Answer 25

1. Listing for elimination of dicofol and perfluorooctanoic acid (PFOA), its salts, and PFOA-related compounds under Annex A of the Convention, which obliges Parties to eliminate these chemicals from use.
2. Dicofol is used as a miticide (kill mites) on a variety of field crops, fruits, vegetables, ornamentals and tea and coffee and is known to cause skin irritation and hyperstimulation of nerve transmissions in humans as well as being highly toxic to fish, aquatic invertebrates, algae and birds.
3. PFOA is a widely-used industrial chemical used in the production of non-stick cookware and food processing equipment, as well as a surfactant in textiles, carpets, paper, paints and fire-fighting foams. As a substance of very high concern, it is known to be linked to major health problems including kidney cancer, testicular cancer, thyroid disease and hypertension in pregnancy.

Question 26

Orangutan?

Answer 26

1. Recently, India’s only orangutan died in Odisha’s Nandankanan Zoological Park.
2. She was brought from Singapore to Pune’s Rajiv Gandhi Zoological Park and later shifted to Odisha.
3. Orangutans are one of the world’s three surviving species of great apes and are native to Indonesia and Malaysia.
4. Considered to be among the most intelligent primates, they use a variety of sophisticated tools and construct elaborate sleeping nests each night from branches and foliage and also play a vital role in seed dispersal in their habitats.
5. Threats: Habitat loss, Human-Animal Conflict, Illegal wild life trade etc.
6. IUCN: Critically endangered
7. CITES Appendix I

Question 27

PURPLE FROG?

Answer 27

1. aka Nasikabatrachus sahyadrensis
2. could soon be designated as Kerala’s state amphibian.
3. endemic to WG
4. can be called as a ‘living fossil’ as its evolutionary roots suggest it could have shared space with dinosaurs almost 70 million years ago.
5. It is also known as the ‘Maveli’ frog/pig-nosed frog, and spends most of its time under the soil, emerging for a few days each year at the start of the monsoons to breed.
6. Unlike other frogs, it has a peculiar set of limbs and a pointy nose to survive underground.
7. IUCN: Endangered
8. EDGE (Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered) list: Ranked third in the list of threatened amphibians.

Question 28

EDGE?

Answer 28

The EDGE of Existence programme is the only global conservation initiative to focus specifically on threatened species that represent a significant amount of unique evolutionary history.
• It was launched in 2007 by Zoological Society of London.
• The aim of the EDGE programme is to ensure that local stakeholders, government, in country and international conservation agencies take ownership for future survival of species.
• EDGE species are usually extremely distinct in the way they look, live and behave as well as in their genetic make-up. If they disappear, there will be nothing like them left on the planet.
• Ranking of Edge is based on the score calculated by combining the ED (Evolutionary Distinctiveness: Representing the unique evolutionary history survival in the species) and GE/IUCN Score (How close the species become extinct)

Question 29

CHINKARA WILDLIFE SANCTUARY?

Answer 29

1. Karnataka’s State Board for Wild Life has notified Bukkapatna Chinkara Wildlife sanctuary in Tamakuru District
2. This will be the southernmost tip of the distribution range of Chinkara in India.
3. The first wildlife sanctuary for chinkaras was established at Yadahalli in Bagalkot district (Karnataka).
4. Karnataka is home to 3 species out of the 6 species of antelopes in India including black bucks, four-horned antelope and Chinkaras.
5. Bukkapatna forest area is perhaps the only documented place in Karnataka for all the three antelope species.
6. Chinkara gazelles survives in the dry habitats and does not require much water for their survival. They get their moisture from dew, eating vegetation, fruits and other similar sources.

Question 30

Chinkara: IUCN status and threats?

Answer 30

IUCN Status: Least concern
• Threats-
o Residentials & commercial development
o Agriculture & aquaculture: livestock farming and ranching
o Biological resource use: hunting and trapping terrestrial animals

Question 31

ITERATIVE EVOLUTION?

Answer 31

• Recently, White-throated Rail bird showed the phenomenon of Iterative evolution which means that the repeated evolution of similar or parallel structures from the same ancestor but at different times.

• White Throated Rail has a flightless subspecies called Aldabra Rail that inhabits Aldabra. From Fossil records we know that white throated rail had another flightless subspecies on Aldabra, that went extinct when the island went underwater due to rising sea level in Pleistocene. Apparently when, the atoll resurfaced the white throated rail again lived there and evolved into the current Aldabra rail, that is anatomically very similar to the extinct sub-species. Thus, the evolution into this flightless sub-species was repeated, hence called iterative evolution.
  • Presently it is the only flightless bird known in the Indian Ocean area, indigenous to Madagascar and migrating to Aldabra (Seychelles).

Question 32

NOT ALL ANIMALS MIGRATE BY CHOICE CAMPAIGN?

Answer 32

UN Environment India and Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) of India launched an awareness campaign ‘Not all animals migrate by choice’ to be displayed at major airports across the country.

aims at creating awareness and garnering public support for the protection and conservation of wildlife, prevention of smuggling and reduction in demand for wildlife products

first phase of the campaign will focus on Tiger, Pangolin, Star Tortoise and Tokay Gecko.

campaign also complements worldwide action on illegal trade in wildlife through UN Environment’s global campaign, Wild for Life

Question 33

Wildlife Crime Control Bureau?

Answer 33

1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change to combat organized wildlife crime in the country and was constituted in 2007 by amending the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
2. It is mandated to collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
3. It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.

Question 34

CLIMATE EMERGENCY?

Answer 34

• UK has become the first national government to declare an Environmental and climate emergency.
• The step followed 11 days of street protests in London by the Extinction Rebellion environmental campaign group.
• While there is no precise definition of climate emergency, this move will put the climate and the environment at the very centre of all government policy, rather than being on the fringe of political decisions.
• The UK is legally committed to an 80% reduction in carbon emissions by 2050 (relative to their 1990 levels) and was recently recognised as one of just 18 developed economies that have driven down carbon dioxide emissions over the last decade.
• Ireland became the second country to declare climate emergency.
• The development came after a Fianna Fáil amendment to the Oireachtas report on Climate Action was accepted by both the Government and Opposition parties without a vote.

Question 35

ROOM OF THE RIVER PROJECT?

Answer 35

1. One of the flagship projects of the Netherland government, “Room of the river” is to be replicated in Kerala’s Kuttanad, which remained submerged for weeks during Kerala floods.
2. It is a flood mitigation initiative which is aimed at protecting areas adjoining rivers from routine flooding and improving water management systems in delta regions.
3. Key concept behind the project: To provide more space for the water body so that it can manage extraordinary high-water levels during floods. The project involves tailor-made solutions for each River.
4. Important measures of the project are:
   
   • lowering the flood plain,
   • strengthening and relocation of dykes,
   • reducing the height of the groynes,
   • increasing the depth of the side channels and
   • removing obstacles.
5. It will also improve the surroundings of the river banks through fountains and panoramic decks, for this the landscapes are altered in a way that they turn into natural sponges which can accommodate excess water during floods.

Question 36

Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System?

Answer 36

• Kuttanad is a delta region situated below sea levels along the west coast of Kerala, known as state’s rice bowl.
• The Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS) is a unique cultivation system, as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultivation below sea level over 150 year ago.
• This system contributes remarkably well to the conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem services including several livelihood services for local communities.
• It was declared by the FAO as a GIAHS (Globally Important Agriculture Heritage System

Question 37

Nationla Afforestation and Eco-development Board?

Answer 37

1. by MOEFCC in Aug 1992
2. National Afforestation Programme is the flagship proramme of NAEB and provides physical and capacity building support to Forest development Agencies (FDAs), which are the implememnting agencies

Question 38

Atapaka Bird sanctuary?

Answer 38

part of Kolleru Lake (AP)

identified as world’s largest home fr Spot-Billed pelican

Question 39

Social Forestry?

Answer 39

1. National Commission on agri used this term fr the first time in 1976
2. also aims at raising plantations by common man to meet growing demands fr 5 Fs
3. with this scheme, govt fr the first time recognised the local communities’ rights to forest resources and encouraged rurla participation in the management of natural resources
4. launched in 1970s and 1980s
5. can be categorized into 4 grps:
   
   1. Farm forestry
   2. Community forestry: govt to provide seedlings and fertilisers
   3. Extension Forestry: on road sides canals and railways , wastelands
   4. Recreational Forestry

Howevr, social forestry programmes were not successful as they did not provide sufficient benefit to local communities.

Question 40

National Bamboo Mission?

Answer 40

1. a centrally sponsored scheme with 100% contri frm CG
2. implemented by Horticulture Deptt of Min of Agri
3. obj:
   
   1. increase in area coverage
   2. enhanced yields
   3. scientific management
   4. marketing of bamboo and bamboo based handicrafts
   5. generatio of employment opportunities
4. adoption of an area based differentiated strategy

Question 41

CEPI?

Answer 41

1. CPCB developed Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI) to find out an Index value to characterise quality of the environment.
2. algo accounts fr source, pathway, receptor, pollutant concentration, impact on human health and level of exposure
3. considers pollution indices fr air, water and land
4. CEPI score:
   
   1. >70 : critically polluted; detailed investigations and appropriate remedial action; In 2009, it had 43 clusters
   2. 60-70: Severely polluted; surveillance and implementation of pollution control
   3. <60: normal

Question 42

Lighting a Billion Lives?

Answer 42

1. LaBL is a campaign by TERI
2. promotes the use of solar lanterns designed and manufactured on a decentralized basis
3. has facilitated spread of mobile telephony with support frm DoT
4. LaBL has successfully engaged pvt sector and CSR
5. >100 women SHGs formed

Question 43

USERS?

Answer 43

1. Urban services Env Rating system
2. project funded by UNDP and executed by MoEFCC and implemented by TERI
3. aim: develop an analytical tool to measure performance wrt delivery of basic services in local bodies of Delhi and Kanpur
4. Performance measurement tool was set up
5. set of performance measurement indicators against set targets

Question 44

Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) agreement?

Answer 44

1. first ever PES agreement was signed between the Village Forest Development Society (VFDS) and the Palampur Municipal Council (PMC), Himachal Pradesh. Formalised in October 2010, it is a rural-urban engagement model for the sustainable supply of water and protection of the catchment area
2. PES involve payments to the managers of land or other natural resources in exchange for the provision of specified ecosystem services over-and-above what would otherwise be provided in the absence of payment
3. Stakeholders enter into PES agreements on a voluntary basis and are in no way obligated to do so.
4. PES provides an opportunity to put a price on previously un-priced ecosystem
5. services like climate regulation, water quality regulation and the provision of habitat for wildlife and, in doing so, brings them into the wider economy.
6. ‘beneficiary pays principle’, as opposed to the ‘polluter pays principle’.

Question 45

red Mud?

Answer 45

1. bauxite residue
2. it is a solid waste generated during Al prodn by Bayer process frm bauxite
3. Global generation of red mud is >150MT; in India, ~9MT
4. contains impurities like caustic soda
5. six major constituents: Si, Al, Fe, Ca, Ti and Na
6. env probs:
   
   1. high alkalinity makes it extremely corrosive and damaging to soil
   2. Alkali seepage may contaminate GW
   3. storage requirement
   4. Alkaline airborne dust emissions
7. can be useful in:
   
   1. treatment of acidic soils
   2. making crude and fine ceramics like tiles, bricks
   3. component of cement
   4. as a filler in rubber and plastic industry
   5. as pigment in paints

Question 46

India’s Deep Ocean Mission?

Answer 46

1. aims to explore the possibilities of deep sea mining, in the same way that space exploration was initiated 35 yrs ago
2. wud be an integrated program with contri frm ISRO, DBT, DST, DRDO and ICAR
3. focus on techs like under-waster vehicles, under water robotics and ocean climate change advisory services
4. two key projects planned:
   
   1. A desalination plant, powered by Tidal energy, and
   2. a submersive vehicle that can go upto 6000m depth
5. Advancements made-
   
   1. A First Generation Mine-site (FGM) with an area of 18,000 Km2 has been identified.
   2. A remotely operable submersible (ROSUB 6000) - capable of operating at depths of 6,000 metres - has already been developed and tested successfully up to 5,289 metres depth.
   3. Besides, a remotely operable in-situ soil testing equipment has also been developed for getting detailed geo-technical properties of the mining area at Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB).
   4. These technological developments were funded under an umbrella scheme of the government - called Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources Modelling and Science (O-SMART)

Question 47

Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: intro? constitutional provisions for conservation of wildlife?

Answer 47

India first country to hv env in its consti

5th June 1972: UN Conference of Human Env in Stockholm: First Discussion of Env as an international agenda

Soon after Stockholm Convention, INdia adopted WPA

Constitutional Provisions:

● The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds was transferred from State to Concurrent List.
● Article 51 A (g) of the Constitution states that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife.
● Article 48 A in the Directive Principles of State policy, mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.

Question 48

WPA,1972: pre WPA provisions?

Answer 48

1. Beginning in 1887 fr protection of a few wild birds; subsequentlu some wild animals were added in 1912 and later some wild animals were added in 1919
2. Wild Birds and Animals Protection Act 1935

Question 49

WPA: provisions?

Answer 49

1. Act provides for protection of wild animals, birds and plants and not domesticated ones
2. Animals included in Schedule 1 and Part II of schedule 2 are given highest protection status
3. Schedule 3 and 4 are also protected bt lower penalties
4. For wild animals in Schedule II, III or IV, chief wildlife warden or authorized officers can permit their hunting in a specified area if they have become dangerous to humans or property (including standing crops on any land).
   
   • eg. Wild boars, nilgai and rhesus monkeys
5. Schedule 5: animals listed here are classified as ‘vermins’
   
   • includes mice, rat, common crow and flyin fox (aka fruit eating bats)
6. Act empowers Centre to declare wild animals other than Schedule I & II to be vermin for specified area and period.
7. Schedule 6: cultivation, collection, extraction and trade of plants listed in this schedule is prohibited
   
   • eg. Red Vanda, Blue Vanda, kuth, pitcher plant, ladies slipper orchid

Question 50

WPA act provides for the constitution of bodies to be established under this act such as?

Answer 50

the National and State Board for Wildlife, state wildlife advisory boards, Central Zoo Authority and National Tiger Conservation Authority.

Question 51

MoEFCC’s proposed 2021 amendment to WPA?

Answer 51

In December 2021, the Union environment ministry announced a plan to amend the Wildlife Act.
● The Act has been amended several times, in 1982, 1986, 1991, 1993, 2002, 2006 and 2013.

Changes proposed

The proposed amendment is likely the most expansive so far in scope: it covers more areas of legislation, from trade in wild species to permitting filmmaking in protected areas and controlling the spread of invasive species.

Positives:
● The Bill increases penalties for wildlife crimes. For example, offences that attracted a fine of Rs 25,000 now attract Rs 1 lakh.
● There’s a new and separate chapter on regulating species involved in international trade according to the CITES treaty.
● The Bill prohibits possessing, trading and breeding species without prior permissions from CITES authorities.
● The Bill also recognises threats that invasive alien species pose.

Concerns:

• The Bill doesn’t include regional invasive species – some of which may be native to the country but invasive in some parts.
• The amendment Bill has no separate Schedule for species the Act classifies as ‘vermin’, so the Centre can directly notify such species and open them up to be hunted – including some of the species currently in Schedule II.
• The Bill also proposes changes to the Schedules. Foremost, it reduces the number of Schedules from six to four, to “rationalise” the lists. But the two main substitute Schedules that will specify the protected species are incomplete.
• The Bill will render the existing ‘State Boards for Wildlife’ defunct by replacing it them with set up a ‘Standing Committee’ of the State Board of Wildlife – headed by the respective state forest minister and 10 members nominated by the minister.
  
  • The State Boards of Wildlife currently manage the conservation and protection of wildlife at the state level. The state chief minister sits atop the board and is supported by 20+ members, including of the state legislature, NGOs, conservationists and representatives of the state forest departments and tribal welfare.
• Under the proposed amendments, the commercial sale and purchase of elephants will no longer be prohibited under the Act. This clause is prone to abuse and can severely impact elephant populations by legitimising live trade of elephants.

Question 52

Some of the common animals, birds which are part of Schedule I of WPA?

Answer 52

1. Blackbuck,
2. Cheetah,
3. Gangetic Dolphin,
4. Gaur or Indian Bison,
5. Indian Elephant,
6. Indian Lion,
7. Indian Wild Ass,
8. Lion- tailed Macaque,
9. Pygmy Hog,
10. Rhinoceros,
11. Snow leopard,
12. Tiger,
13. Crocodile,
14. Gharial,
15. Great Indian Bustard.

Question 53

Chronology of Global env conservation efforts?

Answer 53

1. IUCN: 1948
2. WWF: 1961
3. UNEP- 1972
4. CITES by IUCN in 1973 and adopted in 1975
5. IPCC in 1988
6. 1992 Earth summit that led to: UNFCCC, CBD and Agenda 21
   
   1. CBD led to Cartagena protocol in 2000, Nagoya protocol in 2010 and Aichi targets in the same year

Question 54

UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)?

Answer 54

1. Rio summit
2. issues addressed:
   
   1. patterns of production incl prodn of toxic and posionous wastes
   2. alternatives to Fossil fuels
   3. public transportation to reduce vehicular pollution
   4. growing scarcity of water
3. resulted in following docs:
   
   1. Rio declaration
   2. Agenda 21
   3. Forest principles
4. Two legally binding agreements:
   
   1. CBD
   2. UNFCCC
5. Later ‘Rio+5’, Johannesburg Summit and ‘Rio + 20’ at Rio De Janeiro after 5 yrs, 10 yrs and 20 yrs of UNCED respectively

Question 55

Agenda 21?

Answer 55

1. it is an action plan of UN related to Sustainable Development, as an outcome of UNCED
2. it is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by UN, govts and major grps in every area
   
   • extension of this action plan at local levels is called Local Agenda 21 aka LA21
3. 21 refers to 21st century

Question 56

UNEP?

Answer 56

1. An organization under United Nations. (1972)
2. The United Nations General Assembly elects the UNEP governing council members.
3. Headquarter is at Nairobi, Kenya
4. Earthwatch: UNEP keeps constant surveillance on environment, through this program
5. Global Environment Outlook (GEO) published by UNEP.
6. at Nairobi conference, worked on a draft agreement that was accepted at the earth Summit in the form of CBD

Question 57

Earth Summit: outcomes? outcomes of these outcomes?

Answer 57

1. UNFCCC: Climate change; led to
   
   1. Kyoto protocol
   2. Copenhagen accord
2. Agenda 21: sustainable deveopment; led to
   
   1. RIO+20
3. CBD: biodiversity: led to
   
   1. Aichi targets
   2. Cartagena protocol on Biosafety
   3. Nagoya protocol on genetic resources

Question 58

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): objectives and protocols? funding? key guidelines for CBD parties?

Answer 58

It is a legally binding treaty adopted at rio summit with three basic goals:

1. conservation of BD
2. sustainable use of BD , and
3. fair and quitable sharing of benefits arising from use of genetic resources.

