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RICS APC Revision > Construction technology and environmental services > Flashcards

Construction technology and environmental services Flashcards

1
Q

What RIBA Stage is on-site construction?

A

RIBA Stage 5 - Manufacturing and Construction

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2
Q

What is buildability?

A
  • Buildability can be defined as the extent to which the design of a building facilitates the ease of construction.
  • To help improve buildability, early contractor involvement should be considered to benefit from their experience and expertise.
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3
Q

What are the benefits of off-site construction over in-situ?

A
  • Safety - Hazards such as falls from height are more likely to occur on site that in a factory.
  • Efficiency and quality - Construction takes place in a controlled environment.
  • Sustainability - Reduction in waste produced
  • Speed - Work in the factory can be scheduled to begin at the same time as other activities on site, resulting in a shorter build programme.
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4
Q

What are temporary works?

A

Temporary works are the parts of a construction project that are needed to enable the permanent works to be built, they are usually required for safety or access reasons. Examples are:

  • Propping.
  • Scaffolding.
  • Formwork.
  • Excavation support.
  • Access and task lighting.
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5
Q

What are hoists?

A

Designed for the vertical transportation of materials and/or people.

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6
Q

What is shoring?

A

Form of temporary support given to existing buildings and excavations. The purpose is to prevent collapse or excessive movement.

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7
Q

What is a substructure?

A
  • Substructure is the lower portion of the building (in the ground) which supports the superstructure.
  • Transmits the loads of the building to the ground.
  • Includes foundations, basements and retaining walls.
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8
Q

What is a ground heave?

A
  • Ground heave is usually associated with clay soil which swells when wet, causing the upward movement of the ground.
  • As the soil generally cannot expand downwards of sideways, the result is that the exposed upper surface of the soil rises up.
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9
Q

What are some of the techniques available for ground improvement?

A
  • Vibro compaction.
  • Vibro stone columns.
  • Vertical drains and vacuum consolidation.
  • Soil mixing.
  • Dynamic compaction.
  • Dynamic replacement.
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10
Q

What are the different forms of excavation?

A
  • Site clearance operations (removing vegetation and rubble).
  • Stripping topsoil.
  • Reduced level dig (to reach formation level).
  • Cut and fill.
  • Excavations for foundations.
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11
Q

What are the key factors the contractor should consider when excavating?

A
  • Nature of the soil and moisture content of the ground.
  • Method of excavation.
  • If ground support systems are required.
  • Proximity of existing buildings.
  • Depth of excavation.
  • Underground services and drainage.
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12
Q

Can you explain some of the techniques to waterproof a basement?

A
  • Tanking - Materials such as asphalt, polythene sheeting, bitumen, are applied internally or externally to provide a continuous membrane to the base slab and walls.
  • Drained Cavity - This method accepts a small amount of water seepage will occur. Cavity walls are formed, the water seepage is collected in the cavity and drained or pumped away.
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13
Q

Have you come across the term SUDS?

A
  • Sustainable Urban Drainage Systems
  • SUDS are designed to manage storm water locally (as close its source as possible), to mimic natural drainage and encourage its infiltration and/or attenuation.
  • SUDS help to reduce the reliance on existing drainage infrastructure.
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14
Q

Can you detail a typical road build up please?

A
  • Compacted and rolled type-1 subbase (100-250mm).
  • Base course (70-150mm)
  • Binder course (50-100mm)
  • Wearing/surface course (20-40mm)
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15
Q

What is the purpose of a foundation?

A
  • Foundations provide support for structures, transferring their load to the ground to avoid excessive settlement.
  • Foundations should bear the loads of the superstructure
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16
Q

What are the typical considerations when selecting the type and size of foundations?

A
  • The total loads of the building.
  • Nature and load bearing capacity of the ground.
  • Type of structure
  • Cost
  • Construction constraints (for example, their proximity to adjacent buildings/structures)
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17
Q

What are the different types of foundation?

A
  • Strip foundations
  • Pad foundations
  • Raft foundations
  • Piled foundations
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18
Q

What is a raft foundation?

A

A raft foundation is essentially a continuous slab that extends over the entire footprint of the building. The raft spreads the load of the building over a larger area that other foundations, the stress acting on the ground below is reduced.

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19
Q

What are pad foundations?

A
  • Pad foundations are typically used to support individual or multiple columns, spreading the load to the ground below.
  • They are usually square or rectangular on plan and can be reinforced or non-reinforced.
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20
Q

What are strip foundations?

A

As the name suggests, the formation is in a strip of linear structure that ultimately serves to spread the weight across the total area of the ground, typically used to support masonry.

