Constitutional s/s, integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

What are red flags when describing fatigue?

A

“tiredness” interferes with pt’s ability to carry out typical daily activities
AND
Lasts 2-4 wks (or more)

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2
Q

What conditions present as chronic fatigue?

A

Connective tissue disorders
Sleep disturbance

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3
Q

definition: General discomfort, sense of uneasiness, “out of sorts”

A

malaise

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4
Q

Malaise is often noted with conditions that cause ____.

A

fevers

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5
Q

What type of illnesses are often associated with fever, chills, and sweats?

A

systemic

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6
Q

What are the red flags of fever?

A

present for 2+ weeks (pathologic)
high grade fever (urgent)

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7
Q

unexplained weight loss can be associated with what?

A

Usually assoc w/ depression, cancer, GI diseases, & CVDs

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8
Q

What is indicated if a pregnant woman gains > 2 - 5lbs in 1 week or has sudden wt gain in 1-2 days

A

preeclampsia

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9
Q

Unexplained weight gain can be associated with what?

A

fluid retention related to CHF, liver/renal disease, and preeclampsia, depression, hypothyroidism, cushing’s

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10
Q

Nausea and vomiting are usually associated with ___ disorders.

A

GI

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11
Q

What are red flags for possible melanoma during a patient interview?

A

Hx of cancer
Female < 40 y/o
Male > 40 y/o
Fair skin with history of sunburns

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12
Q

What are physical exam red flags for melanoma?

A

Asymmetric
Borders are notched, scalloped, or vaguely defined
Diameter > 6 mm

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13
Q

What are the common places on the body to see melanoma?

A

hand
head
shoulder

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14
Q

What is anemia?

A

too few RBCs

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15
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

too many RBCs

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16
Q

What is poikilocytosis?

A

abnormally shaped RBCs

(ex: sickle cell anemia)

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17
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

abnormal variations in RBC size

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18
Q

What is hypochromia?

A

Hgb deficient RBCs

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19
Q

What are s/s of RBC disorders?

A

fatigue/malaise

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20
Q

What do RBCs do?

A

transport O2

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21
Q

(true/false) you can reverse osteopenia and osteoporosis

A

FALSE- only osteopenia

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22
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

increased WBCs

23
Q

What range on WBCs is considered as leukocytosis?

A

> 10,000

24
Q

What is a risk of having leukocytosis?

A

can be caused by an autoimmune disorder which attacks healthy cells

25
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

decreased WBCs

26
Q

What range of WBCs is indicative of leukopenia?

A

< 5,000

27
Q

What is leukemia?

A

disease causing uncontrolled growth of immature/dysfunctional WBCs

—> From bone marrow

28
Q

What are s/s of leukocyte disorders?

A

Fevers and s/s of infection

29
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

increased platelet count

30
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

decrease in platelet count

31
Q

What platelet count is indicative of thrombocytopenia?

A

< 150,000

32
Q

What are s/s of platelet disorders?

A

excessive bleeding and bruising

33
Q

(true/false) Thrombocytosis is permanent

A

FALSE - temporary

34
Q

Splenomegaly, easy ecchymoses, and thrombosis are examples of ___.

A

Thrombocytosis

35
Q

Petechiae, epistaxis, and purpura spots are examples of ____.

A

thrombocytopenia

36
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

Muscle hemorrhage

37
Q

What are s/s of hemophilia?

A

red, swollen, position of comfort, gradual pain, altered sensation

38
Q

Hemophilia is a ___ disorder.

A

coagulation

39
Q

How many americans does DVT affect per year?

A

2 million

40
Q

DVT has a ___% mortality rate within 3 days of onset.

A

30%

41
Q

Approximately 33% of people with a DVT develop a ___.

A

PE

42
Q

What clinical test is reliable for DVT Dx?

A

wells score

43
Q

What are DVT risk factors? What are they called?

A

Virchow’s triad:
- venous stasis
- vessel wall damage
- hypercoagulability

44
Q

What are the three groups of DVTs?

A

Acquired
Genetic
Environmental/demographic

45
Q

What are acquired risk factors for DVT?

A
  • Immobilization
  • Operative procedures
  • Trauma
  • Malignant neoplasms
  • Pregnancy (pre- and post-)
  • lupus anticoagulant
  • female hormones
46
Q

What are genetic risk factors for DVT?

A

Deficiency (C, S, antithrombin III)
Mutation (Factor V, Prothrombin 20210A)
High concentration for factor VIII (hyperhomocysteinemia)

47
Q

What are environmental/demographic risk factors for DVT?

A

Caucasian & African-American ethnicity
> 40 yo.
Obesity
Hospital/nursing home confinement
Traveling > 4 hours by car, train, or airplane
Winter season

48
Q

How many risk factors does a child need to produce a DVT?

A

3-4

49
Q

How many risk factors does a young adult need to produce a DVT?

A

2+

50
Q

What are LE DVT screening tests?

A

Wells score
Kahn score
St Andre Score
New Ambulatory Score (outpatient clinic)

51
Q

What score does a patient need on LE DVT assessments to have a high risk of DVT?

A

> 3 points

52
Q

What is indicated if a patient has a (-) D-dimer test?

A

no DVT

53
Q

What are the scoring criteria on UE DVT screening tests?

A

(+1) Presence of venous material such as a catheter or access device in the subclavian or jugular vein, or placement of a pacemaker

(+1) Pitting edema

(+1) Localized pain in the UE

(1+) other Dx that are not as plausible as a DVT

54
Q

What score does a patient need on a UE DVT screening test to be high risk?

A

> 2 points