• Protect biodiversity———->COP meetings, Aichi Targets.
• Safe use of bio-technology———–> Cartagena Biosafety Protocol
• Stop unfair use of Genetic resources————–> Nagoya Genetic Resources Protocol

Funding comes through an organization named as Global Environment Facility (GEF). GEF gets money from world bank, UN, various (rich) nations and trust organization, companies etc. GEF gives that money to finance many environment related activies including CBD and UNFCCC

1. CBD acknowledges sovereign rights of states over their own biological resources bt also says that BD is a common concern of humankind.
2. Parties of CBD are required to create National Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans (NBSAP)
3. talks abt in-situ and ex-situ methods
4. recognize vital role of women and NGOs in protecting biodiversity.
5. talks abt funding and tech support frm developed countries to lower income countries, especially LDCs, small island states and developing countries with arid and semi-arid zones, coastal and mountainous zones.
6. covrs BD at all levels- ecosystems, species and genetic resources. also covers Biotech
7. It is based upon ecosystem approach
8. Convention is based upon precautionary approach i.e. where there is a threat of significant reduction or loss of BD, lack of full scientific certainty shud nt be used as a reason fr postponing corrective measures

Question 59

Cartagena protocol?

Answer 59

Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity

1. concerns the movement of LMOs (living modified organisms) resulting from modern technology from one nation to another.
   
   • LMOs are defined under the protocol as living organisms that have a novel combination of genetic material secured from the use of modern technology.
2. adopted in 2000 and it came into force in 2003. The protocol was adopted in Montreal in 2000 but is named after Cartagena, the original city in Colombia where the protocol was supposed to be adopted.
3. Protocol has provisions for an Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure.
   
   • The AIA is for ensuring that countries are given enough information to make informed decisions before agreeing to import LMOs into their country.
4. There are four components to the AIA:
   
   • Notification by the exporter (This is a detailed written description of the LMO by the exporter, well in advance of the first shipment)
   • Acknowledgement of notification receipt by the importer
   • Decision procedure (Approve/prohibit/ask for more information, etc.)
   • Review of decisions
5. Cartagena Protocol also sets up a Biosafety Clearing-House (BCH) to enable information exchange on LMOs between countries.
6. India is a party to the Cartagena Protocol (ratified in 2003). The nodal agency is MoEFCC
7. LMOs are classified as the following under the Protocol:
   
   1. LMOs for intentional introduction into the environment – subject to AIA procedures.
   2. LMOs for direct usage as food or feed, or for processing – subject to simplified procedures which includes informing through the BCH.
   3. LMOs for contained usage (like bacteria for lab experiments) – these are exempt from AIA procedures.
   4. does not cover pharmaceuticals for humans addressed by other international agreements and organisations or products derived from LMOs, such as cooking oil from GM corn.
8. The protocol is legally binding
9. GM Food crops are within the scope of Cartagena protocol only if they are capable of transferring or replicating genetic material
10. Protocol follows the precautionary approach

Question 60

Nagoya protocol?

Answer 60

1. Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS)
2. covers genetic resources as well as Traditional knowledge
3. adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Aichi targets were adopted at the same COP.
4. It is legally binding
5. protocol will help both the users and the owners of genetic resources by creating better legal certainty and transparency in the following ways:
   
   1. It sets more predictable conditions for access to genetic resources.
   2. It helps in having a better benefit-sharing experience when the genetic resources travel outside the country of origin.

Question 61

Aichi Biodiversity targets?

Answer 61

adopted at COP-10 of CBD at Nagoya, Japan in 2010

5 strategic goals and 20 targets

goals:

1. address the underlying causes of BD loss by mainstreaming BD across govt and society
2. Reduce direct pressure on BD and promote sustainable use
3. improve BD by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic diversity
4. enhance benefits to all frm BD and ecosystem services
5. Enhance implementation thru participatory planning, knowledge mgmt and capacity building

Question 62

Aichi Biodiversity targets: targets under Goal 1?

Answer 62

1. making people aware
2. integration into national planning and accounting and poverty reduction strategies
3. incentives including subsidies, harmful to BD, be eliminated

Question 63

Aichi Biodiversity targets: targets under Goal 2?

Answer 63

1. rate of loss of all natural habitats, incl forests is halved and close to zero wherever possible
2. ecosystem based approach to all aquatic stocks
3. sustainable mgmt of areas under agri, aquaculture and forestry
4. pollution, incl frm excess nutrients are brought to non-harmful levels
5. invasive alien species and pathways are identified and prioritised to be managed
6. anthropogenic pressures on coral reefs and other vulnerable ecosystems

Question 64

Aichi Biodiversity targets: targets under Goal 3?

Answer 64

1. By 2020, at least 17% of terresterial and inland water and 10% of coastal and marine areas are conserved
2. extinction of known threatened species be prevented by 2020 and conservation status improved
3. genetic diversity of cultivated plants and farmed and domesticated animals and of wild relatives be maintained

Question 65

Aichi Biodiversity targets: targets under Goal 4?

Answer 65

1. ecosystems that provide essential services like water, health, livelihoods etc. are restored and safeguarded
2. increase ecosystem resilience and contri of BD to carbon stocks including restoration of at least 15% of degraded ecosystems
3. operationalise Nagoya protocol of equitable distribution of benefits

Question 66

Aichi Biodiversity targets: targets under Goal 5?

Answer 66

1. by 2020 each party has developed, adopted as a policy instrument and started implementing National BD strategy and action plan
2. increase financial mobilisation for implementing the Strategic Plan for BD 2011-20

Question 67

Methanol economy?

Answer 67

1. low carbon, hydrogen carrier fuel
2. can be produced frm:
   
   1. high ash coal
   2. agricultural residue
   3. CO2 frm thermal power plants
   4. breaking down Natural gas at high T by a process “Steam reforming”
3. although slightly lower in energy content than petrol and diesel, can replace both petrol and diesel in transport sector, energy sector and retail cooking replacing LPG (partially), Kerosene and wood charcoal.
4. Blending of 15% methanol in gasoline can result in at least 15% reduction in import of gasoline/ crude. In addition, it would bring down GHG emissions by 20% in terms of particulate matter, NOx, and SOx. it will also create close to 5 million jobs. Additionally, Rs. 6000 Crore can be saved annually by blending of 20% DME (Di-methyl Ether – a derivative of methanol) in LPG. Methanol cook stoves can result in a minimum of 20% savings for households in comparison to LPG.
5. Bureau of Indian Standards has notified 20% DME blending with LPG and notification for M-15, M-85, M-100 blends has been issued by Ministry of Road.
6. In 2018 Assam Petro-chemicals has launched Asia’s first canisters based methanol cooking fuel program.
7. Under Indian Methanol Economy program 5 methanol plants based on high ash coal, 5 DME plants and 1 natural gas based methanol production plant in joint venture with Israel, are planned to be set up
8. Currently, methanol accts fr 9% of transport fuel in China. China alone produces 65% of world’s methanol and it uses its coal to produce methanol.

Question 68

Global environemnt Facility?

Answer 68

• It is an independently operating financial organization
• GEF is multilateral financial mechanism that provides grants to developing countries for projects that benefit global environment and promote sustainable livelihoods in local communities. India is both a donor and recepient.
• setup as a fund under World Bank in 1991. In 1992, at the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund and provided administrative services.
• based in Washington DC, United States.
• addresses six designated focal areas:
  
  • biodiversity,
  • climate change,
  • international waters,
  • ozone depletion,
  • land degradation and
  • Persistent Organic Pollutants.
• GEF serves as financial mechanism to:
  
  • CBD
  • UNFCCC
  • UNCCD
  • Stockholm Convention on (POPs)
  • Minamata Convention on Mercury
• India is both a donor and recepient of the Fund

Question 69

Green climate fund?

Answer 69

1. world’s largest environmental fund
2. set up in 2010 under the UNFCCC’s financial mechanism to channel funding from developed countries to developing countries to allow them to mitigate climate change and also adapt to disruptions by CC. The decision to set up the Green Climate fund (GCF) was taken at COP 16 in Cancun on December 2010 and the GCF was operationalized in COP 17 in Durban in 2011. The GCF is head quartered in Songdo, Incheon City, Republic of Korea.
3. It is intended to be the centrepiece of efforts to raise Climate Finance of $100 billion a year by 2020 (paris agreement)
4. The finance is expected to meet the agreed full and incremental costs for activities to enable and support enhanced action on adaptation, mitigation (including REDD-plus), technology development and transfer (including carbon capture and storage), capacity-building and the preparation of national reports by developing countries.
5. Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of COP. Fund is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
6. MoEFCC India’s Nationally designated Authority fr GCF. NABARD has been accredited by GCF as the first Entity for sourcing financial resources from GCF for India.
7. As of now, the Groundwater Recharge System Installation project in Odisha and the solar rooftop segment for commercial, housing and industrial sectors all over India are the only one in progress with funds collected from the GCF.

Question 70

Special Climate change Fund?

Answer 70

1. established under the UNFCCC in 2001 to finance projects relating to: adaptation; technology transfer and capacity building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification.
2. This fund was meant to complement other funding mechanisms for the implementation of the Convention
3. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) has been entrusted to operate the SCCF.

Question 71

Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF)?

Answer 71

• established in 2001 to support the LDC work programme under the UNFCCC including the preparation and implementation of national adaptation programmes of action (NAPAs)
• It is operated by the Global Environment Facility (GEF)
• each LDC is eligible to access up to $50 million cumulatively from the LDCF.

Question 72

Adaptation Fund?

Answer 72

1. established under the Kyoto Protocol in 2001 to finance concrete adaptation projects and programmes in developing country parties to the Kyoto Protocol that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
2. financed with a share of proceeds from the clean development mechanism (CDM) project activities and other sources of funding. The share of proceeds amounts to 2% of certified emission reductions (CERs) issued for a CDM project activity.
3. Adaptation Fund is supervised and managed by the Adaptation Fund Board (AFB).

Question 73

Climate/Clean Investment Funds?

Answer 73

• CIFs) were designed by developed and developing countries and are implemented with the multilateral development banks (MDBs) to finance clean technology, energy access, climate resilience, and sustainable forests in developing and middle income countries.
• CIF is the only multilateral climate fund to work exclusively with MDBs as implementing agencies.
• Climate Investment Funds include the:
  
  • Clean Technology Fund
  • Strategic Climate Fund
  • Forest Invetsment Programme: REDD+ objectives
• under WB

Question 74

Global climate change Alliance?

Answer 74

established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular LDCs and small island developing States (SIDS).

Alliance helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacities to adapt to the effects of climate change, in support of MDGs

Question 75

Forest Carbon Partnership facility (FCPF)?

Answer 75

• FCPF is a WB programme
• created to assist developing countries to reduce emissions frm deforestation and forest degradation, enhance and conserve forest carbon stocks and sustainably manage forests (REDD+)
• consists of a Readiness Fund and Carbon fund
• India is not a member of FCPF- neither a participant nor a donor

Question 76

Biodiversity Heritage sites?

Answer 76

• Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify in the official gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as BHS
• BHS are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components:
  
  • richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories
  • high endemism
  • presence of rare and threatened species
  • keystone species
  • species of evolutionary significance
  • wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or their varieties
  • past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and
  • having significant cultural (eg. sacred groves), ethical or aesthetic values and are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
• creation of BHS may not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usage of local communities other than those voluntarily decided by them.

Question 77

Biodiversity Heritage sites in India: names?

Answer 77

1. Nallur Tamarind Grove in Bengaluru: a relic of Chola dynasty; gigantic trees
2. Hogrekan in Chikmaglur: unique Shola vegetation and gras land; acts as wildlife corriodor betn Kudremukha and Bhadra WLS.
3. University of Agri science’s GKVK campus in bengaluru: greenery as well as BD
4. Ambaraguda in Shimoga: shola vegetation
5. Glory of allapalli in MH: reserved forest
6. Tonglu in Darjeeling: a medicinal plant conservation area
7. Dhotrey in Darjeeling: a medicinal plant conservation area
8. Dialong village in Manipur
9. Ameenpur lake in telangana
10. majuli in Assam
11. gharial rehab centre in UP

Question 78

Mangroves?

Answer 78

• They represent the littoral forest ecosystem
• Low lying areas of tropical and subtropical regions (Between 24 degrees North and 38 degrees South) are home to Mangroves. Other conditions fr their growth:
  
  1. avg temp of coldest month > 20deg C
  2. seasonal temp range < 5deg.
  3. not resistant to freezing
  4. generally need a fine grained substrate bt exceptions in mangrobes of papua new Guinea and kenya
  5. shores mst be free of strong wave actions and tidal currents
  6. need a large tidal range that ensures limited erosion and deposition of sediments
  7. need an appropriate mix of fresh and saline water
• The trees that grow in Mangrove Forests are generally 8-20 meters high. These trees have thick leaves.
• They have blind roots which are called Pneumatophores. These roots help these trees to respire in anaerobic soils.
• The seeds of Mangrove Forests trees germinate in the trees itself before falling – This is called Viviparity mode of reproduction
• Mangrove Forests trees project different types of roots:
  
  • Prop – They are down into the water
  • Air – They are vertically configured up from the mud
  • Stilt – These roots emerge from the main trunk of the tree; also called adventitious roots
• types of Mangroves:
  
  • Red – Found along the coastlines
  • Black – Major feature of such mangrove trees is their dark bark. They have access to more oxygen.
  • White – Compared to Red and Black mangroves; they grow at the highest elevation.
• Mangroves are found in all coastal states/UTs in India. major mangroves in India are found at Sunderban, Mahanadi groves, krishna-Godavari, GJ, Ratnagiri, Goa, Cauvery deltaic and andaman-nicobar mangroves
• area under Mangroves have increased by 112 sq km as per state of forest report in 2015 as compared to 2013.

Question 79

Critical wild Life habitats (CWLHs)?

Answer 79

1. envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
2. This act defines the Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWH) as the “areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation…”. Thus, CWHs are absolutely free of human presence.
3. The power to notify the rules to designate a CWH rests with Ministry of Environment and Forests. The State Government are needed to initiate the process for notification of a critical wildlife habitat by submitting an application to ministry.
4. Before a critical wildlife area is notified, not only do the rights of the tribals and forest dwellers have to be settled, but also scientific evidence has to be provided to establish that people’s presence would adversely impact the wildlife in area.
5. The free informed consent of the Gram Sabha must be given before any relocation of the forest dwellers is carried out.

Question 80

Indian rhino vision 2020?

Answer 80

1. Launched in 2005, Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020.
2. Seven protected areas are Kaziranga, Pobitora, Orang National Park, Manas National Park, Laokhowa wildlife sanctuary, Burachapori wildlife sanctuary and Dibru Saikhowa wildlife sanctuary.
3. It is a collaborative effort between various organisations, including the International Rhino Foundation, Assam’s Forest Department, Bodoland Territorial Council, World Wide Fund - India, and the US Fish and Wildlife Service.

Question 81

National Rhino Conservation Strategy?

Answer 81

• It calls for active engagement between India and Nepal to conserve the Greater one-horned rhinoceros.
• The plan said the single population of rhinos in Sukla-Phanta (Nepal), Valmiki Tiger Reserve (India) and Chitwan National Park (Nepal) and Dudhwa (India) is separated by the political boundary between the two countries.
• It asks for the management of the two population under the same protocol, instead of managing the two population separately.
• The plan calls for expanding distribution range as the occurrence of 90% of the rhino in one protected area is a cause of concern and conservation of existing and potential rhino habitats need to be made a national priority.
• (MoEFCC) has begun a project to create DNA profiles of all rhinos in the country as a subset of this strategy

Question 82

first state in India to have a dedicated social audit law?

Answer 82

Meghalaya

Question 83

some invasive alien flora of India?

Answer 83

1. needle Brush
2. Black wattle
3. Goat weed
4. alligator weed
5. Prickly poppy
6. Blumea eriantha
7. Palmyra akaToddy palm
8. Swallow-wort aka madar plant
9. Dhatura, Mad plant, Thorn apple
10. Water hyacinth
11. Sleeping grass/touch me not

Question 84

examples of indicator species?

Answer 84

1. Stoneflies: indicate high oxygen levels in water
2. mosses and fungi: indicate acidic soil
3. greasewood: indicate saline soil
4. Lichens: some species indicate low pollution
5. Molluses: some molluses indicate water pollution status
6. Tubifex worms: indicates non-potable, stagnant, oxygen poor water
7. river otter: contaminants are biomagnified in them
8. Sparrow: a stable sparrow pop indicates a healthy ecosystemf or humans in terms of air and water qlty, vegetation

Question 85

Protected Planet?

Answer 85

online visual interface fr World database on Protected areas, a joint project of IUCN and UNEP

it is the most comprehensive gllobal database on terresterial and marine protected areas ; data has been compiled since 1981

Question 86

Integrated Coastal Zone Management Project?

Answer 86

1. The concept of ICZM as a process for the management of the coast using an integrated approach, regarding all aspects of the coastal zone, including geographical and political boundaries, was born in 1992 during the Earth Summit
2. ICZM aims to improve livelihood of coastal communities and conserve the coastal ecosystem.The ICZM plan involves identification of infrastructure requirmnts and livelihood improvement means in coastal districts. Conservation of mangroves is among the components.
3. Other objective sinclude: reducing coastal erosion, reducing vulnerability to disaster, BD conservation
4. It is a World Bank assisted project.
5. It is being implemented by the Department of Forests and Environment with assistance from MoEFCC. Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) would be implementing the project the national level and state level.
6. The National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), Chennai, will provide scientific and technical inputs.
7. Four main components of the plan include National Coastal Zone Management Programme, ICZM-West Bengal, ICZM-Orissa and ICZM-Gujarat:
   
   1. NCZMP: will include mapping, delineation and demarcation of the hazard lines, and delineation of coastal sediment cells all along the mainland coast of India.
   2. ICZM approaches in Gujarat, Orissa and West Bengal: will support capacity building of the state-level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cell, regional coastal process study, and pilot investments.

Question 87

NGT: about and origin?

Answer 87

1. established through NGT Act 2010 as a judicial-technical tribunal
2. India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
3. NGT supersedes National env tribunal (set up in 1995 in aftrmath of Bhopal gas tragedy) and National Env Appellate authority (estab by Parliament; defunct later)
4. NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
5. The NGT has five places of sittings, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.
6. not bound by CrPC procedures but guided by principles of natural justice

Question 88

NGT: structure?

Answer 88

• Tribunal comprises of the Chairperson, the Judicial Members and Expert Members. They shall hold office for term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment.
• The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• A Selection Committee shall be formed by central government to appoint the Judicial Members and Expert Members.
• There are to be least 10 and maximum 20 full time Judicial members and Expert Members in the tribunal.

Question 89

NGT: jurisdiction?