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21
Q

What are pile foundations?

A
  • A pile is a column (usually concrete) that extends deep into the ground.
  • Where the bearing capacity of the soil is poor or imposed loads are very heavy, pile foundations may be required.

There are two main types of pile:

  • End bearing piles
  • Friction piles

There are two main construction methods:

  • Bored piles
  • Driven concrete piles
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22
Q

In what scenarios might a piled foundation be the best solution for the project?

A
  • Where the structure is heavy and the underlying soil is weak.
  • In areas where settlement issued are common.
  • Where the sub-soil water table is high.
  • Where the load distribution of the structure is not uniform.
  • Presence of horizontal forces.
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23
Q

Can you explain how end bearing and friction piles transfer the load of the building?

A

End bearing piles - The bottom of the pile rests on a layer of strong soil or rock, the load of the building is transferred through the pile onto the strong layer.

Friction piles - Friction piles work on a different principle, friction piles develop most of the pile bearing capacity by shear stresses along the sides of the pile. In other words, the surface of the pile works to transfer the forces to the soil.

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24
Q

What are the differences between bored piles and driven piles?

A

The fundamental difference lies in their point of manufacture. A driven pile is formed off site under factory-controlled conditions and a bored pile is manufactured on site.

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25
Q

What are the key advantages and disadvantages of driven piles?

A

Advantages

  • Piles can be precast to the required specification
  • Piles of any size, length and shape can be made in advance.
  • A pile driven into granular soil compacts the adjacent soil mass, the bearing capacity of the pile may increase as a result.
  • Fast, neat and clean installation.

Disadvantages

  • Required heavy equipment for handling and delivery.
  • Increased noise and vibrations generated by driving the piles.
  • Can be costly if piles are too short
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26
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of bored piles?

A

Advantages

  • Any size or shape of pile can be formed on site.
  • No risk of damage during delivery and handling
  • Reduced vibrations and noise

Disadvantages

  • Significant spoils are generate that need to be handled
  • Reliance and coordination on multiple trades (reinforcement crew, piling crew and concrete supplier)
  • Unlike driven piles, bored piles do not improve the bearing capacity of the ground.
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27
Q

What are decant pile walls?

A
  • A wall is formed by installing interlocking piles which create a solid barrier free of gaps.
  • Typically used to form a retaining wall.
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28
Q

What is underpinning and why might it be required?

A

Underpinning is a method for repair and strengthening the foundations.

  • Stabilising foundations undergoing settlement
  • Stabilising foundations that have moved because of landslip or unstable slopes.
  • Stabilising foundations affected by erosion, subsidence, or heave.
  • Stabilising foundations affected by vibration damage.
  • To increase the load capacity of the existing foundations.
  • To accommodate a new adjoining building, new basement, or deep sewer.
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29
Q

What is the superstructure if a building?

A
  • The structural components of a building constructed above ground level (usually everything above damp-proof course).
  • The basic components of a buildings superstructure are columns, beams, slabs, walls.
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30
Q

What is the envelope of a building?

A
  • A building envelope is the boundary between the interior and exterior of a building.
  • The materials and components that form the external shell of a building such as brickwork, cladding, curtain walls.
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31
Q

Can you briefly explain what a retained façade is?

A
  • The façade of the building is preserved whilst the rest of the structure is remodelled, or a new structure is built behind it.
  • Façade retention is often used when restoring listed buildings
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32
Q

What are the key considerations when designing external walls?

A
  • Weather protection.
  • Fire resistance.
  • Acoustic requirements.
  • Thermal performance.
  • Structural performance.
  • Appearance/aesthetics
  • Expected lifespan
  • Future maintenance
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33
Q

What are standard brick dimensions in the UK?

A

Standard bricks are 215mm x 102.5mm x 65mm

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34
Q

How many UK standard size bricks are required per m2?

A

60 bricks per m2

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35
Q

How many UK standard size blocks are required per m2?

A

10 blocks per m2

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36
Q

What are weep holes?

A
  • Small openings in the outer skin of masonry construction.

- Weep holes provide ventilation to the cavity and allow moisture to drain away.

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37
Q

Can you name two different types of brick bond?

A
  • English bond - Alternating courses of headers and stretchers
  • Stretcher bond - The most common brickwork method. The vertical joints are staggered each time by half a brick.
38
Q

What is a curtain walling system?

A

Typically, curtain wall systems comprise a lightweight aluminium frame onto which glazed or opaque infill panels can be fixed.

39
Q

What is a movement joint and why are they used?

A
  • A movement joint is designed to safely absorb the expansion and contraction of construction materials.
  • Movement joints can also allow for movement associated with ground settlement or seismic activity.
40
Q

What are the main components of concrete?

A
  • Cement
  • Aggregate
  • Water
41
Q

What is the difference between dead loads and live loads on a structure?

A
  • Dead loads are static forces that are relatively constant for an extended time; usually the weight of materials plus non-structural elements such as partitions, immovable fixtures, kitchens etc.
  • Live loads refer to the dynamic forces from occupancy and intended use. These loads include the weight of people, furniture, appliances, moveable equipment.
42
Q

What are retaining walls?

A

A retaining wall holds back (or retains) the soil behind it. The typical purpose is to resist the lateral pressure of soil where there is a change in ground elevation.

43
Q

Can you explain what reinforced concrete is?

A
  • Reinforced concrete is a combination concrete with reinforcements (usually steel bar, rods, or mesh).
  • This combination is made to use the compressive strength of concrete and tensile strength of steel at the same time, hence, work together to resist many types of loading.
44
Q

What is pre-tensioned concrete?

A
  • In pre-tensioning the reinforcement, in the form of tendons or cables, are stretched (put into tension) across the concrete formwork before the concrete is placed.
  • After the concrete has hardened and a suitable strength developed, the tendons are released.
  • The tendons attempt to shorten and transfer the energy stored to the concrete.
  • A compressive force is therefore induced into the concrete.
45
Q

What is post tensioned concrete?

A
  • The concrete is cast around tubes or ducts which will contain the reinforcing tendon.
  • Once a suitable concrete strength has developed, the tendons are threaded through the ducts and stretched (put into tension) using hydraulic jacks.
46
Q

Can you explain what a glulam beam is?

A
  • The term glulam is an abbreviated term that stands for glue-laminated timber.
  • A glulam is made with multiple layers of solid wood bonded together with high-strength adhesive to form a single structural unit.
47
Q

What are the key advantages of timber frames?

A
  • Construction on-site can be can be faster (compared to in situ concrete frames).
  • The structure is relatively lightweight.
  • Timber can be aesthetically pleasing (exposed oak beams for example).
  • Sustainability benefits (assuming the timber is harvested responsibly from well managed forests).
48
Q

What are the key disadvantages of timber frames?

A
  • Skilled workmanship is required to achieve a high-quality finish.
  • Potential for wet rot, dry rot and woodworm etc.
  • Fire protection may be required.
49
Q

What are the key advantages of steel frames?

A
  • Faster to erect that concrete frames.
  • 100% recyclable.
  • High strength to weight ration.
  • Beams can span over long distances (ideal for warehouses).
50
Q

What are key disadvantages of steel frames?

A
  • Typically, steel frames have a lower load bearing capacity compares to concrete frames.
  • Fire protection may be required.
  • The price of steel can be volatile.
  • Steel frames do not have the same acoustic and thermal properties of a concrete frame.
51
Q

What is a portal frame and what type of buildings are they most suitable for?

A
  • The frame is generally characterised by a beam (or rafter) supported at either end by columns. The columns are typically connected to the rafters with haunch/eaves connections.
  • Portal frames usually have long clear spans providing large areas of open space; therefore, they are commonly used to construct warehouses, factories.
52
Q

What are the key advantages of concrete frames?

A
  • Fire protection is inherent in the structure.
  • Cladding and other finishes can be fixed direct to the frame.
  • Provides good sound and heat insulation.
  • High compressive strength.
53
Q

What are the disadvantages if concrete frames?

A
  • Require formwork
  • Slower to construct on site
  • Requires a bulky structure
  • Concrete does not span as well as steel
  • Long curing time - maximum strength is typically achieved after 28 days.
54
Q

With reference to concrete frames, what is formwork?

A

Formwork is the structure, usually temporary, used to contain poured concrete and mould it to the line required dimensions. The formwork is usually stripped away once the concrete has hardened and can support itself.

55
Q

What key factors should be considered when selecting the type of structural frame?

A
  • Programme requirements
  • Fire protection
  • Acoustic and thermal properties
  • Market conditions and supply costs
  • End user requirements (necessity for column free space)
  • Sustainability objectives such as BREEAM certification
  • Mechanical and electrical services strategy.
  • Future expansion requirements
56
Q

What is slipform construction?

A
  • Slipform construction involves pouring concrete into the top of continuously moving formwork. As the concrete is poured, the formwork is raised vertically at a speed that allows the concrete to harden before it is exposed at the bottom.
  • Typically used to construct stair cores, lift shafts, towers.
57
Q

What is jump forming?