Answer 89

1. has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial question relating to environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment)
2. NGT also has appellate jurisdiction to hear appeal as a Court (Tribunal).
3. it shall apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle.
4. NGT by an order, can provide relief and compensation to the victims of environmental damage (including accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance), for restitution of property damaged, and for restitution of the environment for such area or areas,
5. An appeal against order/decision/ award of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court. Though in reality its decision are being challenged in HC as well.
6. NGT deals with civil cases under the seven laws related to the environment
   
   1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974,
   2. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977,
   3. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980,
   4. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
   5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986,
   6. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 and
   7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
7. Note that NGT doesn’t cover WPA 1972, India forest Act 1927, forest rights act 2006 or any other state forest act

Question 90

UNFCCC?

Answer 90

• signed in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development also known as the Earth Summit, the Rio Summit
• Convention’s ultimate objective is “to achieve, stabilization of greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system” within a time frame sufficient to allow ecosystems to adapt naturally to climate change, to ensure that food production is not threatened and to enable economic development to proceed in a sustainable manner”
• Green Climate Fund is a financial mechanism under UNFCCC
• COP is its highest decision making body
  
  • COP-3 in 1997: Kyoto protocol ratified by Marrakesh accords at COP-7 in 2001
  • COP 8 Delhi Declaration focuses on the development needs of the poorest countries and the need for technology transfer for mitigating climate change.
  • COP-13 in 2007: Parties agreed on the Bali Road Map and Bali action plan, which charted the way towards a post-2012 outcome.
  • COP-15 in 2009: Copenhagen Accord drafted. Developed countries pledge up to USD 30 billion in fast-start finance for the period 2010-2012.
  • COP-16 in 2010: Resulted in the Cancun Agreements, a comprehensive package by governments to assist developing nations in dealing with climate change.The Green Climate Fund, the Technology Mechanism and the Cancun Adaptation Framework are established.
  • COP-18 in 2012: Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol is adopted. and launched a second commitment period to Kyoto protocol
  • COP-21 in 2015: Paris agreement

Question 91

Bali Action plan: highlights?

Answer 91

participating nations acknowledged that evidence for global warming was unequivocal, and that humans must make “deep cuts in global emissions”

nations pledge “policy approaches and positive incentives” on issues relating to reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD) in developing countries; and enhancement of forest carbon stock in developing countries This paragraph is referred to as “REDD-plus”

Question 92

IPCC?

Answer 92

1. IPCC is the UN body for assessing the science related to climate change.
2. It was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) in 1988.
3. It has 195 member states.
4. The IPCC produces reports that support the UNFCCC.
5. IPCC does not carry out its own original research.Thousands of scientists and other experts contribute on a voluntary basis.

Question 93

estimate of global forest cover?

Answer 93

As per FAO’s Global Forest Assessment 2015,

1. global forest cover is ~4Bn Ha which is 30% of global area
2. 10 countries account for 70% of global forest cover. These include
   
   1. Russia: 20% of global forest area
   2. Brazil: 12%
   3. Canada-9%….
   • 10. India2%

Question 94

Amazon rainforest?

Answer 94

1. ~6.7mn sq km
2. across 9 countries: Brazil (60% of Amazon), bolivia, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, venezuela, Guyana, french Guinea and suriname
3. highest biodiversity in the world- 30% of world’s known species. ~400bn trees of 16000 different species
4. responsible for 20% of world’s oxygen turnover-> ‘Lungs of the planet’
5. absorbs 2Bn Tonnes of CO2 per yr i.e. 5% of annual C emissions
6. June to October-> dry season for Amazon forests
7. In Aug 2019, more than 80000 fires- highest ever recorded
8. As per NASA, it is one of the indications of positive climate change feedback mechanism, and these forests may become a net carbon emitter from current absorber by mid century.

Question 95

Gondwana rainforests?

Answer 95

1. in Australia
2. are the most extensive area of subtropical rainforest in the world
3. Collectively, the rainforests are a World Heritage Site with fifty separate reserves totalling 366,500 hectares
4. Gondwana Rainforests are so-named because the fossil record indicates that when Gondwana existed it was covered by rainforests containing the same kinds of species that are living today.
5. largest Gondwanan rainforest in Australia is located in Tasmania’s Tarkine wilderness.

Question 96

Forest conservation: global efforts list?

Answer 96

1. provisions under UNFCCC and Kyoto protocol
2. UN-REDD and REDD+
3. Good Practice guidelines
4. Forest Carbon partnership facility
5. Forest Investmet programme
6. GEF

Question 97

Forest Conservation: provisions under UNFCCC and Kyoto protocol?

Answer 97

mechanisms of JI, CDM also encourgaes afforestation, reforestation and forest mgmt

Question 98

UN-REDD an REDD+?

Answer 98

1. Results based FInancial incentives are provided to Developing countries to adopt afforestation and sustainable mgmt of forest C stocks
2. proposed in COP-11 of UNFCCC at Montreal by Coalition of Rainforest nations
3. UN-REDD endorsed by Bali Action Plan
4. UN-REDD launched in 2008
5. It is the first global joint UN initiative on CC
6. deploys support of three agencies: FAO, UNDP and UNEP
7. note that these are basically applicable to only the Developing countries that are members to UNFCCC
8. REDD+ decision taken at COP-16 at Cancun. It encouraged deevloping countries to develop a National Forest Reference emission level (REL) or national Forets referene lvel (RL) as a benchmark for assessing performance of REDD+ in terms of GHG emissions.
9. REDD vs REDD+: REDD includes only deforestation and Forets degradation, while REDD+ also includes role of coservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest Carbon stocks

Question 99

four requirements for a country to be REDD+ compliant?

Answer 99

1. a national strategy or action plan fr REDD+ implementation
2. A national forest reference emission level and/or reference forest level; voluntary for devleloping countries
3. a national forest monitoring and reporting mechanism
4. a safeguard info system to provide info on how safeguards are being addressed and implemented

Question 100

INdia’s National REDD+ strategy?

Answer 100

1. India is already complying with the UNFCCC decisions to be REDD+ ready
2. eg. GoI has submitted National Forest reference level- historical avg fr 2000-08 i.e. -49.7MT of CO2eq to UNFCCC in Jan 2018-
3. INdia has also prepared its National REDD+ strategy- in line with INdia Paris NDC, NAPCC, green India mission
4. In its Paris NDC, INdia has committed to capture 2.5-3 Bn T of CO2 thru additional forest and tree cover by 2030
5. INdia’s forests are a C sink fr abt 250 MT CO2eq which is 12.5% of INdia’s total GHG emissions
6. India’s REDD+strategy presently covers all forest areas irrespective of legal status or ownership as well as Trees outside Forests including agroforestry, urban forests, plantations on wastelands. It doesn’t presently include grasslands, blue C and phytoplankton

Question 101

Forest Carbon stock?

Answer 101

Carbon stored in the forest ecosystem

As per GPG, there are five C pools in a forest that contributes to Forest Carbon Stock:

1. LIving Biomass: Above Grnd biomass
2. LIving Biomass: below Ground biomass: live roots
3. Dead organic matter: dead wood: either standing or lying on the grnd
4. Dead organic matter: LItter: all non woody non-living biomass
5. Soil: Soil organic matter: organic C in mineral and organic soils upto a certain depth decided by country itself.

Question 102

good practices guidelines?

Answer 102

developed by IPCC in 2003 to provide a uniform methodology of Carbon stocks for assessment purposes for REDD+

Question 103

Types of forests in India?

Answer 103

Tropical forests: two subtypes

1. Moist Tropical
   
   1. tropical Wet evergreen
   2. Tropical semi-evergreen
   3. tropical moist deciduous
   4. Littoral and swamp
2. Dry
   
   1. tropical dry evergreen
   2. tropical dry deciduous
   3. tropical thorn forests

Montane forest types (1000-3000m)

1. Sub-tropical montane(1000-2000m)
   
   1. Sub-tropical Broad-leaved hill forests
   2. sub tropical moist pine
   3. sub-tropical dry evergreen
2. Temperate montane(1500-3000m)
   
   1. wet temperate
   2. moist temperate
   3. dry temperate

alpine (>3000m)

1. Sub-Alpine
2. Moist Alpine scrub
3. Dry Alpine scrub

Question 104

Tropical wet evergreen forests?

Answer 104

1. climate
   
   1. rf>250cm
   2. T=25-27 deg C
   3. avg humidity≥ 77%
   4. distinctly dry season
2. characterestics
   
   1. evergreen
   2. lofty: 45-60m
   3. highly dense: sun light cannot reach ground
   4. multi-layered: variety of climbers, orchids
   5. very high BD
3. where?
   
   1. Western sides of WG, south of mumbai
   2. in a strip running NE-SW across AP, Upper Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura
   3. A&N islands
4. species-
   
   1. mesua, white cedar, hopea, jamun in WG
   2. Gurhan, chaplasha, bamboo in Himalayan regions
5. commercial usage
   
   1. timber is fine grained, hard and durable; thereby high commercial value
   2. underdeveloped lumbering industry since trees are not in pure strands, very dense forests and lack of transport facilities

Question 105

Tropical semi-evergreen forests?

Answer 105

1. climate
   
   1. rf:200-250cm
   2. T 24-27 deg C
2. characterestics
   
   1. less dense but more gregarious (open clusters)
   2. represent a transition from wet evergreen to deciduous
   3. buttressed trunks, rougher and thicker bark, heavy climbers less bamboos and abundant epiphytes
3. where?
   
   1. bordering areas of tropical wet evergreen forests
   2. western coast
   3. Assam, lower slopes of eastern Himalayas
   4. Odisha
   5. Andamans
4. species
   
   1. aini, semul, gutel, mundani, kadam in WG
   2. white cedar, INdian chestnut in Himalayan region
5. commercial usage ———–

Question 106

Tropical moist deciduous forests?

Answer 106

1. Climate
   
   1. 100-200cm rf
   2. T ~27 deg C
2. characterestics
   
   1. drop their leaves during spring and early summer due to insufficient moisture
   2. irregular top storey of different species, 25-60 m high
   3. heavily buttressed trees and fairly complete shrubby undergrowth with patches of bamboos, climbers
3. Where?
   
   1. most common in India
   2. belt running along WG surrounding belt of evergreen forests both on eastern and western slopes
   3. a strip along shiwalik range including terai and bhabhar from 77^o E to 88^o E
   4. Manipur and mIzoram
   5. hills of eastern MP and CHH, Chhota nagpur plateau and most of Odisha, parts of WB
   6. A&N islands
4. species: teak, sal, padauk, laurel, badam, rosewood, mahua
5. commercial usage
   
   1. very useful owing to their valuable timber and other forest products
   2. comparatively easy to exploit these forests

Question 107

Littoral and swamps?

Answer 107

1. where?
   
   1. in and around deltas, estuaries, creeks prone to tidal influences
   2. while littoral forests occur at several places along the coast, swamp forests aer confined to the deltas of Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery
   3. mangroves: sunderban
2. characterestics:
   
   1. most peculiar feature: they can survive and grow both in fresh as well as brackish water
3. species
   
   1. sundri
   2. sonneratia, agar, nhendi, keora
4. economic usage
   
   1. useful fuel wood
   2. hard and durable timber used for construction and building purpose as well as for making boats

Question 108

tropical dry evergreen?

Answer 108

1. Climate
   
   1. rf:100cm => rf less than moist evergreen, thus ‘dry’; evergreen forests in areas of such low rf is peculiar and is maybe possible due to seasonal nature of rf in the region
   2. mean annual T ~28 deg C
   3. humidity 75%
2. characterestics
   
   1. short statured trees, upto 12 m
   2. complete canopy with no layer differentiation
   3. mostly coriaceous (leather like) leaved trees of short boles (trunk)
   4. bamboos are rare or absent
   5. grasses not clearly visible
3. where?
   
   1. along coasts of TN
4. species
   
   1. khirni, ritha, tamarind, machkund
5. economic usage
   
   1. most of these lands have been cleared for agri usage or plantations

Question 109

tropical dry deciduous forests?

Answer 109

1. Climate
   
   1. 100-150 cm rf
2. characterestics
   
   1. shed their leaves in dry season
   2. represent transition betn moist deciduous and thron forests
   3. closed and rather uneven canopy
   4. enough light reaches ground to permit growth of grass and climbers
   5. bamboos as well
3. where?
   
   1. a large area, in an irregular wide strip running N-S from foot of himalayas to Kaniyakumari
4. species: sal, teak, axlewood, tendu, rosewood, palas, rosewood, red sanders
5. economic usage: large tracts have been cleared for agri purposes

Question 110

tropical thorn forests?

Answer 110

1. Climate
   
   1. <75cm rf
   2. high T 25-30 deg C
   3. low humidity
2. characteretics
   
   1. low and widely scattered trees
3. where?
   
   1. NW India- RJ, Kutcch, Kathiawar
   2. leeside WG
4. species
   
   1. acacias and eucalyptus are prominent
   2. Indian wild date
   3. khair, reunjha, neem, babul, cactii
5. economic usage ——

Question 111

Sub-tropical Broad-leaved or wet hill forests?

Answer 111

1. Climate
   
   1. rf 75-125 cm
   2. T 18-21 deg C
   3. avg humidity 80%
2. characterestics
   
   1. luxurious forests of evergreen species
   2. fairly high
   3. dense
   4. climbers and epiphyes common
3. where?
   
   1. in eastern himalayas to the east of 88^o E betn altitudes 1000-2000 m
   2. Southern INdia:
      
      1. these forests are not so distinct in southern India due to restricted area of southern hills
      2. occur in Nilgiri and Palni hills
      3. It is essentially a “stunted rainforest” and is not so luxuriant as true tropical evergreen forests
      4. higher parts of WG such as Mahabaleshwar, summits of satpura, amikal ranges, highland sof bastar and Mt. Abu in Aravali also carry these types of forests
4. species
   
   1. evergreen oaks and chestnuts predominate with some ash and beech
   2. sals and pines as well
5. economic usage
   
   1. mostly been destroyed

Question 112

Sub-tropical moist pine forests?

Answer 112

1. Climate: rf:100cm (i.e. less than broad-leaved)
2. characterestics
   
   1. often a grassy floor with bulbous plants and little undergrowth, except for stunted evergreen oaks in wetter areas
3. where?
   
   1. occur at the same height as wet hill forests but in western himalayas betn 73^o E and 88^o E
   2. some parts of AP, Manipur, naga hills and Khasi hills
4. species
   
   1. Chir or chil is the most dominant; forms pue stands
5. economic usage
   
   1. chir provides valuable timber for furniture, boxes and buildings
   2. also used for producing resin and turpentine

Question 113

Sub-tropical Dry evergreen forest?

Answer 113

1. Climate: rf:
   
   1. 50-100cm (i.e. less than moist pine)
   2. summers sufficiently hot and winters cold enough for frequent frost
2. characterestics
   
   1. low, practically scrub forest with small evergreen stunted trees and srubs incl thorny species, herbs and grasses
3. where?
   
   1. found in very limited area- in Bhabhar, shiwaliks and western himalayas upto 1000 m ASL
4. species:
   
   1. olive, acacia modesta and pistacia
   2. considerable tracts are covered by dwarf creeping palm Nonnorpops
5. economic usage————-

Question 114

wet temperate montane forest?

Answer 114

1. climate
   
   1. 150-300cm rf
   2. T 11-14 deg C
   3. avg humidity ≥ 80%
2. characterestics
   
   1. closed evergreen forests
   2. trees are mostly short boled (< 6m) and branchy with large girth
   3. leaves are dense and rounded
   4. branches are clothed with mosses, ferns and other epiphytes
   5. woody climbers are common
3. where?
   
   1. higher hills (1800-3000m) of TN, Kerala
   2. eastern himalayas to the east of 88^o E incl hills of WB, assam, AP, Sikkim and Nagaland
4. species: deodar, chilauni, Indian chestnut, birch, plum, hemlock
5. economic usage ————

Question 115

Moist temperate montane forest??

Answer 115

1. climate
   
   1. 150-250 cm rf
2. characteristics
   
   1. pure coniferous species,
   2. 30-50 m high
   3. in wetter east, form high but fairly open forest with shrubby undergrowth
   4. in drier western parts, pure stands
3. where?
   
   1. temperate zone of himalayas i.e. 1500-3300 m
   2. cover the entire legth of Himalayas in Kashmir, HP, UK, darjeeling ad Sikkim
4. species
   
   1. mainly coniferous species
   2. in wetter east
      
      1. broad leaved evergreens are mixed with dominant conifirs
      2. pines, cedars, silver firs, spruce
      3. undergrowth of oaks, rhododendrons, laurels and some bamboos
   3. in drier western parts, deodar dominates and forms almost pure strands
5. economic usage
   
   1. deodar provides fine wood used for construction, timber and rly sleepers

Question 116

Dry temperate montane forest?

Answer 116

1. climate
   
   1. rf < 100cm, mostly snow
2. characteristics———–
3. where?
   
   1. inner dry ranges of Himalayas wher SW monsoon is very feeble; 2000-3000m
   2. Ladakh, Lahul, Chamba, kinnaur, Garhwal and Sikkim
4. species
   
   1. predominantly coniferous forests with xerophytic shrubs
   2. deodars, chilgoza, oak, ash, maple, olive
5. economic usage————

Question 117

Alpine forests?

Answer 117

1. climate——————
2. characteristics
   
   1. sub-alpine: dense growth of small crooked trees and large shrubs with coniferous overwood. It is a mixture of coniferous (30 m) and broad leaved trees (10m)
   2. moist alpine scrub: low, evergreen, dense
   3. dry alpine: uppermost limit of scrub xerophytic, dwarf shrubs
3. where?
   
   1. occur all along the himalayas at altitudes 2900-3800m
   2. three sub-types
      
      1. sub-alpine: occur at upper limit fo tree forest adjoining alpine scrub and grasslands
      2. moist alpine scrub: 3000m upto snowline
      3. dry alpine: over 3500 m ASL, in dry zone
4. species
   
   1. sub-alpine: fir, kail, spruce, rhododendron
   2. moist alpine scrub: rhododendron, birch, honeysuckle
   3. dry alpine: Juniper, honeysuckle, artemesia
5. economic usage—————-

Question 118

Forest types in India in decreasing order of their area covered?

Answer 118

• Tropical Moist deciduous-37%
• Tropical dry deciduous- 28%
• Tropical Wet evergreen- 8%
• montance sub-tropical pine -6%
• tropical semi-evergreen-4%
• least: dry evergreen-0.2%

Question 119

Forest Cover: defn and types?

Answer 119

as per FSI, all lands more than one Ha in area with a tree canopy of more than 10% irrespective of land use, ownership, legal status and species composition. It may include even orchards, palm, bamboo etc.

1. very dense: canopy >70%
2. moderately dense: 40-7%
3. open forest: 10-40%
4. scrub: degraded forest land with canopy density <10%
5. non-forest: any other land

Total forest cover in India: 7.1 L sq km (21.67% of TGA)

Question 120

Recorded Forest area: defn and types?