A

Jump forming works in a similar principle to slipform. The structure is cast in a series of vertical sections called ‘lifts’. After the concrete has gained sufficient strength, the formwork is moved back and then ‘jumped’ the the next level.

58
Q

What key factors should be considered when designing internal partitions?

A
  • Fire rating requirements
  • Acoustic requirements
  • Thermal properties
  • Requirement for doors and internal windows
  • Strength and structural requirements including fixing details.
  • Robustness
  • Height of the partition
59
Q

What is a Cat A fit out?

A
  • Cat A fit out typically provides a basic level of finish, this may include raised floors, suspended ceilings and partitions, along with basic mechanical and electrical services.
  • Cat A space is often a bare-bones finish that is considered a blank canvas for interior and office designers.
60
Q

What is Cat B fit out?

A
  • Cat B fit out follows on from Cat A to provide a space that is ready to move into and operate.
  • Cat B fit out can include, but is not limited to:
  • Partitions and doors
  • Floor finishes
  • Specialist lighting and facilities
  • Cafes, tea points and kitchen areas
  • Furniture
  • Branded material and decor
61
Q

Can you name some common types of plasterboard?

A
  • Standard boards (white/light grey)
  • Fire boards (Pink)
  • Acoustic board (blue)
  • Moisture resistant boards (green)
62
Q

What is raised access flooring?

A

A floor sitting on pedestals above the structural slab. The system allows services to be located within the void (usually power and data cables).

63
Q

Can you explain the difference between single phase and 3-phase electrical supplies?

A
  • Single phase power has just one live wire whereas 3-phase power uses three live wires, both ill also have one neutral wire and in almost all cases an earth wire too.
  • As such, three phase power supplies a more constant, reliable current.
64
Q

Why do we install generators in addition to regular grid power?

A

Generators, usually powered by diesel engines, typically act as a backup power supply should the primary power supply fail.

65
Q

What is a UPS and why might the client require one?

A
  • Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS).
  • The UPS provides an alternative ‘no-break’ electrical supply in situations where it is important there is no loss of electrical supply, even if the primary supply fails
  • Typically installed in hospitals for life critical equipment, data centres and IT server rooms.
66
Q

What does the HVAC stand for?

A

Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning

67
Q

What does FCU, AHU and VAV stand for?

A
  • Fan Coil Unit (FCU).
  • Air Handling Unit (AHU).
  • Variable Air Volume System (VAV)
68
Q

What is natural ventilation?

A
  • Natural ventilation is a method of supplying fresh air to a building or room by means of passive forces, typically by wind speed or differences in pressure internally and externally.
  • This is achieved without the use of mechanical systems, therefore, reduced carbon emissions is a key benefit.
69
Q

What is mechanical ventilation?

A

Mechanical ventilation is the intentional fan driven flow of outdoor air into a building. Mechanical ventilation systems may include supply fans (pushing outdoor air into a building), exhaust fans (drawing air out of building), or a combination of both.

70
Q

What is an air source heat pump and how does it work?

A
  • An air source heat pump takes heat from the air and boosts it to a higher temperature using a compressor, it then transfers the heat to the heating system.
  • Their function resembles the workings of a fridge or air-conditioners, but in reverse.
71
Q

Can you explain how siphonic drainage systems work?

A
  • Siphonic drainage systems contain an anti-vortex plate which acts as a baffle and prevents air (and debris) from entering the piping system at full flow, allowing the pipes to completely full up with water.
  • The water is sucked or siphoned from the roof down into the drain at a high velocity. The lack of air and the downward pull of the water creates a vacuum, making the drainage process fast and efficient.
72
Q

What is rain screen cladding used for?

A
  • A system which manages the flow of rainwater on a building.
  • The system is not necessarily waterproof itself but serves as a screen and protection against rain for the rest of the building.
  • Two key types of system:
  • Drained & ventilated systems.
  • Pressure-equalised systems.
73
Q

What is the purpose of a parapet?

A
  • A parapet is an extension of the external building shell above roof level.
  • A parapet can be used as edge protection to enable maintenance to take place and can also mask unsightly roof plant from ground level
74
Q

What is the difference between a gable, hipped and mansard roof?

A
  • Gable - A roof sloping downward in two parts as an angle from a central ridge.
  • Hipped - A roof that slopes upward from all sides of the structure, having no vertical ends.
  • Mansard roof - Steep front face pitch with a shallow pitch/flat roof on top.
75
Q

What site surveys might be required for a typical construction project?