Answer 120

RFA gives the extent of forests in terms of legal status. irrespctive actual forest canopy cover. RFA are the land notified as a forest under any Govt act or recorded as a forest in govt records, It may or may not have an actual forest cover on the grnd. Three categories:

1. reserved forests: under IFA, 1927 or state acts; exclusively for use of forest deptts and people had no rights other than those permitted by state
2. protected forests: under IFA, 1927 or state acts; alsomanaged by forest deptts bt people had certain rights wrt MFP
3. unclassed forests:

Total RFA in India 7.67L sq km (23.3% of TGA)

Question 121

Indian state of Forest report : about?

Answer 121

every two yrs

ISFR 2019 16th such report

by Forest Survey of India

Question 122

ISFR 2019: findings?

Answer 122

1. India among the few countries showing increasing trend in forest cover.
2. India’s forest cover marginally increased frm 2017 to 7.1L sq km i.e. 21.67% of TGA
3. total tree cover also marginally increased to 95000sq km i.e. 2.9% of TGA
4. very dense-3%; moderately dense-9%; open-9%
5. largest forest cover in terms of area: MP> ArunachalP> Chhatisgarh> odisha>MH
6. largest increase in forest cover area: KN>AndhraP> Kerala> J&K>HP
7. states/UTs showing decrease in forest cover : All NE states (incl Sikkim) except Assam; Puducherry; Manipur highest decline
8. largest forest cover in terms of % area: MIzoram (85%), ArunachalP (80%)Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland
9. Total mangrove cover has also increased by 1% to 4975 sq km. Highest increse in GJ, then MH and Odisha
10. bamboo bearing area also marginally increased to 1.6L sq km

Question 123

ISFR 2019: findings: forest Carbon stock?

Answer 123

total C stock incountry’s forest= 7100 mn tonnes (increase of 42MT equiv to 156 MT of CO2eq)

Soil organic C represent largest pool- 4000MT

Question 124

ISFR 2019: findings:

1. hill districts?
2. tribal districts?
3. NE region?

Answer 124

1. forest cover increased in 140 hill districts to 2.8L sq km i.e. 40% of their area
2. marginal increase in 218 tribal districts to 4.2L sq km i.e. 37.5% of their area. note however, that there is decrease in RFA in tribal districts because of tribal population getting “Land titles”
3. marginal decrease in NE to 1.7 L sq km i.e. 65% of their area. All states except Assam and Tripura showed decline in forest cover. Shifting cultivation mainly responsible for the fluctuation

Question 125

National Forest Policy 1952?

Answer 125

first time proposed 33% forest or tree cover target

main obj was using forest for timber, thus emphasis on high value plantations or commercial species like teak and sal and exotic species like eucalyptus

Question 126

Forest Conservation act 1980?

Answer 126

• aimed to reduce indiscriminate diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes and to help regulate and control the land use changes in forests
• for the first time emphasised on the social and ecological importance of forest resources
• empowered only CG to give prmisison for diversion of forest for non-forestry purposes
• introduced Compensatory afforestation

Question 127

National Forest Policy 1988?

Answer 127

1. aimed for 33% forest and tree cover
2. paradigm shift in forestry by emphasis on environmental, ecological and social relevnce of forests and subordinated the commerical interests
3. recognised tribal relationhips with forests and sought to engage them in their management
4. stressed upon importanc eof MFP fr forest dwellers
5. called for massive afforestation with people’s participation; encouraged Participatory forest mgmt thru Joint forest mgmt.
6. led to increase of forest and tree cover frm 19.7% in 1987 to 24.56% in 2019.

Question 128

Joint Forest Management: obj? institutions?

Answer 128

launched in 1990, after National Forest POlicy 1988

sought cooperation of local communities and SG in protection of forest resources from fire, illegal grazing and timber cutting. In exchange for forest conservation and protection, forest communities receive non-timber forest products.

JFM recognises substantial share of forest communities over Minor forest produce or Non-Timer Forest Produce.

JFM is absed on the principle of “Care and Share”

institutions under JFM:

1. JFM Commttees: set up as local institutions of forest communities, which are part of Gram sabhas, by the forest deptt; role in conflict with PESA and FRA that gives control of MFP to gram sabhas
2. Eco-development committees: similar to JFMCs bt set up for villages in protected areas and their buffer zones . twin obj- 1)to protect wildlife and 2) undertake eco-development activities
3. Forest Development agencies: set up at district and state level

JFM currently covers 30% of total foest area of India and involves 20mn people managing 25mHa of forest area

financial flows to JFMs are from both CG and SG under programmes like MNREGA, IWDP, Green India Mission, National Afforestation Program etc.

Question 129

Green India Mission?

Answer 129

1. one of eight missions under NAPCC
2. implementation agency MoEFCC
3. aim: protecting, restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover
4. Targets:

• increase forest/tree cover on 5 Mn Ha of forest/non-forest lands and improve qlty of forest cover on another 5mn Ha
• improve ecosystem services thru treatment of an area of 10mn Ha
• increase forest based livelihood income of abt 3mn HHs living in and around forests
• increase annual CO2 sequestration by 50-60 MT in 2020

Question 130

National Afforestation Program?

Answer 130

flagship scheme of National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board of MoEFCC

NAP is for afforestation of degraded forest lands while GIM aims at improving the qlty of forest and increase cover

Question 131

which type of forest covers largets area at global level?

Answer 131

Temperate Coniferous forests

Question 132

Land degradation?

Answer 132

persistent reduction in capacity of land to support bio-diversity, ecosystem services and human needs.

major types of Land degradation:

1. soil erosion: loss of top fertile layer
2. soil salinisation: saline and alkaline encrustations consisting of salts of Na, K or Mg appear on top layers of soil through capillary action
3. Soil acidification: excessive built-up of hydrogen or Al cations ins oil due to long term rainfall or acid deposition due to minig activities
4. soil pollution: presence of unwanted chemicals or in disproportionate amt

Question 133

Desertification? difference with land degradation?

Answer 133

Desertification is the extreme form of land degradation that is witnessed in dryland areas. i.e. arid (excluding polar areas), semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas.

caused by both natural and man made factors

Desertification is not the same as expansion of deserts

Question 134

classification of regions based on rainfall?

Answer 134

hyper-arid: <10cm

arid: <25cm

semi-arid: 50-85cm

dry sub-humid: 85-100 cm

moist sub humid: 100-150 cm

humid: >150cm
perhumid: >250cm

Question 135

marginal lands?

Answer 135

lands where rainfall is insufficient to support crops over long term. refers to arid, semi-arid and dry-sub humid regions of the world where annual avg rf is <100cm

Question 136

UN’s 2019 assessment of land degradation?

Answer 136

1. total degraded land area varies frm < 1Bn Ha to >6Bn Ha globally
2. land degradation due to human activities is adversely impacting 3.2Bn people at least
3. negatively impacting ecosystem functioning (eg. aquifer recharge)- 5% reduction in global net primary productivity due to land degradation
4. It costs more than 10% of annual global gross product in loss of BD and ecosystem services
5. betn 2000-9, land degradation caused global emissions of 3.6-4.4 Bn T of CO2 annually
6. over past two centuries, Soil Organic Carbon (crucial indicator of soil helath) has declined by 8% globally
7. land degradation and CC together are predicted to reduce crop yields by avg 10% globally
8. Land degradation and and CC are likely to force 50-700mn people to migrate by 2050

Question 137

Land degradation and desertification: consequences?

Answer 137

on natural systems:

1. loss of soil fertility
2. loss of vegetative cover
3. loss of BD
   
   1. Acc to IPBES 2018 report, it costs more than 10% of annual global gross product in loss of BD and ecosystem services
4. decline in BD negatively affects ecosystem services. eg. recharge of GW aquifer
   
   1. Acc to IPBES 2018 report, land degradation has led to 5% reduction in total global net primary productivity
5. reduces ability of carbon sequestration, exacerbating CC
   
   1. betn 2000 and 2009, land degradation was responsible for annual global emissions of 3.6-4.4 BT of CO₂

on human systems

1. threats to food security: land degradation and CC together predicted to reduce crop yields by an avg of 10% globally
2. threat to livelihood
3. uneven burden on women and children eg to bring water
4. increased conflicts
5. forced displacement: Land degradation and CC are likely to force 50-700 mn people migrate by 2050

Question 138

UNCCD?

Answer 138

1. only legally binding internationla agreement which links env and dev to sustainable land mgmt. adopted in 1994.
2. only convention stemming from a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference’s Agenda 21.
3. convention specifically addresses drylands
4. obj:
   
   1. mitigaate effects of droughts on land and people
   2. minimise stop and reverse land degradation and desertification
   3. focus on adaptation to CC, security and migration and imcreasing land and soil productivity
5. financial mechanism: GEF

Question 139

sustainable land mgmt?

Answer 139

defined by UN 1992 Earth summit as

“use of land resources, incl soils, water, animals and plants, for the production of goods to meet changing human needs, while simultaneously ensuring long term productive potential of these resources and the maintenance of their environmental functions”

Question 140

UNCCD 2018-30 framework?

Answer 140

1. It is a global commitment to acheive Land Degradation Neutrality
2. adopted at COP-13 at Ordos , China
3. obj:

• improve condition of affected ecosystems; combat and restore productivity of degraded land; promote sustainale land management and contribute to land degradation neutrality
• reduce impacts of drought on vulnerable population
• improve livelihoods of more than 1.3 bn affected peple globally
• mobilise substantial and additional financial and non-financial resources to support implementation of convention by building effective partnerships at global and national level.

Question 141

SDG related to land degradation?

Answer 141

SDG 15

Target 15.3: by 2030, combat desertification, restore degraded land and soil, including land affected by desertification, drought and floods and strive to achieve a land degradation-neutral world.

Question 142

Land Degradation Neutrality?

Answer 142

a state where the amt and qlty of land resources, necessary to support ecosystem fns and services and enhance food-security remains stable or increases within spcified temporal and spatial scales and ecosystems

Question 143

Great Green Wall initiative?

Answer 143

launched in 2007 by African Union to restore Africa’s degraded landscape of Sahel rregion.

Sahel region extends across parts of Senegal, southern Mauritania, southern Mali, Burkina Faso, NE NIgeria, southern Niger, Chad and Sudan.

obj:

1. restore 100mn ha of degraded land
2. sequester 250MT of C
3. create abt 10 mn green jobs

Question 144

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: man’s footprint on Land?

Answer 144

humans use 75% of ice-free land.

25% of ice free land is subject to human induced land- degradation

50% of habitable land used in agri (13% as cropland and 37% as pasture)

Question 145

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: Land as sink of C?

Answer 145

• thru photosynthesis and Soil Organic matter
• top 1 m of world’s soils contains 3X C as the entire atmosphere
• 2008-17: land absorbed 30% of world’s GHG emissions
• trees and forests absorbed almost 11.2 billion tonnes of CO2 every year from the atmosphere.

Question 146

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: Land as source of C?

Answer 146

• deforestation and veg loss contribute CO2 to atm. Agri, Forestry and other land uses (AFLOU) activities together accnt for 25% of anthropogenic GHG emissions
• land report said the various kinds of uses that land was being put to — forestry, agriculture, industries, urbanisation — had contributed about 5.2 billion tonnes of CO2 every year between 2007 and 2016 comapred to 11.2 Bn T of absorbing of CO2
• agri mainly causes CH4 due to livestocks and N2O emisisons due to N2 based fertiliser usage
• other sources: deforestation, illegal logging, wildfires

Question 147

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: how does CC cause land degradation?

Answer 147

1. increased frequency and intensity of droughts eg. NE Brazil, Patagonia, NE China, Africa
2. GW increased frequency and intensity of Heat waves. In deyland areas, lead to desertification. eg. sub-saharan Africa, Mediterranean, parts of east and Central Asia and australia
3. wild fires
4. change in vegetation patterns due to change in rainfall patterns eg. reduced veg cover lead to more soil erosion
5. warmer temp=> thawing of permafrost=> wet soil more prone to landslides and floods
6. sea level change in low lying coastal areas=> intrusion of brackish water
7. increased frequency of intense rf events. air’s moisture holding increases by 7% for every 1deg C increase in Temperature. eg. in Central India, 3X increase in widespread extreme rain events during 1950-2015

Question 148

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: CC caused by Land degradation?

Answer 148

reduced photosynthesis and veg cover=> exacerbate CC

permafrost thawing: release of GHG

degraded lands lead to foest degradation emitting GHG

degradation of peta soils

Question 149

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: CC’s impact on Food security?

Answer 149

1. yield:
   
   1. in India, warming has reduced wheat yields by 5.2% betn 1981-2009
   2. increased level of malnutrition in sahel region due to CC, droughts and land degradation
   3. 2015-16 EL Nino=> widespread crop failure in ethiopia
2. increased pest attack
3. increased atm CO2 lowers nutritionla value of protein and zinc
4. Livetsock productivity can decrease due to heat waves that can cause animal morbidity and mortality
5. decrease in BD and spread of invasive plants
6. direct impact of forest degradation on tribals and MFP

Question 150

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: contri of global food systems to CC?

Answer 150

1. 37% of total GHG emissions are attributable to Global food system- agri, ivestock, food storage, transport, processing and food loss and waste
2. livestock rearing contributes 1/3rd of global CH4 emisisons
3. 2/3rd of global N2O emissions come frm agri
4. soil erosion frm agri fields is 100X higher than soil formation rates=> land deradation=> CC

Question 151

IPCC’ Special report on CC and Land: need for investment in land restoration?

Answer 151

for each 4 invested into land restoration, social returns can be abt 3-6$

Question 152

Desertification and Land degradation Atlas of India 2016: by?

Answer 152

ISRO

Question 153

Desertification and Land degradation Atlas of India 2016: findings?

Answer 153

1. 30% of India is affected by land degradation, within which 25% is undergoing desertification
2. dryland regions in India constitute 69% of total area
3. main drivers of LD&D in India are: water erosion, wind erosion, vegetation degradation (deforestation and salinisation)
4. LD&D is a problem in humid and wetter regions as well
5. states with highest % of area under LD&D: JH (65%)> RJ (63%) > Delhi (60%) > GJ > Goa

Question 154

Bonn challenge?

Answer 154

1. Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of deforested and degraded land into restoration by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030.
2. The 2020 target was launched at a high level event in Bonn in 2011 organised by the Government of Germany and IUCN, and was later endorsed and extended to 2030 by the New York Declaration on Forests of the 2014 UN Climate Summit.
3. Underlying the Bonn Challenge is the forest landscape restoration (FLR) approach, which aims to restore ecological integrity at the same time as improving human well-being through multifunctional landscapes.
4. It will create approximately USD 84 billion per year in net benefits that could bring direct additional income opportunities for rural communities.
5. At the UNFCC Conference of the Parties (COP) 2015 in Paris, India also joined the voluntary Bonn Challenge pledge

Question 155

forest landscape restoration (FLR) approach?

Answer 155

1. aims to restore ecological integrity at the same time as improving human well-being through multifunctional landscapes.
2. FLR is more than just planting trees – it is restoring a whole landscape to meet present and future needs.
3. It is long-term because it requires a multi-year vision of the ecological functions.
4. The majority of restoration opportunities are found on or adjacent to agricultural or pastoral land. In these situations, restoration must complement and not displace existing land uses.
5. This result in a mosaic of different land uses including: agriculture, agroforestry systems and improved ecological corridors.
6. It integrates a number of guiding principles, including:
   
   • Focus on landscapes,
   • restore functionality,
   • Involve stakeholders,
   • Tailor to local conditions and
   • Avoid further reduction of natural forest cover.

Question 156

India’s efforts against Land degradation and desertification?

Answer 156

1. signatory to UNCCD and ratified it in 1996
2. National action Plan for Combating desertification(2001), as was obligated under UNCCD
   
   1. conduction of soil surveys and land degradation assessments: thru remote sensing
   2. Drought monitoring and mgmt: also programmes like Desert Development Program and Drought prone area Program (DPAP) fr drought mgmt in the country
   3. watershed mgmt: IWMP implemented by MoRD
   4. afforestation and reforesttaion thru GIM
   5. IWDP for eco-restoration of degraded lands
3. India is a party to strategic framework 2018-30 to UNCCD
4. INdia joined Bonn challenge at COP-Paris and pledged to restore 21 mn Ha by 2030. India later upscaled her pledge at CoP-14 of UNCCD to 26mn Ha
5. India recently launched a flagship project on enhancing capacity on forest landscape restoration (FLR) and Bonn Challenge in India, through a pilot phase of 3.5 years implemented in the States of Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Nagaland and Karnataka.

Question 157

New Delhi declaration?

Answer 157

adopted by UNCCD members at CoP-14 of UNCCD hosted by India , taking the President chair frm china till 2021.

It has 35 decisions that are legally binding on all parties. Important ones are:

1. combat LD&D and mitigate effects of droughts
2. participation frm civil society orgs, local govts and pvt sector crucial
3. implementation of UNCCD shud be community driven and gender-sensitive at local, national and regional levels

Peace Forest initiative: develop forests in conflicted areas and demilitarized zone of N & S Korea.

Question 158

Peace Park?

Answer 158

already existing forest conflict borders of Peru an Ecuador

Question 159

oceanic env classification?

Answer 159

pelagic: open sea env
benthic: ocean bottom

Question 160

zonation of pelagic env?

Answer 160

Neritic and oceanic are horizontal divisions

1. neritic: extends frm shore to seaward upto the point where floor is at less than 200m
2. oceanic province: ocean floor beyond 200m depth. further vertically divided into 4 zones:
   
   1. epipelagic: water upto 200m depth
   2. mesopelagic: 200-1000m depth
   3. bathypelagic: 1000-4000m depth
   4. abyssopelagic: >4000m depth

Question 161

zonation of benthic env?

Answer 161

1. subneretic: oceanic floor below neretic waters i.e. oceanic floor frm HTL to the point where it is at depth of 200m. sub-divided into
   
   1. littoral: HTL to LTL
   2. Sub-littoral: LTL to 200m depth point
2. sub-oceanic: oceanic floor below pelagic waters
   
   1. Bathyl: depth of 200 to 4000m.It corresponds to sea bottom of Continental shelf
   2. Abyssal zone: 4000-6000m depth
   3. Hadal zone: > 6000m depth

Question 162

classifiation of marine life-forms based on mobility?

Answer 162

Plankton: drifters; most of oceanic biomass are these.

nektons: swimmers

Benthos: bottom dwellers; most of marine organisms are benthic

Question 163

Global initiatives for protection of Marine env?

Answer 163

1. MARPOL 73/78
2. UNCLOS
3. Marine protected Areas
4. minamata convention

Question 164

MARPOL 73/78?

Answer 164

adopted in 1973 at INternational Maritime Org. modifed by Protocol of 1978.

India is a party

covers the follwing:

1. pollution by oil
2. pollution by Noxious liquid substances in Bulk
3. by harmful substances carried by sea in packaged form
4. by sewage frm ships
5. by garbage frm ships
6. air pollution frm ships

Question 165

UNCLOS and marine pollution?

Answer 165

covers

1. land based and coastal activities
2. continental shelf-drilling
3. seabed mining
4. ocean dumping
5. vessel source pollution
6. pollution frm or through atm

India is a party to UNCLOS

Question 166

Marine Protected areas?

Answer 166

World Summit on Sustainable Development, Jo’berg 2002, called fr implementation of MPAs an development of a network of MPAs by 2012

these are areas where human activities detrimental to marine env are regulated and controlld

states committed to target at least 10% of areas under their jurisdiction as MPAs

in India most of MPAs were designated during 80s and 90s, notified as NPs or WLS under WPA,1972. eg.

• Gulf of Mannar NP
• Sunderbans NP
• Gulf of Kachh NP
• bhitarkanika NP

Question 167

Minamata convention?

Answer 167

need: every yr, abt 9000T of Hg released to atm, soil and water

highlights of MInamata convention:

1. ban on new Hg mines and phase-out of existing ones
2. phase-out and phase-down of Hg use in products
3. control measures on emissions to air and land and water
4. regulation of informal sectorof artisanal and small scale gold mining
5. interim storage of Hg and its disposal once it becomes waste

Question 168

anthropogenically forced tropical expansion?

Answer 168

anthropogenic CC led poleward migration of tropical cyclone activity

Question 169

SROCC: Ocean warming?

Answer 169

1. global ocean has taken up more than 90% of the excess heat in the climate system.
2. Since 1993, the rate of ocean warming has more than doubled.
3. Marine heatwaves have very likely doubled in frequency since 1982 and are increasing in intensity.
4. GW has led to deoxygenation. open ocean has lost 0.5-3.3% of O2 frm its upper layers since 1970s leading to creation of Oxygen minimum zones, dead zones and harmful Algal blooms
5. Long lag times at work in oceans mean that some of these changes will inevitably intensify over centuries — even if the world stopped emitting all its greenhouses gases tomorrow.

Question 170

SROCC: sea level rise?

Answer 170

1. Sea level rise coz of 3 possible reasons:
   
   • thermal expansion of ocean
   • changes in amt of water stored on land in reservoirs and GW
   • melting of glaciers and ice sheets
2. thermal expansion was the main factor in 20th century, bt melting of ice might be the main factor in 21st century
3. Globally sea levels are estimated to rise 1.1 metre by 2100, if countries are not able to restrict emissions “well below” 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, as stated in the 2015 Paris climate agreement.
4. But, even if countries are able to restrict emissions, it is still estimated to rise 30-60 centimetres by 2100.
5. Fifty per cent of coastal wetlands have been lost over the last 100 years.
6. study found that 300 million people, and not 80 million as estimated earlier, across the globe were currently living in areas that were below the annual coastal flood line. China alone accounted for 43 million.
7. 36 million people along the Indian coastlines currently live on land that will fall below the annual flood level by 2050, exposing them to risks of flooding. Previous estimate was 5mn people
8. vulnerable areas in India: Bhuj, Jamnagar, Porbandar, Surat, Bharuch and Mumbai; almost the entire coastline of West Bengal and Odisha

Question 171

SROCC: cryosphere?

Answer 171

1. Between 2006 and 2015, the Greenland ice sheet lost ice-mass at an average rate of 278 billion tonnes every year, while the Antarctic ice sheet lost a mass of 155 billion tonnes on an average every year.
2. Snow over areas outside of these two regions, like the glaciers in the Himalayas, together lost an average of 220 billion tonnes of ice every year.
3. In the Himalayas, glaciers feeding 10 rivers, including the Ganges and the Yangtze, could shrink dramatically if emissions do not fall, hitting water supplies across a swathe of Asia.
4. Thawing permafrost in places such as Alaska and Siberia could release vast quantities of greenhouse gases, potentially unleashing feedback loops driving faster warming.

Question 172

Marine Heat waves?

Answer 172

1. occur when ocean temperatures for a particular oceanic location are unusually extremely warm for an extended period and time of year
2. can occur in summer or winter
3. SROCC findings:
   
   • Marine heat waves have become twice more frequent in the past four decades and are lasting longer.
   • The report finds that human activities are responsible for 84 to 90 per cent of the marine heat waves that occurred in the last one decade
   • By 2081, the frequency of marine heat waves could jump by 20 to 50 times.
4. impacts:
   
   • Marine heat waves have resulted in large-scale coral bleaching, which takes more than 15 years for corals to recover from.
   • Marine heat waves reduce mixing between water layers
   • boosted the growth of toxin-producing algae
   • more pronounced effect of marine heat waves would be on global wind circulation and ocean currents. report indicates, the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC), which ensures northward flow of warm, salty water in the upper layers of the Atlantic and a southward flow of colder, deep waters, has already weakened. Any substantial weakening of the AMOC would cause further decrease in marine productivity in the North Atlantic, more storms in Northern Europe, less Sahelian summer rainfall and South Asian summer rainfall, a reduced number of tropical cyclones in the Atlantic and an increase in regional sea level along the northeast coast of North America
5. Ocean currents cannot dissipate Marine Heat waves but rather carry it

Question 173

Arrange the following in decreasing order of productivity:

• Ocean
• Grasslands
• lakes
• mangroves

Answer 173

Oceans> mangroves > lakes> grasslands

Question 174

T/F:

1. wetlands are generally found in tropics and sub-tropics.
2. wetlands can be either static or flowing water.
3. wetlands are permanently covered by water.

Answer 174

1. F; fund across latitudes
2. T
3. F

Question 175

wetlands: defn? types? global area?

Answer 175

areas with open standing water (water table is at surface and ground is saturated with water) with vegetation.

types:

• marine
• estuarine
• lacustrine
• riverine
• palustrine: marshy

global area figures not exactly known. UNEP estimates 570-700mn Ha

Question 176

Ramsar convention?

Answer 176

1. Need: According to global estimates, the extent of wetland in the world has declined between 64-71% in the 20th century.
2. signed in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar and is one of the oldest inter-governmental accord for preserving the ecological character of wetlands. entered into force in 1975. india signed on in 1981.
3. only global env treaty dealing with a particular ecosystem
4. Ramsar Convention is not legally binding
5. It is also not part of the United Nations and UNESCO system of environmental conventions and agreements.
6. fundamental pillars: “wise use” and “ecosystem approach”
7. every member has to desigate at least one wetland as ramsar site
8. 5 International organisation partners: Birdlife International, IUCN, International Water Mgmt Institute, Wetlands iNternational and WWF

Question 177

9 criterias for ramsar site designation?

Answer 177

1. representative of unique, rare wetland type

for conserving BD

• based on species and ecological communities
  
  1. supports vulnerable, endagered or critically endangered species
  2. supports pop of plant/animal species important fr maintaining BD of a particular biogeographic region
  3. supports plant/animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provide refuge durin adverse conditions
• criteria based on waterbirdds
  
  1. regularly supports 20000 or more waterbirds
  2. regularly supports 1% of individuals in a pop of one species or subspecies of a waterbird
• criteria based on fish
  
  1. supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies
  2. it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning grnd, nursery and/or migration path
• criteria based on other taxa
  
  1. regularly supports 1% of individuals in a pop of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species

Question 178

Ramsar sites : global facts?

Answer 178

world’s first Ramsar Site was the Cobourg Peninsula (Australia)

United Kingdom has the highest number of Ramsar Sites (175)

Ngiri-Tumba-Maindombe in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Queen Maud Gulf in Canada is the largest Ramsar sites

Examples of trans-boundary sites: Domica – Baradla Cave System (Hungary and Slovakia), “Complexe Transfrontalier Lac Télé – Grands Affluents – Lac Tumba” (Congo and DRC)- the largest trans-boundary Ramsar site.

Question 179

Ramsar Wetlands in India: overview?

Answer 179

1. joined in 1981
2. 37 sites in india covering 1 mn Ha
3. first designated in india: Chilika lake and Keoladeo NP in 1981
4. largest: Sunderbans (designated in 2019)
5. 2nd largest: Vembnad Kol, Kerala
6. smallest: Renuka wetland, HP

Question 180

Ramsar sites in India: Northern grp?

Answer 180

J&K

1. wular lake
2. Hokera wetland
3. Surinsar mansar lakes

Ladakh

1. Tsomoriri lake
2. Tso-Kar wetland complex (2020)

PJ

1. nangal WLS
2. Ropar
3. kanjli
4. Harike lake
5. Beas conservation reserve
6. Keshopur-Miani community reserve

HP

1. Pong dam lake
2. Renuka wetland
3. Chandertal wetland

Haryana

1. Bhindawas WLS
2. Sultanpur NP

Question 181

Ramsar sites in India: Central and northern India (UP, RJ and MP)?

Answer 181

UP

1. upper Ganga river
2. Saman Bird sanctuary
3. sarsai Nawar Jheel
4. sandi Bird sanctuary
5. Nawabganj Bir sanctuary
6. Samaspur Bird sanctuary
7. parvati arga BS
8. Bakhira WLS
9. Haiderpur wetland
10. Asan Conservation Reserve
11. Sur Sarovar

Bihar

1. Kabartal wetlands

RJ

1. Sambhar lake
2. Keolaeo NP

MP

1. Bhoj wetland

Question 182

Ramsar sites in India: west India?

Answer 182

GJ

1. Nalsarovar
2. Khijadiya BS
3. Thol Lake WLS
4. Wadhvana wetland

MH

1. nandur Madhameshwar
2. Lonar Lake (2020)

Question 183

Ramsar sites in India: eastern india?

Answer 183

Assam

1. Deepor beel

Manipur

1. Loktak lake

Tripura

1. Rudrasagar lake

WB

1. East Calcutta wetlands
2. sunderban wetlands

Odisha

1. Bhitarkanika wetlands
2. Chilika lake

AndhraP

1. Kolleru lake

Question 184

Ramsar sites in India: south India?

Answer 184

Kerala

1. Vembnad Kol wetland
2. Sasthamkotta wetland
3. Ashtamudi wetland

TN

1. Point calimere WL & BS

Question 185

Ramsar sites in India: Ashtamudi wetland?

Answer 185

Kerala

· It is a backwater.

· Kallada River is a major river discharging into the Ashtamudi Lake.

· Munroe Island is a cluster of eight tiny islands in the Lake.

Question 186

Ramsar sites in India: Beas conservation reserve?

Answer 186

Punjab

· It is a 185-kilometre stretch of the Beas River.

· It hosts the only known population in India of the endangered Indus river dolphin

Question 187

Ramsar sites in India: BHitarkanika reserve?

Answer 187

Odisha

· It is a mangrove wetland in the Brahmani and Baitarani river deltas.

· It is a part of the Bhitarkanika wildlife sanctuary whose core is the Bhitarkanika national park.

· It is popular for Olive Ridleys turtles and Gharials

Question 188

Ramsar sites in India: bhoj wetland?

Answer 188

Madhya Pradesh

· It consists of two manmade reservoirs- Bhojtal (Upper Lake) & the Lower Lake

Question 189

Ramsar sites in India: Chandra Taal?

Answer 189

Himachal Pradesh

· It is a high-altitude lake on the upper Chandra valley, located near the Kunzam pass joining the Himalayan and Pir Panchal ranges.

· It supports Snow Leopards, Snow Cock, Chukor, Red fox etc.

Question 190

Ramsar sites in India: Chilika lake?

Answer 190

Odisha

· It is Asia’s largest brackish water lake.

· It is located at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal.

· First wetland from India to be included in the Ramsar List.

Question 191

Ramsar sites in India: Deepor Beel?

Answer 191

Assam

· It is a permanent freshwater lake, in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River

Question 192

Ramsar sites in India: East Calcutta wetlands?

Answer 192

West Bengal

· They are a complex of natural and man-made wetlands located in the east of Kolkata.

· They serve variety of functions- treating Kolkata’s sewage, and the nutrients from wastewater support pisciculture and agriculture

Question 193

Ramsar sites in India: Hokera wetlan?

Answer 193

UT of Jammu and Kashmir

contiguous to the Jhelum basin.

only site with remaining reedbeds of Kashmir and pathway of 68 waterfowl species

Question 194

Ramsar sites in India: Kanjili wetland?

Answer 194

Punjab

· It is a man-made wetland, which subsumes the Kanjli Lake. The lake was created by constructing the headworks across the bien river, a tributary of the Beas River.

Question 195

Ramsar sites in India: Keoladeo NP?

Answer 195

It is a man-made wetland. It was formerly known as Bharatpur Bird sanctuary

It is formed by inundation of Gambira and Banganga rivers

· It is also a World Heritage Site

one of only two ramsar sites frm India in Montreux record

Question 196

Ramsar sites in India: Kolleru Lake?

Answer 196

Andhra Pradesh

· Largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia

· It is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas

Question 197

Ramsar sites in India: Keshopur-Miani Community reserve?

Answer 197

Punjab

· It is the first-ever notified community reserve of India under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

It is heavily human influenced and includes a series of managed fishponds and cultivated crops such as lotus and chestnut.

Threatened species present include the vulnerable common pochard and the endangered spotted pond turtle.

Question 198

Ramsar sites in India: Loktak lake?

Answer 198

Manipur

· It is a freshwater lake

It is famous for Phumdis- floating mass of entangled vegetation formed by the accumulation of organic debris and biomass with soil.

Keibul Lamjao National Park which is the only floating National Park in the world is located on the Loktak Lake.

one of only two ramsar sites frm India in Montreux record

Question 199

Ramsar sites in India: Nandur Madhmeshwar?

Answer 199

1. Maharashtra- first and only in MH
2. added in 2019
3. It is a mosaic of lakes, marshes and riparian forest on the Deccan Plateau·
4. It was created by construction of the Nandur Madhameshwar Weir at the confluence of the Godavari and Kadwa Rivers
5. Its diverse habitats contrast with the surrounding semi-arid conditions caused by the rain shadow of the Western Ghats mountain range
6. It provides sanctuary to critically endangered species including Deolali minnow, Indian vulture, white-rumped vulture

Question 200

Ramsar sites in India: Khijadiya BS?

Answer 200

Jamnagar, GJ

notified in 2021

1. is a freshwater wetland along the coastline of Kutch that was developed in the 1920s as a result of the construction of a bund (dike) by the then ruler of the formerly princely state of Nawanagar to safeguard farmlands against saltwater intrusion.
2. The Khijadiya Wildlife Sanctuary / khijadiya bird sanctuary jamnagar is a part of the Marine National Park, Jamnagar, the India’s first marine national park.
3. part of the Central Asian Flyway. Khijadiya is an essential stopover for migratory birds on their way from Europe to Central Asia and vice versa. It is also a breeding ground for many residents and migratory bird species.

Question 201

Ramsar sites in India: Bakhira WLS?

Answer 201

UP

notified in 2022

1. is a freshwater wetland in the Sant Kabir Nagar district of eastern UP

Question 202

Ramsar sites in India: Haiderpur wetland?

Answer 202

UP

notified in 2021

1. located on the Muzaffarnagar-Bijnor border between the Ganges and the Solani River
2. is an artificial lake situated in the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary.
3. Birds are drawn to this area because of its biodiversity. Exotic birds travel here after crossing Mongolia’s hills.

Question 203

Ramsar sites in India: Bhindawas WLS?

Answer 203

Haryana

notified in 2021

• It is the largest wetland site in the state of Haryana.
• It is a human-made freshwater wetland.
• It is the first Ramsar site in Haryana.
• The site is located in the Jhajjar district
• also a BS; imp species found are endangered Egyptian Vulture, Steppe Eagle, Pallas’s Fish Eagle

Question 204

Ramsar sites in India: Sultanpur NP?

Answer 204

Haryana

notified in 2021

1. near Gurugram
2. includes ten globally threatened species, like the sociable lapwing, the endangered Egyptian Vulture

Question 205

Ramsar sites in India: Thol Lake WLS?

Answer 205

GJ

notified in 2021

1. is an artificial lake at Thol village in Mehsana district
2. located on the Central Asian Flyway
3. hosts more than 30 threatened waterbird species, like the critically endangered White-rumped Vulture and Sociable Lapwing, the vulnerable Sarus Crane, Common Pochard

Question 206

Ramsar sites in India: Wadhwana wetland?

Answer 206

GJ

notified in 2021

in Vadodara district

Question 207

Ramsar sites in India: Nangal WLS?

Answer 207

Punjab

· It occupies a human-made reservoir constructed as part of the Bhakra-Nangal Project.

· It supports endangered Indian pangolin and Egyptian vulture

· It is of historic importance as the Indian and Chinese Prime Ministers formalized the “Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence” here in 1954

added in 2019

Question 208

Ramsar sites in India: Nawabganj Bird sanctuary?

Answer 208

Unnao, UP

It is a shallow marshland. Monsoon rains feed this diverse wetland while the Sarda Canal supplies additional water.

It supports endangered Egyptian vulture and Pallas’s fish eagle. It is also known to host Siberian cranes among migratory bird species that rest here during the winter months.

The highly invasive common water hyacinth poses a threat, as does the removal of timber from the forests.

added in 2019

Question 209

Ramsar sites in India: parvati Arga BS?

Answer 209

Uttar Pradesh

· It is a permanent rain-fed freshwater lakes environment consisting of two oxbow lakes.

Sanctuary is a refuge for some of India’s threatened vulture species: the critically endangered white-rumped vulture and Indian vulture and the endangered Egyptian vulture

Invasive species such as the common water hyacinth along with the development of roads and railways present significant threats.

added in 2019

Question 210

Ramsar sites in India: Point Calimere WL & BS?

Answer 210

Tamil Nadu

· It is home to near threatened blackbuck antelope, an endemic mammal species of India.

Question 211

Ramsar sites in India: Pong dam lake?

Answer 211

Himachal Pradesh

· Pong dam is a man-made dam on Beas river.

· The lake is also known as Maharana Pratap Sagar

Question 212

Ramsar sites in India: Renuka wetlands?

Answer 212

Himachal Pradesh

· It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations

Question 213

Ramsar sites in India: Ropar wetlands?

Answer 213

Punjab

· It is a man-made freshwater riverine and lacustrine wetland.

Question 214

Ramsar sites in India: Rudrasagar lake?

Answer 214

Tripura

· It is a lowland sedimentation reservoir, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti

Question 215

Ramsar sites in India: saman BS?

Answer 215

1. Mainpuri, Uttar Pradesh
2. It is a seasonal oxbow lake on the Ganga floodplain
3. particularly important as a wintering site for many migrants including the greylag goose, with over 1% of the South Asian population present during winter.
4. added in 2019

Question 216

Ramsar sites in India: samaspur BS?

Answer 216

RaeBareli, Uttar Pradesh

It is a perennial lowland marsh on Indo-Gangetic Plains. Its six connected lakes are heavily dependent on monsoon rains.

Sanctuary harbours threatened species such as the endangered Egyptian vulture and Pallas’s fish eagle and more than 1% of the South Asian population of the vulnerable common pochard.

A tall grass called “Sarpat” is also found in bunches at every spot.

added in 2019

Question 217

Ramsar sites in India: Sambhar lake?

Answer 217

ajasthan

· It is India’s largest inland saltwater lake.

Question 218

Ramsar sites in India: sandi BS?

Answer 218

Uttar Pradesh

aka “Dahar Jheel”

It is a freshwater marsh on Indo-Gangetic plains

also designated as Important Bird Area by Birdlife International.