A
  • Topographic survey
  • Site investigation
  • Asbestos survey
  • Drainage CCTV survey
  • Utility searches
  • Measured survey
  • Ecology surveys
  • Flood risk assessments
  • Transport assessments
  • UXO discovery
  • CBR test
  • Archaeological digs/excavations
  • Existing condition surveys
76
Q

What are the objectives of a site investigation?

A
  • The primary purpose is to establish parameters for foundation and substructure design.
  • The engineer will assess the properties and composition of the soil and rock, as well as potential ground contamination that could affect construction of building safety
77
Q

Which types of vegetation can cause issues for a construction project?

A

Invasive plants such as Japanese knotweed.

78
Q

What is a CBR test?

A
  • California Bearing Ratio
  • Tests the load bearing capacity of the ground to inform foundation design and construction details for other ground bearing elements (such as roads).
79
Q

What fire safety provisions might you find in a new building?

A
  • Maximum occupancy numbers
  • Fire evacuation plan, designated escape routes (with signage) and fire exits
  • Fire extinguishers
  • Fire alarms
  • Sprinklers
  • Fire dampers located in ventilation ductwork
  • Fire barriers in floor, wall and ceiling cavities
  • Fire rated roller shutters
  • Emergency shutdown of mechanical plant.
  • Smoke control systems
80
Q

What is fire compartmentation within a building?

A
  • Compartmentation is a form passive fire protection

- The idea is to subdivide a structure into fire compartments to limit the spread of dire and smoke in the building

81
Q

What is intumescent paint?

A
  • Intumescent paint is a passive fire protection system
  • When exposed to extreme temperatures, it rapidly expands to protect the surface that it is applied to. This prevents, minimise, or delays fire damage to the structure
82
Q

What are automatic fire sprinklers and how are they activated?

A

Sprinklers heads are usually heat-activated. When the heat of a fire reaches the sprinkler head, a solder link will melt or a liquid-filled glass bulb will shatter to activate sprinkler, releasing water directly over the source of the heat.

83
Q

Can you detail the different types of fire extinguishers and their typical uses?

A
  • Water - Wood, cardboard, textiles.
  • Foam - Flammable liquids
  • Dry powder - Flammable liquids and electrical fires
  • Carbon dioxide - Electrical fires
  • Wet chemical - Cooking oil fires
84
Q

What are Building Regulations?

A
  • Regulations to ensure that new buildings, conversions, renovations and extensions (domestic or commercial) are going to be safe, healthy and high performing.
  • Regulations cover specific topics including structural integrity, fire protection, accessibility, energy performance, acoustic performance, protection against falls, electrical and gas safety.
85
Q

Can you list the Building Regulations Approved Documents?

A
  • Part A - Structure
  • Part B - Fire safety
  • Part C - Site preparation
  • Part D - Toxic substance
  • Part E - Sound resistance
  • Part F - Ventilation
  • Part G - Sanitation, hot water safety and water efficiency
  • Part H - Drainage and waste disposal
  • Part J - Combustion appliances and fuel storage systems
  • Part K - Protection from falling, collision and impact
  • Part L - Conservation of fuel and power
  • Part M - Access to and use of buildings
  • Part P - Electrical safety
  • Part Q - Security in dwellings
  • Part R - High speed electronic communications networks
  • Approved Document 7 - Materials and workmanship
86
Q

Who reviews the design and construction phase for compliance with Building Regulations?

A

The building control officer or approved inspector

87
Q

What are British Standards?

A
  • Publications issued by the British Standards Institution (prefixed BS)
  • They give recommended minimum standards for materials, components, design and construction practices
88
Q

Can you name some materials that have been banned from use in construction?

A
  • High alumina cement in structural elements
  • Asbestos
  • Urea formaldehyde
89
Q

What is the Equality Act 2010?

A
  • The Equality Act 2010 legally protects people form discrimination in the workplace and in wider society
  • The Equality Act replaced previous anti-discrimination laws with a single act and covers all matters such as disability, race, sex, gender reassignment, pregnancy, religion, or belief.
90
Q

Can you explain what the Party Wall Act 1996 is?

A
  • The Party Wall Act 1996 provides a framework for preventing and resolving disputes in relation to party walls, boundary walls and excavations near neighbouring buildings.
  • The Act is separate from obtaining planning permission or building regulations approval
91
Q

Can you briefly explain what O&M manuals are and what might be includes?

A
  • Operation & Maintenance manuals
  • Upon completion of the build phase, O&M manuals are issued to the client / building owner (O&M manuals are usually produced by the contractor)
  • Includes all information relating to how the building has been constructed, should be maintained, cleaned and decommissioned.
  • Includes as built drawings and specifications.

RICS APC Revision (19 decks)

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