River Garra, formerly known as Garun Ganga, passes near the sanctuary.

It is home to over 1% of the South Asian populations of common teal, red-crested pochard and ferruginous duck while vulnerable sarus crane has a population of 200 individuals within the Sanctuary

Question 219

Ramsar sites in India: Sarsai nawar Jheel?

Answer 219

Uttar Pradesh

It is a permanent marsh.

It is an example of co-habitation of humans and wildlife: farming practices across most of the Site play important roles in sustaining the waterbird habitats.

A particular beneficiary is the vulnerable sarus crane, with a population of 400 individuals making up the largest flock in the region. Other threatened species present include the critically endangered white-rumped vulture and endangered woolly-necked stork.

It is recognized by Birdlife International as an Important Bird Area.

Question 220

Ramsar sites in India: Sasthamkotta lake?

Answer 220

Kerala

· It is a freshwater lake

Question 221

Ramsar sites in India: Surinsar Mansar lakes?

Answer 221

UT of Jammu and Kashmir

Freshwater composite lake in semi-arid Panjab Plains, adjoining the Jhelum Basin

socially and culturally very important with many temples around owing to its mythical origin from the Mahabharata period

Question 222

Ramsar sites in India: Tsomoriri lake?

Answer 222

UT of Ladakh

· It is an endorheic lake. Water is brackish.

· It hosts endangered Black-necked cranes. It is also the only breeding ground for Bar-headed geese in India.

Question 223

Ramsar sites in India: Upper ganga river?

Answer 223

UP

Brijghat to Narora Stretch

It hosts Gangetic River Dolphin and Gharial

Question 224

Ramsar sites in India: Vembnad-Kol wetland?

Answer 224

Kerala

· It is the longest lake in India

· It is fed by 10 rivers- all of which originate from the Western Ghats, flow westwards through the wetland system and join Arabian Sea.

Question 225

Ramsar sites in India: Beas Conservation reserve?

Answer 225

• punjab
• added in 2019
• River is dotted with islands, sand bars and braided channels creating a complex environment supporting substantial biodiversity
• Reserve hosts the only known population in India of the endangered Indus river dolphin. Further threatened species include the endangered masheer and hog deer as well as the vulnerable smooth-coated otter.
• programme was initiated to re-introduce the critically endangered gharial

Question 226

Ramsar sites in India added in 2019?

Answer 226

1. Nandur Madhyameshwar, MH- first frm MH
2. Nawabganj BS, UP
3. Parvati Arga BS, UP
4. saman BS, UP
5. Samaspur BS, UP
6. Sandi BS, UP
7. Sarsai Nawar Jheel, UP
8. Keshopur Miani Community reserve, PJ
9. Beas conservation reserve, PJ
10. nangal WLS, PJ

Question 227

Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2017: applicable to?

Answer 227

1. Ramsar sites
2. wetlands notified by CG, SG and UT admin

Question 228

Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2017: wetlands that cnnot be notified under them?

Answer 228

1. river channels
2. paddy fields
3. human made waster bodies specifically constructed for:
   
   1. DW
   2. aquaculture
   3. salt production
   4. recreation
   5. irrigation
4. Wetlands falling within areas covered under Indian Forest act 1927, Forest Conservation act 1980, state forest acts, WPA 1972 and Coastal regulation Zone notification 2011

Question 229

Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2017: highlights?

Answer 229

1. wet land as defined in the ramsar convention
2. important keywords
   
   1. wise use of wetlands: maintenance of their ecological character achieved through implementation of ecosystem approach
   2. ecological character: combination of ecosystem components, processes and services that define the wetland at a given point in time
   3. precautionary approach
   4. zone of influence: an area where carrying out of developmental activities will cause adverse changes in wetland ecosystem
3. authorities: CG shall constitute respective State wetlands Authority as well as a National Wetlands Authority
4. prohibited and regulated activities
5. violations -> penal provisions under EPA 1986

Question 230

Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2017: authorities?

Answer 230

aims to decentralise wetlands management by giving state powers to identify, notify as well as regulate acc to rules. CG will only have monitiring powers

State Wetland sAuthorities will identify and notify the wetlands marking their boundaries as well as ‘zone of influence’ for each of them

Permission for carrying out ant prohibited activity within a notified wetland can be given only by MoEFCC after a request is made by State Govt on the advice of State wetland authority

Question 231

Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2017: prohibited activities?

Answer 231

1. conversion for non-wetland uses including encroachment of any kind
2. setting up of any industry and expansion of existing industries;
3. Solid waste dumping, Discharge of untreated wastes and effluents/hazardous wastes/e-wastes from industries
4. any construction of permanent nature except for boat jetties within 50m
5. Poaching

Question 232

Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2017: regulated activities?

Answer 232

1. • Subsistence level biomass harvesting (including traditional practices),
2. Sustainable culture fisheries practices,
3. Plying of non-motorized boats;
4. Construction of temporary nature.
5. Desilting in cases where wetlands’ nature is impacted by silting

Question 233

Mangroves; adaptations that allow them to survive in brackish waters?

Answer 233

Pneumatophores: aka aerial Breathing roots; specialized above ground roots which takes up O2 frm atm

Stilt roots: roots diverge frm stems and branches and pnetrate into soil some distance away from the main stem; roots have many pores through which atm O2 enters into the roots.

Question 234

global plastic platform?

Answer 234

by UNEP and EU

2018

Question 235

NAAQS

Answer 235

standards for ambient air quality set by CPCB

launched in 2009

CPCB hsa been conferred this power by Air (P&C of Pollution) Act, 1981

stds prescribed for PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb

Question 236

National Air Quality Monitoring Program?

Answer 236

1. launched yb CPCB in 1984
2. monitors:
   
   1. four air pollutants:
      
      • SO2
      • NOx
      • Respirable PM/PM10
      • Fine PM/PM2.5
   2. Meteorological parameters like
      
      • wind speed
      • wind direction
      • relative humidity
      • Temperature

Question 237

Air Quality Index (AQI)?

Answer 237

1. used to express weighted values of individual air pollution related parameters into a single number
2. developed and operationalised by CPCB and SPCBs
3. launched in 2015; covers 57 cities
4. 8 parameters are covered for which short term (24-hr) stds are prescribed
   
   • PM10
   • PM2.5
   • NO2
   • SO2
   • CO
   • O3
   • NH3
   • Pb
5. categories depending on AQI values
   
   • 0-50: Good
   • 51-100: satisfactory-minor breathing discomfort to sensitive people
   • 101-200: moderate-breathing discomfort to people with respiratory issues
   • 201-300: Poor- breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure
   • 301-400: very poor- respiratory illness on prolonged exposure
   • 401-500: severe- affects healthy people as well

Question 238

SAFAR?

Answer 238

1. indigenous real-time warning system for air qlty
2. developed by IITM, Pune and IMD
3. comes under Min of Earth Sciences
4. monitors air qlty in different cities and issues bulletins
5. IN addition to usual pollutants (PM2.5, PM1, SO2, O3, NOx, CO) also covers benzene, Toluene and Xylene + weather parameters like T, rf, RH, wind speed and direction

Question 239

Olive Ridley Turtle?

Answer 239

The Olive Ridley Turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.
• These turtles, along with their cousin, Kemps Ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada

IUCN Vulnerable and CITES Appendix I

They are carnivores, and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails etc.

Government Initiatives
• The Coast Guard had launched the ‘Operation Oliva’ exercise as part of its annual mission to ensure the safe mid-sea sojourn of breeding Olive Ridley sea turtles.
• Operation Save Kurma: species specific operation on Turtles by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau.
• The Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 and its latest amendments in 2006 provide legal protection to all the sea turtle species occurring in the state.

Question 240

IUCN’s Protected Area Management Categories

Answer 240

Category I a– Strict Nature Reserve: Protected areas managed mainly for science and receives least human intervention. E.g. Urwald Rothwald in Austria

Category I b – Wilderness Area: Wilderness protection. E.g. wilderness areas in the Sami native region in Finland

Category II – National Park: ecosystem protection and recreation

Category III – Natural Monument or Feature: Conservation of specific natural features. E.g. cliffs, caves, forest groves. E.g. Cono de Arita in Argentina.

Category IV – Habitat/Species Management Area: Conservation of specific species which require protection.

Category V – Protected Landscape/Seascape: Conservation of entire area. It permits surrounding community to interact. Example: Great Barrier Reef in Australia

Category VI – Protected Area with sustainable use of natural resources: Conservation of ecosystem and habitats together with associated cultural values and traditional natural resource management systems.

Question 241

World Commission on Protected Areas?

Answer 241

one of six commissions of the IUCN.

It was established in 1960

It is administered by IUCN’s Global Programme on Protected Areas.

•The main function of the Commission is to provide scientific and technical advice to governments on matters related to Protected Areas.

Question 242

Prototheria? metatheria? Eutheria?

Answer 242

1. Prototheria: mammals that lay eggs aka Monotremes.
   
   1. There are only five living monotreme species: the duck-billed platypus and four species of echidna (also known as spiny anteaters).
   2. All of them are found only in Australia and New Guinea.
   3. The name monotreme means one-holed. They have a single posterior opening, the cloaca, for excretion and reproduction.
   4. Monotremes resemble other mammals in producing milk to nourish their young
2. metatheria: giving birth to live young aka marsupials; usually pouched; They give live birth, but they do not have long gestation times like placental mammals.
3. Eutheria: placental mammals

Question 243

T/F: The southern most part of the boreal ecosystem is flanked by tree line.

Answer 243

F

Taiga, also called boreal forest is a biome (major life zone) of vegetation composed primarily of cone-bearing needle leaved or scale leaved evergreen trees, found in northern circumpolar forested regions.

tree line is the edge of the habitat at which trees are capable of growing.

Thus tree line forms the northern most part of Boreal biome. Beyond the tree line, tundra ecosystem is present.

Question 244

ecads?

Answer 244

aka ecophenes, ecads are genetically similar but morphologically distinct in response to different environmental conditions. The variation in morphological characters with respect to leaf shape, number of branches, height of the individuals, and length, number and colour of inflorescences according to the intensity of light available.

eg. Plantago Lanceolata, populations adapted to either sun or shaded habitats show large differences in growth form.

factors that play a role in variation in ecads:

• Temperature
• soil moisture
• intensity of light
• soil nutrients eg. content of metals in the soil

Question 245

Byssinosis?

Answer 245

1. Byssinosis is a rare lung disease.
2. It’s caused by inhaling hemp, flax, and cotton particles and is sometimes referred to as brown lung disease. It’s a form of occupational asthma.
3. occurs almost exclusively in people who work with unprocessed cotton. People who open bales of cotton during the first stage of processing are at the highest risk.
4. There’s also a type of byssinosis called grain worker’s lung that appears in people who work with grains.
5. Some develop “Monday fever” when they are exposed to the dust as they return to work after a break.

Question 246

In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be?

Answer 246

long-lived

mobile

soluble in fats

Question 247

Pyrolysis?

Answer 247

1. different from combustion because the combustion is carried out in the presence of an excessive amount of oxygen.
2. Pyrolysis is the process of thermal conversion of organic matter using a catalyst in the absence of oxygen or near absence. Therefore, it is the decomposition of material in an inert atmosphere. It is a chemical reaction that includes alteration of the chemical composition of the material.
3. Moreover, it is a reversible process.
4. heating a material to a temperature above its decomposition temperature. It breaks down the chemical bonds of the material.
5. this process usually forms small molecules from large fragments. But, these small molecules can combine, forming large molecular masses as well.
6. process proceeds at temperatures ranging from 350°C – 600°C
7. pyrolysis is useful for applications in food manufacturing, i.e. caramelization, production of fuel from biomass, production of ethylene, to treat plastic waste, etc. Thus not directly used for production of electricity

Question 248

Gasification?

Answer 248

1. is a thermo-chemical process that converts biomass into a combustible gas called producer gas (syngas).
2. the materials decompose in an environment where a little amount of oxygen is present. However, this amount of oxygen is not enough for combustion.
3. The products of gasification are heat and combustible gas.
4. The process proceeds at temperatures ranging from 800°C – 1200°C
5. principle components in the combustible gas that forms during this process include carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas. In addition, there are some other components such as water vapour, carbon dioxide, tar vapour, ash, etc.
6. gasification is useful for heat production, production of electricity, etc.

Question 249

Dioxins and Furans?

Answer 249

eg of POPs

do not occur naturally, nor they are produced intentionally. In fact these are the byproducts of industrial and pollution control related operations, barring few catastrophic or accidental origins like volcanoes, forest fires and accidental fires etc.

sources:

• Municipal solid waste/bio-medical/hazardous waste incinerator
• open burning of domestic waste
• industrial boiler and furnaces
• petroleum refining
• Biogas combustion and landfill gas combustion,
• Candles, Crematoriums, Cigarette smoking
• Dyes and pigments
• Motor vehicle fuel combustion (Diesel and gasoline), Coal combustion for industrial, residential and commercial purposes.

Question 250

syngas?

Answer 250

1. synthesis gas, which is a mixture comprising carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide (small amts), and hydrogen
2. produced by gasification of a carbon-containing fuel to a gaseous product that has some heating value. eg. gasification of coal emissions, waste emissions to energy gasification, and steam reforming of coke.
3. by-products of coal gasification include coke, coal tar, sulfur, ammonia and fly ash
4. application: production of electricity, fuel for IC engines, making plastics, cement etc.
5. India’s first coal gasification based fertiliser plant to be set up in Talcher, Odisha.

Question 251

PM JI-VAN yojana?

Answer 251

Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran

1. for providing financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.
2. 2018-19 to 2023-24
3. 12 Commercial Scale and 10 demonstration scale Second Generation (2G) ethanol Projects will be provided a VGF support in two phases
4. scheme focuses to incentivise 2G Ethanol sector and support this nascent industry by creating a suitable ecosystem for setting up commercial projects and increasing R&D in this area

Question 252

Danvius?

Answer 252

Fossils were recently unearthed in southern Germany of a remarkable ape that lived about 11.6 million years ago. Scientists called the ape Danvius Guggenmosi

combined attributes of humans - straight lower limbs adapted for bipedalism - with those of apes - long arms able to stretch out to grasp tree branches. That indicates Danuvius was able to walk upright on two legs and also use all four limbs while clambering through trees.

It is the oldest-known example of upright walking in apes. The discovery suggests that bipedalism originated in a common ancestor of humans and the great apes - a group that includes chimpanzees, bonobos, gorillas and orangutans - that inhabited Europe rather than an ancestor from Africa, the continent where our species Homo sapiens first appeared roughly 300,000 years ago.

Until now, the oldest fossil evidence of bipedalism in humankind’s evolutionary tree dated to about 6 million years ago: fossils from Kenya of an extinct member of the human lineage called Orrorin tugenensis as well as footprints on the Mediterranean island of Crete. If Danuvius turns out to be ancestral to humans, that would mean that some of its descendants at some point made their way to Africa.

Question 253

Cenospecies?

Answer 253

They are separate species of organisms that are related through their capability of interbreeding, such as dogs and wolves.

A cenospecies contains all those ecospecies so related that they are able to exchange genes among themselves to a limited extent through hybridization.

Question 254

Cryptic species?

Answer 254

The species which are alike on the basis of observed features but are genetically and sexually they are differ­ent are cryptic species.

There is a confusion between the terms sibling species and cryp­tic species.

The cryptic species are incapable of interbreeding but the sibling species can interbreed and are incapable of producing fertile hybrids.

Question 255

Sibling species?

Answer 255

Two or more than two closely related species which are mor­phologically alike but behaviourally or reproductively isolated from each other.

Examples are Drosophila persimilis and D. pseudoobscura. The mosquito Anopheles maculipennis complex consists of several sub­species, of which a few are vector of malaria and the rest are harmless.

sibling species can interbreed and are incapable of producing fertile hybrids.

Question 256

Monotypic species?

Answer 256

When a genus in­cludes a single species but does not include any subspecies

e.g., Vampyroteuthis, a vam­pire squid

Question 257

exoelectrogens?

Answer 257

The most promising Microbial Fuel Cells for commercialization in today’s energy industry are mediators MFC’s which use a special type of microorganism termed exoelectrogens. Exoelectrogens are electrochemically active bacteria.

Question 258

Advantages of microbial fuell cells?

Answer 258

1. MFCs use organic waste matter as fuels and readily available microbes as catalysts.
2. MFCs do not require highly regulated distribution systems like the ones needed for Hydrogen Fuel Cells.
3. MFCs have high conversion efficiency as compared to Enzymatic Fuel Cells, in harvesting up to 90% of the electrons from the bacterial electron transport system.

Question 259

GEMINI system: what u dnt knw?

Answer 259

1. Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information
2. Union Minister of Earth Sciences
3. based on GAGAN (GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) satellite system developed by ISRO. The GAGAN satellite system consists of three geosynchronous satellites namely the GSAT-8, GSAT-10 and GSAT-15 and these three cover the entire Indian Ocean region constantly.
4. GEMINI device only allows one-way communication, that a fisherman only received the warning related to cyclones, high waves and tsunamis in the sea. It can’t be used by fishermen to make calls.
5. developed by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) in collaboration with the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
6. GEMINI device will help in disseminating the information to fishermen who go in the sea beyond 50 nautical miles; sometimes up to 300 nautical miles and beyond to conduct multi day fishing.

Question 260

Bioindicatos: what u didn’t knw?

Answer 260

1. Bioindicators are organisms, such as lichens, birds and bacteria, that are used to monitor the health of the environment.
2. Examples of bioindicators : lichens , tubifex , insect larvae , frog , algal blooms etc .
3. Algae blooms are often used to indicate large increases of nitrates and phosphates in lakes and rivers.
4. Animals may also change their behaviour or physiology if a toxin is present. The levels of certain liver enzymes in fish increase if they are exposed to pollutants in the water.
5. Few tolerant species like tubifex and insect larvae may survive in highly polluted water with low dissolved oxygen content . Hence they indicate polluted water
6. Microorganisms can also be used as indicators of toxins in an ecosystem. Some microorganisms will produce stress proteins if exposed to certain pollutants. By measuring the levels of stress proteins, we can get an idea of the level of pollution present in the environment.
   7.

Question 261

sources of sulfur dioxide?

Answer 261

Burning of fossil fuels such as coal, oil and natural gas are the main source of sulfur dioxide emissions. coal-burning accounting for 50 per cent of annual emissions and oil-burning accounts for a further 25-30 per cent.

Natural sources:

• Volcanic eruptions
• hot springs
• Sulfur dioxide can even be produced by the reaction of hydrogen sulfide with the oxygen in the air. Hydrogen sulfide is released from marshes and regions in which biological decay is taking place.

Question 262

Biomining?

Answer 262

1. Biomining is the process of using microorganisms (microbes) to extract metals of economic interest from rock ores or mine waste. Biomining techniques may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals.
2. Delhi municipal corporation has started the process of “biomining and bioremediation” of the three landfills in Delhi namely Bhalswa, Okhla and Ghazipur.
3. Valuable metals are commonly bound up in solid minerals. Some microbes can oxidize those metals, allowing them to dissolve in water. This is the basic process behind most biomining. This is called “bioleaching”.
4. A different biomining technique, for metals which are not dissolved by the microbes like gold, uses microbes to break down the surrounding minerals, making it easier to recover the metal of interest directly from the remaining rock. when the metal of interest is made more accessible or “enriched” in the material left behind, it is called “biooxidation.”
5. target valuable metals like copper, uranium, nickel, and gold that are commonly found in sulfidic (sulfur-bearing) minerals.

Question 263

Ecotypes ?

Answer 263

1. species having a wide range of distribution which evolve genetically adapted local populations
2. Ecotypes differ from each other on the basis of morphological and physiological characters.
3. Ecotypes are inter-fertile. Though the different ecotypes of a species are morphologically and genetically distinct, yet because of their inter-fertility, they are put into one taxonomic species.

Question 264

“planetary boundaries”?

Answer 264

These are the thresholds below which humanity can continue to develop for generations to come.

Crossing these boundaries increases the risk of generating large-scale abrupt or irreversible environmental changes.

Introduced by a group of 28 internationally renowned scientists, in 2009,when they proposed to identify the nine processes that regulate the stability and resilience of the Earth system.

Question 265

Which of the following can aid in the cooling of earth?

1. Sulphates from the volcanic eruption
2. Salt particles
3. Pure nitrates

Answer 265

1. aerosols—and clouds seeded by them—reflect about a quarter of the Sun’s energy back to space.
2. Although most aerosols reflect sunlight, some also absorb it. An aerosol’s effect on light depends primarily on the composition and color of the particles.
3. Pure sulfates and nitrates reflect nearly all radiation they encounter, cooling the atmosphere.
4. Salt particles tend to reflect all the sunlight they encounter, thus helps in cooling the earth.
5. In 1991, the eruption of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines ejected more than 20 million tons of sulfur dioxide—a gas that reacts with other substances to produce sulfate aerosol—as high as 60 kilometers (37 miles) above the surface, creating particles in the stratosphere. Those bright particles remained above the clouds and didn’t get washed from the sky by rain; they settled only after several years. Climatologists predicted global temperatures would drop as a result of that global sulfate infusion.

Question 266

Which of the following plants may be classified as herbaceous plants?

Aloe vera

Neem

Banana

Tulsi

Answer 266

Aloe vera, Banana and Tulsi

A herbaceous plant is a plant that does not have a persistent woody stem above ground and its stems are green and soft. These plants grow fast and produce flowers and many seeds in a short period of time.

Most herbaceous plants are small and their stems are not thick but there are some cases of big herbaceous plants. Banana is a herbaceous plants but it appears like a tree.

Question 267

Geothermal energy:

1. largest producer?
2. disadvantages?

Answer 267

1. USA
2. issues:
   
   1. main concern is the release of hydrogen sulfide
   2. another concern is the disposal of some geothermal fluids, which may contain low levels of toxic materials.
   3. Although geothermal sites are capable of providing heat for many decades, eventually specific locations may cool down.

Question 268

Geothermal energy in India?

Answer 268

1. In India, exploration and study of geothermal fields started in 1970.
2. The GSI (Geological Survey of India) has identified 350 geothermal energy locations in the country. The most promising of these is in Puga valley of Ladakh.
3. The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is about 10000 MW.
4. There are seven geothermal provinces in India : the Himalayas, Sohana, West coast, Cambay, Son-Narmada-Tapi (SONATA), Godavari, and Mahanadi.
5. Two types of GT electricity generation plants:
   
   • Flash steam plants: when the GT energy is available at 150deg C or above
   • Binary plants: when GT energy is available at between 100 °C and 150 °C

Question 269

Cloud feedback in climate systems?

Answer 269

• Unlike Ice feedback, which is a positive feedback system, in case of cloud feedback, feedback type changes with behavior of clouds.
• Seen from below, clouds emit infrared radiation back to the surface, and so exert a warming effect; seen from above, clouds reflect sunlight and emit infrared radiation to space, and so exert a cooling effect.
• Whether the net effect is warming or cooling depends on details such as the type and altitude of the cloud. High clouds tend to trap more heat and therefore have a positive feedback, low clouds normally reflect more sunlight so they have a negative feedback.

Question 270

With reference to the concept of Food Chain, consider the following statements:

1. Species at higher trophic levels appear to be progressively more efficient in using their available food supply.
2. The relative loss of energy due to respiration is progressively greater for higher trophic levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 270

Both are true

Question 271

Wild POlio virus elimination?

Answer 271

1. The world polio day on October 24 marked an important milestone in the war against polio when the Global Commission for the Certification of Poliomyelitis Eradication officially declared that wild poliovirus type 3 has been eradicated. The last case of wild poliovirus type 3 was seen in northern Nigeria in 2012.
2. This is the second wild poliovirus to be declared eliminated — the first was in 2015 when type 2 wild poliovirus was declared as eliminated.
3. With two of the three wild polioviruses eliminated, only type 1 wild poliovirus is still in circulation and is restricted to just two countries — Afghanistan and Pakistan. While the number of cases reported this year from Afghanistan is quite close to the 21 reported last year, there has been over six-fold increase in the number of cases in Pakistan.

Question 272

Acid rain: sources?

Answer 272

.(A) Sulphur

Natural Resources

• Seas and oceans
• Volcanic eruptions
• Biological process in the soil e.g., Decomposition of Organic matter.

Man-made sources:

• burning of coal (60%) and
• Petroleum products (30 % of S02) and smelting of metal sulphides ores to obtain the pure metals
• Industrial production of sulphuric acid in metallurgical, chemical and fertilizers industries.

(B) Nitrogen

Natural resource

• Lightning
• Volcanic eruption
• Biological activities

Anthropogenic sources:

• Forest fires
• Combustion of Oil, Coal, And Gas

(C) Formic acid

Biomass burning due to forest fires cause emission of formic acid (HCOOH) and formaldehyde (HCHO) into the atmosphere.

Large fraction formaldehyde gets photo-oxidation and forms formic acid in the atmosphere.

These are the main compounds that cause acidification of rain in the atmosphere.

(D) Other Acids:

Chlorine

Phosphoric Acid

Hydrochloric acid (smokestacks)

Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. These become carbonic acids.

Question 273

Soil steaming?

Answer 273

Soil Steaming is a method of soil sterilization. It is the act of killing or destroying the action of diseases causing organism that are present in the soil without causing harm to other plants.

It is a farming technique that sterilizes soil with steam in open fields or greenhouses.

Question 274

mesic habitat?

Answer 274

1. a mesic habitat is a type of habitat with a moderate or well-balanced supply of moisture, e.g.,
   
   • a mesic forest, a temperate hardwood forest, or dry-mesic prairie.
   • streamsides, wet meadows, springs, seeps, irrigated fields, and high elevation habitats.
2. These habitats effectively provide drought insurance as land at higher elevations warms due to seasonal or other change.
3. Healthy mesic habitats act like sponges in that they store water in such a way that it can be deposited to neighbouring habitats as needed. They are common in dryer regions of the western United States and can be a good water source to neighbouring desert habitats.
4. Mesic habitats transition to xeric shrublands in a non-linear fashion, which is evidence of a threshold.

Question 275

Lantana?

Answer 275

1. Lantana camara, is a thicket forming shrub native to tropical America.
2. Arriving in India as an ornamental plant in the early 1800s, lantana has escaped from gardens and taken over entire ecosystems, now occupying 40% of India’s tiger range alone.
3. Shivalik Hills in the north, fragmented deciduous forests of Central India and the southern Western Ghats are worst hit by its invasion.
4. Lantana is one of the world’s ten worst invasive species and a species of high concern for India.
5. This invasion has resulted in the scarcity of native forage plants for wild herbivores. If eaten, the leaves can induce allergies on the muzzles of animals. In some cases, extensive feeding on lantana has led to diarrhoea, liver failure and even the animal’s death.

Question 276

It is situated in the flood plains of the river Brahmaputra and harbours the highest density of one-horned rhinos in the world. Besides rhinoceros, the other mammals found are Leopard cat, Fishing cat, Jungle cat,etc. It is one of the ‘important bird areas’ declared by Birdlife International. It was recently in news due to the death of feral buffaloes at the site.

Which site is being described in the above passage?

Answer 276

Pobitora WLS, Assam

Today, it harbours the highest density of Rhino in the world and second highest concentration of Rhino in Assam after Kaziranga National Park.

Recently, the carcasses of the feral buffaloes were found at the site. Veterinarians have confirmed anthrax as the cause of death. Anthrax, caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, can be fatal for humans who come in contact with infected animals. It is characterised by blisters around swellings on the skin, chest pain, vomiting, diarrhoea and fever.

Question 277

Biodilution?

Answer 277

1. aka Bloom dilution
2. biodilution is the decrease in concentration of a substance (especially pollutants, like heavy metals) with an increase in trophic level in food chain.
3. This phenomenon is observed mostly in eutrophic (nutrient-rich and highly productive) water environments.
4. If creatures in the lower trophic levels multiply exponentially during a bloom, then the heavy metals absorbed by them will, in turn, reduce since there are more absorbers. Consequently, when these primary producers are eaten by those organisms occupying higher levels, they transfer fewer amounts of the heavy metals.
5. For example, during algal blooms an increase of algae reduces the concentration of pollutants, a consequence of their larger biomass refers to a decrement in the concentration or quantity of a pollutant when that particular pollutant gains a higher trophic level through consumption.
6. Zooplankton that live in places that have higher amounts of nutrients and productivity have been shown to contain lesser amounts of mercury compared to those that do not.
7. A large percentage of studies conducted have almost invariably concluded that there is a relationship between biodilution and bioaccumulation.

Question 278

Phenotypic plasticity?

Answer 278

the ability of an organism to change in response to stimuli or inputs from the environment.

aka phenotypic responsiveness, flexibility, and condition sensitivity

The response may or may not be adaptive, and it may involve a change in morphology, physiological state, or behaviour, or some combination of these, at any level of organization, the phenotype being all of the characteristics of an organism other than its genes.

Different frm species having a wide range of distribution evolve genetically adapted populations called ecotypes.

Question 279

ecosystem services?

Answer 279

can be categorized in four main types:

Provisioning services are the products or primary products obtained from ecosystems such as food, fresh water, wood, fiber, genetic resources and medicines.

Regulating services are defined as the benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes such as climate regulation, natural hazard regulation, water purification and waste management, pollination or pest control.

Habitat services highlight the importance of ecosystems to provide habitat for migratory species and to maintain the viability of gene-pools.

Cultural services include non-material benefits that people obtain from ecosystems such as spiritual enrichment, intellectual development, recreation and aesthetic values.

Question 280

Aflatoxin M1?

Answer 280

1. a milk contaminant; classified as “possibly carcinogenic to humans” but less than Aflatoxin B1
2. A comprehensive milk safety and quality survey by an independent agency at the behest of FSSAI found 93% of the samples were absolutely safe.
3. This is the first time the presence of the contaminant in milk has been assessed.
4. survey claims that quantitative analysis of all adulterated samples showed the amount of adulterants and contaminants in the dozen samples was not high and hence “unlikely to pose serious threat” to human health.
5. However, it did find 368 samples (5.7%) had aflatoxin M1 residues beyond the permissible limit of 0.5 microgram per kilogram.
6. According to the FSSAI, aflatoxin M1 in milk is from feed and fodder, which is not regulated.

Question 281

Arrokoth?

Answer 281

1. one of the thousands of known small icy worlds in the Kuiper Belt, the vast “third zone” of the solar system beyond the inner terrestrial planets and the outer gas giant planets.
2. was provisionally named as Ultima Thule and name was changed recently
3. Data from the newly named Arrokoth, has given clues about the formation of planets and our cosmic origins.
4. It was discovered in 2014 by a New Horizons team using the powerful Hubble Space Telescope.

Question 282

X-57 Maxwell?

Answer 282

is an experimental aircraft being developed by NASA

It is a first all-electric experimental aircraft based on NASA’s leading-edge asynchronous propeller technology.

research on X-57 plane began as part of NASA’s scalable convergent electric propulsion operations research (SCEPTOR) project.

Question 283

SOFIA Project?

Answer 283

Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA) is an 80/20 joint project of NASA and the German Aerospace Center (DLR) to construct and maintain an airborne observatory.

since 2010

SOFIA is the successor to the Kuiper Airborne Observatory. It will observe celestial magnetic fields, star-forming regions, comets, nebulae, and the galactic centre.

Question 284

Different types of species interaction?

Answer 284

1. Commensalism (+ 0): one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited. eg. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch, and barnacles growing on the back of a whale; cattle egret
2. Amensalism (- 0): one is adversely affected and the other stays unaffected.
3. Parasitism (+ -): long-term relationship between two species, where one member, the parasite, gains benefits that come at the expense of the host member.
4. Mutualism (+ +): eg. Lichens, Mycorrhizae (associations between fungi and the roots of higher plants. The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy-yielding carbohydrates.)

Question 285

With reference to Radioactive pollution, consider the following statements:

1. Radioactive pollution is caused only due to anthropological activities and thus is observed only on Earth.
2. A radioactive pollutant with a longer half-life will have a greater impact on human health than the one with shorter half-life.
3. Cobalt, Calcium and Iodine have radioactive isotopes that cause radioactive pollution and environmental degradation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 285

3 only

1. Basically, the higher the half-time, the lower the effects on human health.
2. not only due to anthropogenic factors: Cosmic Rays come from outer space to our planet with intense radiation as their nature, therefore, causing radioactive pollution. Gamma rays, for example, are said to have the highest level of radiation and yet, depending on their intensity, some are not visible to the human eye.
3. Examples of radioactive isotopes includes Chromium-51, Cobalt-57 & 60, Calcium-47, Iodine-123, Krypton-85, Nickel-63 etc.

Question 286

Phazolicin?

Answer 286

Phazolicin is an antibiotic produced by a soil bacterium, recently found in a tropical forest in Mexico.

it may help to tackle bacterial infections in both plants and humans.

The bacterium species belonging to a class of microbes called Rhizobium, present in the roots of plants.

Phazolicin will prevent other, potentially harmful bacteria from growing in the root system of agriculturally important plant. Hence, the bacterium can be used as a ‘plant probiotic’.

Question 287

“IndiGen project”?

Answer 287

by CSIR

a six-month exercise of conducting a “whole-genome sequence” of 1,008 Indians.

CSIR first sequenced an Indian genome in 2009.

Question 288

Black liquor?

Answer 288

1. When wood is processed into paper, it produces a high-energy, toxic substance called black liquor.
2. Until the 1930s, black liquor from paper mills was considered a waste product and dumped into nearby water sources. However, black liquor retains more than 50% of the wood’s biomass energy. With the invention of the recovery boiler in the 1930s, black liquor could be recycled and used to power the mill. In the U.S., paper mills use nearly all their black liquor to run their mills, and the forest industry is one of the most energy-efficient in the nation as a result.
3. More recently, Sweden has experimented in gasifying black liquor to produce syngas, which can then be used to generate electricity.

Question 289

ICON?

Answer 289

Ionosphere Connection Explorer (ICON)

NASA has launched a satellite ICON to detect dynamic zones of Earth’s Ionosphere.

It will study the frontier of space: the dynamic zone high in our atmosphere where Earth weather and space weather meet. Here, the tenuous gases are anything but quiet, as a mix of neutral and charged particles swirl in giant winds.

A NASA satellite launched last year, Gold, is also studying the upper atmosphere.

Question 290

ExoMars programme?

Answer 290

ExoMars programme is a joint endeavour between the Roscosmos State Corporation and ESA.

obj:

• to search for signs of past life on Mars
• investigate how the Martian water and geochemical environment varies, investigate atmospheric trace gases and their sources and
• demonstrate the technologies for a future Mars sample-return mission

Question 291

Umshiang Double Decker bridge?

Answer 291

Umshiang Double Decker root bridge, most famous root bridge, in Nongriat village, south of Cherrapunjee about 70 km from the capital Shillong is estimated to be two centuries old.

root bridges are formed by Rubber trees in Khasi Hills districts

Question 292

FASTags: issued by?

Answer 292

issued by 22 certified banks through various channels such as Point-of-Sale (POS) at National Highway toll plazas and select bank branches.

To ensure the easier availability of FASTags, Indian Highways Management Company Ltd. (IHMCL), a company promoted by NHAI, is signed MoUs with state-run Oil Marketing Companies (IOCL, BPC, and HPC). It will ensure the availability of FASTags at petroleum outlets across India.

IHMCL has been mandated to implement the National Electronic Toll Collection Program (NETC) in the country.

FASTags are part of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

Question 293

International Treaty of Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture?

Answer 293

1. adopted by the Thirty-First Session of the Conference of FAO in 2001. recently, 8th session was held
2. ITPGRFA also is known as the Seed Treaty, is a comprehensive international agreement for ensuring food security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use of the world’s plant genetic resources for food and agriculture (PGRFA), as well as the fair and equitable benefit sharing arising from its use. It also recognizes farmers’ rights, subject to national laws.
3. Treaty’s truly innovative solution to access and benefit-sharing, the Multilateral System, puts 64 of our most important crops – crops that together account for 80 percent of the food we derive from plants – into an easily accessible global pool of genetic resources that are freely available to potential users in the Treaty’s ratifying nations for some uses.
4. Those who access the materials must be from the Treaty’s ratifying nations and they must agree to use the materials totally for research, breeding, and training for food and agriculture.
5. prevents the recipients of genetic resources from claiming intellectual property rights over those resources in the form in which they received them and ensures that access to genetic resources already protected by international property rights is consistent with international and national laws.
6. The treaty creates a legally binding obligation on states that have joined it. India passed Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act” to protect Farmers’ Rights and breeder’s rights.

Question 294

With regard to the National Pension System (NPS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a pension cum investment scheme launched to provide old age security to the subscriber of the scheme.
2. Non-resident Indians and Overseas Citizen of India are not eligible for the scheme.
3. It is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 294

1 only

1. eligibility:
   
   1. Any individual citizen of India (both resident and Non-resident) in the age group of 18-65 years
   2. Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) can also enroll in National Pension System at par with NRIs.
   3. OCI willing to subscribe to NPS should be eligible to invest as per the provisions of the PFRDA Act and the annuity/accumulated savings will be repatriable, subject to FEMA
   4. subscribed by employees of Govt. of India, State Governments and by employees of private institutions/organizations & unorganized sectors.
2. regulatory bodies:
   
   1. Scheme is regulated by PFRDA
   2. National Pension System Trust (NPST) established by PFRDA is the registered owner of all assets under NPS.
   3. Contributions made by NRI are subject to regulatory requirements as prescribed by RBI and FEMA from time to time.

Question 295

Geotail?

Answer 295

1. Recently, an instrument on Chandrayaan-2, CLASS, has detected charged particles on Moon’s soil, during the orbiter’s passage through the “Geotail”.
2. Geotail is a region in space that allows the best observations.
3. Sun emits the solar wind, which is a continuous stream of charged particles. These particles are embedded in the extended magnetic field of the Sun. Since the Earth has a magnetic field, it obstructs the solar wind plasma. This interaction results in the formation of a magnetic envelope around Earth.
4. On the Earth side facing the Sun, the envelope is compressed into a region that is approximately three to four times the Earth radius.
5. On the opposite side, the envelope is stretched into a long tail, which extends beyond the orbit of the Moon. It is this tail that is called the Geotail.
6. Once every 29 days, Moon traverses the Geotail for about 6 days centered around full moon.
   7.

Question 296

Ozone depletion potential?

Answer 296

relative amount of degradation to the ozone layer it can cause, with that of trichlorofluoromethane (CFC-11) being fixed at an ODP of 1.0.

Chlorofluorocarbons have ODPs roughly equal to 1. Brominated substances have usually higher ODPs in range 5–15, because of more aggressive bromine reaction with ozone.

Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) have ODPs mostly in range 0.005 - 0.2 due to the presence of the hydrogen which causes them to react readily in the troposphere, therefore reducing their chance to reach the stratosphere where the ozone layer is present. however, this doesn’t mean that they are not included in ozone depleting substance list

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFC) have no chlorine content, so their ODP is essentially zero.

also ozone depleting are HBFCs, halons ((any of a number of unreactive gaseous compounds of carbon with bromine and other halogens, used in fire extinguishers, etc)

Question 297

zones in a typical lake?

Answer 297

1. Littoral Zone is the shore area of the lake or pond. The littoral zone consists of the area from the dry land sloping to the open water and can be very narrow or very wide.
   
   • Typically oligotrophic or young ponds have narrow littoral zones due to their steep sides and eutrophic or old ponds have wide littoral zones due to their gently sloping shoreline and sides.
   • The littoral zone is shallow and gets a lot of nutrients from runoff and non-point source pollution. Therefore, it typically has an abundance of aquatic plant and algae growth.
2. Limnetic Zone is generally classified as the open water area of the lake or pond. much larger in oligotrophic or younger lakes than eutrophic lakes.
   
   • upper portion of the limnetic zone near the surface of the water is the Euphotic Zone or Epilimnion (warm water region).
   • Below the euphotic zone is the Profundal Zone or Hypolimnion (cold water region). The profundal zone is located below the thermocline where the sunlight does not penetrate.
3. final zone is the Benthic Zone. This is the bottom of the pond or lake and consists of organic sediments and soil.

Question 298

Saptarni tree?

Answer 298

1. Saptaparni is a medium-sized evergreen tree from the very moist forests of the Himalayas.
2. As the name suggests, the leaves, most often, are found in bunches of seven around the stem. They are blunt, glossy, and create starry symmetries. The leaves remain throughout the year with new flushes standing out against older leaves in rainy season
3. tree’s natural range shows a broad belt in the sub-Himalayan tract east of the Yamuna and is also found in the moist forests of the Western and Eastern Ghats in peninsular India. In addition to this, it also grows naturally from Sri Lanka to Myanmar and South China, and from Malay Peninsula to Australia.
4. bark is known as ditabark, used by Indians as a traditional medicine to treat diarrhoea, dysentery, asthma, and a few types of fevers. also been used as an aphrodisiac. When damaged, the bark lets out a sticky milky latex, which is also valued for its medicinal properties.
5. Saptaparni is of great cultural significance in the intellectual circle, as traditionally its leaves were awarded to scholars and teachers during convocation ceremonies by the Visva Bharati University. This tradition was started by Rabindranath Tagore in Gurudeb University. Due to environmental degradation, the practice has been reduced to handing over a single leaf to the Vice-Chancellor of the University.
6. large branches provide favourable breeding sites for wild bees to make their hives and the pollination of the tree is carried out by insects.

Question 299

Cloud seeding?

Answer 299

1. Cloud seeding is a kind of weather modification technology to create artificial rainfall. It works only when there are enough pre-existing clouds in the atmosphere. Cloud seeding aims to facilitate and accelerate the process by making available chemical ‘nuclei’ around which condensation can take place.
2. success rate of these experiments in inducing rains is about 60 to 70 per cent, depending on local atmospheric conditions, the amount of moisture in the air and cloud characteristics.
3. The cloud seeding can be used for weather modification such as a reduction in the rain and fog dispersal.
4. In cloud seeding potassium chloride or calcium chloride (in clouds having a base at warm temperatures i.e. >0deg), silver iodide (colder than zero degree), dry ice are injected into clouds to induce artificial rain.
5. Both forms (KCl and AgCl) are useful over Indian region

Question 300

in situ bioremediation techniques?

Answer 300

Bioventing: In this, the supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for hydrocarbons and can be used where the contamination is deep under the surface.

Biosparging: Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria.

Bioaugmentation: Micro-organism are imported to a contaminated site to enhance the degradation process.

Question 301

Exsitu bioremediation techniques?

Answer 301

Landfarming: It is an ex-situ waste treatment process that is performed in the upper soil zone or in biotreatment cells. Contaminated soils, sediments, or sludges are transported to the land farming site, incorporated into the soil surface and periodically turned over (tilled) to aerate the mixture. In this environment, the micro-organisms present in the soil are more able to break down the contaminants in the soil.

Biopiles: It is a process where piles of soil are placed over the top of a bug vacuum pump. The vacuum pump pulls air through the pile of soil to allow oxygen to get through to the mico-organisms. Contaminants that may be turned into gas forms are easily controlled as they are simply sucked with the air stream through the soil.

Composting: It is a treatment where the waste is mixed in with straw, hay or corn cobs to maximize the water levels and air levels which the micro-organisms have access to. Composting can be done three ways:1. Static Pile - where a pile of compost is aerated using vaccums or blowers.2. Mechanically Agitated in-vessel composting - where the compost is put into a treatment tank where it is turned around and mixed so it can be aerated.3. Windrow Composting - where the compost is laid out in long piles where it can be mixed by a tractor

Bioreactors: It involves the processing of contaminated solid material( soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system.

Question 302

‘Framework for Action on Marine Plastics Litter’?

Answer 302

1. adopted by G20 Ministerial Meeting on Energy Transitions and Global Environment for Sustainable Growth
2. builds on the G20 Action Plan on Marine Litter that was adopted at the G20 Summit in 2017, in Hamburg, Germany.
3. anticipated to complement the UNEP work on marine litter and single-use palstics.
4. approach will focus on land-based sources in particular, and pursue action including
   
   1. environmentally sound waste management,
   2. clean up of marine plastic litter,
   3. prevention and reduction of plastic waste generation and littering
   4. sustainable consumption and production (SCP), including resource efficiency, circular economy and sustainable materials management.

Question 303

Arrange the given stages of primary succession in water from phytoplankton to forest in ascending order:

1. Reed swampy stage
2. Marsh meadow stage
3. Submerged plant stage
4. Scrub stage

Select the correct answer using the code

Answer 303

3-1-2-4

Question 304

Sea ranching?

Answer 304

Sea ranching or ocean ranching is an internationally accepted concept, where fish that are commercially important and need replenishment are reared in a controlled laboratory environment and let into the sea when they are of a certain size.

Recently, in an effort to replenish natural fish stock in the sea off the coast of Tamil Nadu, the Fisheries Department has planned to ranch seeds of black tiger shrimps, Indian prawn and cobia at a cost of ₹10.5 crore.

Question 305

CWC report on river pollution by Heavy metals?

Answer 305

1. conducted from May 2014 to April 2018 and spanned 67 rivers in 20 river basins.
2. Samples taken from 65% of the water quality stations spanning India’s major rivers showed contamination by one or more heavy metals, exceeding safe limits set by BIS
3. Iron emerged as the most common contaminant. The other major contaminants found in the samples were lead, nickel, chromium, cadmium and copper. None of the sites registered arsenic levels above the safe limit.
4. main sources of heavy metal pollution are mining, milling, plating and surface finishing industries

Question 306

disease associated with:

1. Nitrate
2. Cadmium
3. Arsenic
4. Mercury

Answer 306

1. Blue baby syndrome
2. Itai Itai
3. Black-foot disease
4. Minamata

Question 307

oligotrophic soils?

Answer 307

nutrient deficient soil

These soils generally develop in old and geologically stable areas, such as soils found in much of the tropical rain forest region. Due to intense weathering and high rates of leaching, these soils have a poor nutrient retention capacity. In nutrient poor soils, nutrient accumulation in vegetation is high.

Question 308

INDAIR?

Answer 308

CSIR-NEERI has launched the country’s first interactive online repository, called IndAIR or Indian Air quality Interactive Repository.

The repository is one of few such facilities in the world and has the maximum number of studies-262 concerning Delhi-NCR.

also provide the history of air pollution research and legislation in the country. It includes all major legislations in the country dating back to 1905.

Question 309

CSIR NEERI?

Answer 309

1. CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI) is a research institute created and funded by GoI
2. established in Nagpur in 1958 with focus on water supply, sewage disposal, communicable diseases and to some extent on industrial pollution and occupational diseases
3. five zonal laboratories at Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata and Mumbai. NEERI falls under the MoS&T
4. NEERI is an important partner organisation in India’s POPs( Persistent Organic Pollutants) national implementation plan (NIP).

Question 310

Umbrella species

Answer 310

1. species that are selected for conservation-related decisions because the conservation and protection of these species indirectly affects the conservation and protection of other species within their ecosystem.
2. Umbrella species help in the selection of potential reserve locations, as well as the determination of the composition of the reserve. Umbrella species are representative of other species in their habitat since they are known species, and they also determine the area of conservation.
3. Umbrella species usually have a large area requirement for which the conservation of the species extends the protection to other species sharing the same habitat.
4. eg. Tiger- Efforts have been made to save the populations of wild Tigers in order to save other species that are present in the same ecosystems such as Leopards, Monkey, Hares, Boars, etc.
5. The protection extended to the other species by the presence of the umbrella species is known as the umbrella effect.

Question 311

Keystone species?

Answer 311

• a species which has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance.
• Such species are described as playing a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community, affecting many other organisms in an ecosystem and helping to determine the types and numbers of various other species in the community.
• Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether.
• Some keystone species, such as the wolf, are also apex predators.

Question 312

Flagship species?

Answer 312

a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause.

By focusing on, and achieving conservation of that species, the status of many other species which share its habitat – or are vulnerable to the same threats - may also be improved.

Flagship species are usually relatively large, and considered to be ‘charismatic’ in western cultures.

Flagship species may or may not be keystone species and may or may not be good indicators of biological process.

Question 313

examples of indicator species?

Answer 313

crayfish as indicators of freshwater quality;

corals as indicators of marine processes such as siltation, seawater rise and sea temperature fluctuation;

peregrine falcons as an indicator of pesticide loads; or

native plants as indicators for the presence and impact of alien species.

Question 314

National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): about?

Answer 314

launched in 2008 by the Prime Minister’s Council on Climate Change.

• NAPCC addresses the country’s critical and urgent needs by directionally shifting the development path and enhancing the current and planned programmes and technologies. It identifies measures that promote our developmental goals and co-benefits by addressing climate change also.
• There are 8 national missions forming the core of the NAPCC which represent multi-pronged, long term and integrated strategies for achieving key goals in climate change. These are-
  • National Solar Mission
  • National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
  • National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
  • National Water Mission
  • National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
  • National Mission for A Green India
  • National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
• NAPCC is guided by following principles-
  • Protection of poor and vulnerable sections of society through inclusive and sustainable development strategy, sensitive to climate change.
  • Achievements of national growth through qualitative changes enhancing ecological sustainability.
  • Deployment of appropriate technologies for both adaptation and mitigation of GreenHouse Gases emissions extensively and at an accelerated pace.

Question 315

NAPCC: National Solar Mission?

Answer 315

The Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission

• Governed by MNRE.
• It was launched in 2010 with the primary aim of achieving grid parity by 2022 and with coal-based thermal power by 2030.
• Aims to increase the share of solar energy in India’s energy mix.
• It takes the measures of increasing R&D efforts, promoting decentralised distribution of energy by creating cheaper and more convenient solar power systems.
• Emphasis on manufacturing solar panels at the local level and to tie up local research with international efforts.
• Seeks to reduce the absolute cost of solar energy to bring it down and make it affordable.

Functions and Goals

• Making solar water heaters mandatory in buildings to promote the already proven and commercially viable solar heating systems.
• By the remote village electrification programme, using solar power as an off-grid solution to provide power to the power deprived poor.
• Creating conditions for research and application in the field of solar technology and support & facilitate the already on-going R&D projects.
• The ultimate objective is to develop a solar industry in India, capable of delivering solar energy competitively again the fossil fuel options.
• It is hoped that by the end of the third phase, 2022, India should have installed 20,000 MW of solar power.

Question 316

NAPCC: NMEEE?

Answer 316

National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency

• Governed by the Ministry of Power.
• Based on the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
• It creates a market based mechanism to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements on energy efficiency. Switching to cleaner fuels, commercially viable technology transfers, capacity building needs etc are the way forward for this mission.
• Development with energy efficiency as a key criterion.

Functions and Goals

• Spread awareness about the efficacy and efficiency of energy efficient products and create demand.
• Ensure adequate supply of energy efficient products, goods, and services by forming a cadre of energy professionals.
• Create financing platforms which can make risk guarantee funds, financial derivatives of performance contracts.
• Formulate well thought out evaluation and monitoring mechanisms to capture energy savings in a transparent manner.
• Overcome market failures through regulatory and policy measures.
• Key areas to work upon are Energy, Efficiency, Equity and Environment.

Question 317

NAPCC: National Mission on Sustainable Habitat?

Answer 317

• Governed by the Ministry of Urban Development.
• Manifold agenda mission because it looks at energy efficiency within buildings, waste disposal from these buildings and betters the public transport system.
• Plans to make urban areas more climate friendly and less susceptible to climate change by a multi-pronged approach to mitigate and adapt to it.

Functions and Goals-

• To create and adopt a more holistic approach for solid and liquid waste management, ensuring their full potential for energy generation (conversion of solid waste into energy), recycling, reusing and composting.
• To encourage alternative transport systems and establish fuel efficiency standards and reduce fuel consumed per passenger travel by the provision of pedestrian pathways.
• To provide for adoption and creation of alternative technologies mitigating climate change and to encourage community involvement for it.
• Creation of one building code for the entire nation.
• Establish financial incentives based on green rating.
• Reduce need for pumping of water, proper treatment of waste water and use of better designed toilets.
• Promote use of natural gas and alternative & renewable fuels.
• Comprehensive urban renewal master plan proposals with sustainable designs.
• Better enforcement of Urban Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (UDPFI) guidelines.

Question 318

NAPCC: National Water Mission?

Answer 318

• Governed by the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
• Ensures better integrated water resource management leading to water conservation, less wastage, equitable distribution forming better policies.
• Looks into the issues of groundwater and surface water management, domestic and industrial water management, improvement of water storage capacities and protection of wetlands.

Functions and Goals

• Review and data collection on the network of hydrological, automatic weather and automated rain gauge stations.
• Expeditiously implement water projects in climate sensitive regions.
• Promotion of water purification and desalination techniques.
• Enactment of a bill for the regulation and management of groundwater sources.
• Research in water use efficiency in industry, agriculture and domestic sectors.
• Providing incentives for water neutral & positive technologies.
• Review National Water Policy to include integrated water resources management, evaporation management and basin level management.
• Water data base in the public domain and the assessment of impact of climate change on water resource
• Promotion of citizen and state action for water conservation, augmentation and preservation.
• More focused attention to over-exploited areas.
• Improving water use efficiency by 20% through regulatory and pricing mechanisms.

Question 319

NAPCC: National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem?

Answer 319

• Governed by the DS&T.
• Created to protect the Himalayan ecosystem. The mandate is to evolve measures to sustain and safeguard the Himalayan glaciers, mountain ecosystems, biodiversity and wildlife conservation & protection.

Functions and Goals

• Human and knowledge capacities- appointing trained personnel who can capture, store and apply knowledge relating to vulnerability and changes in the region.
• Institutional capacities- creating capability to conduct long term observations, studies to understand and warn of changes in the Himalayan ecosystem
• Evidence based policy building and governance- creating a platform for Himalayan states and the Centre to interact with various bodies.
• Continuous self learning for balancing between forces of Nature and actions of mankind by creating strong linkages with community based organisations.
• Establishing of a modern centre of Glaciology, standardisation of data collection to ensure interoperability and mapping of natural resources in the area.
• Identification and training of experts and specialists in the area relevant to sustaining the Himalayan ecosystem.

Question 320

NAPCC: National Mission for Green India?

Answer 320

• Governed by the MoEFCC
• It has the mandate of reviving degraded forest land with a focus on increasing forest cover & density and conserving biodiversity.
• Works towards reducing fragmentation of forests, enhancing private public partnerships for plantations, improving schemes based on joint forestry management etc.
• Makes plans to tackle the challenges posed by climate change.

Functions and Goals

• Enhancing carbon sinks in sustainably managed forests.
• Enhancing the resilience of vulnerable species and ecosystems to adapt to climate change.
• Enabling forest dependent communities to adapt to climate variability.
• Double the area to be taken up for afforestation.
• Increase greenhouse gas removals by Indian forests.
• Enhance resilience of forests and ecosystems falling under the mission.

Question 321

NAPCC: National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture?

Answer 321

• Governed by the Ministry of Agriculture.
• It works towards devising strategies to make Indian agriculture less susceptible to climate change.
• It would identify and develop new crop varieties, use traditional and modern agricultural techniques.
• This mission sees dry land agriculture, risk management, access to information and use of biotechnology as areas of intervention.

Functions and Goals

• Strengthening agricultural insurance, develop a system based on Geographic Information System (GIS) and remote sensing to map soil resource and land use.
• Providing information and collation of off-season crops and preparation of state-level agro-climatic atlases.
• Strategise to evolve low input agriculture with enhanced water and nitrogen efficient crops.
• Nutritional strategies to manage heat stress in dairy animals.
• Using of micro irrigation systems.
• Promotion of agricultural techniques like minimum tillage, organic farming and rain water conservation.
• Capacity building of farmers and other stakeholders.
• Production of bio-fertilizer, compost along with subsidies for chemical fertilizers.
• Strengthening of National Agricultural Insurance Scheme.

Question 322

NAPCC: National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change?

Answer 322

• Governed by the Department of Science and Technology.
• It identifies challenges and requisite responses to climate change. This will be done through open international collaboration and would ensure sufficient funding for this research.
• There is a need for strong strategic knowledge system on climate change.

Functions and Goals

• Develop regional climate science.
• Leverage international cooperation.
• The efforts undertaken here would feed into the Indian National Network for Climate Change Assessment (INCCA) which is a stock taking exercise conducted every two years as part of the national obligations under UNFCCC.
• Creation of a data generation and sharing system by mapping resources on knowledge relevant to climate change.
• Identifying knowledge gaps and inspiring from global technological trends to select and test technologies.
• Creating new centres dedicated to climate research within existing institutional framework.