constitutional and other bodies Flashcards

1
Q

Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)?

A
  1. KVIC is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament (Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956).
  2. In April 1957, it took over the work of former All India Khadi and Village Industries Board.
  3. It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India
  4. Obj:
    1. The Social Objective – Providing employment in rural areas.
    2. The Economic Objective – Providing salable articles.
    3. The Wider Objective – Creating self-reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit.
  5. Its head office is in Mumbai , whereas its six zonal offices in Delhi, Bhopal, Bangalore, Kolkata, Mumbai and Guwahati.
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2
Q

National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)?

A
  1. was set up as registered society under the Societies Registration Act of 1890 on November 24, 2005 with a mandate for Dope free sports in India.
  2. The primary objectives are to implement anti-doping rules as per WADA code, regulate dope control programme, to promote education and research and creating awareness about doping and its ill effects.
  3. Recently, BCCI has agreed to come under the ambit of NADA
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3
Q

Vineet Narain v. Union of India in 1997 is related to?

A

Autonomy of CBI

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4
Q

Problems associated with CBI/

A
  1. Operates under Jurisdiction of Min of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  2. The agency is dependent on the home ministry for staffing, since many of its investigators come from the Indian Police Service.
  3. The agency depends on the law ministry for lawyers and also lacks functional autonomy to some extent.
  4. The CBI, run by IPS officers on deputation, is also susceptible to the government’s ability to manipulate the senior officers, because they are dependent on the Central government for future postings.
  5. Another great constraint on the CBI is its dependence on State governments for invoking its authority to investigate cases in a State, even when such investigation targets a Central government employee.
  6. Since police is a State subject under the Constitution, and the CBI acts as per the procedure prescribed by the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), which makes it a police agency, the CBI needs the consent of the State government in question before it can make its presence in that State.
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5
Q

Land portd Authority of India?

A

LPAI is a statutory body established under Land Ports Authority of India Act, 2010.

The Act gives powers to LPAI to develop, sanitize and manage the facilities for cross-border movement of passengers and goods at designated points along the international borders of India.

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6
Q

National Agricultural Cooperative Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED)?

A
  1. established in 1958 (2nd Oct), is registered under the Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.
  2. apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India, under Ministry of Agriculture
  3. NAFED is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under “Operation Greens” which aims to double the farmers’ income by 2022
  4. Composition: Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed.
  5. NAFED along with FCI with proactive role of SG also physically procures oilseeds, pulses and copra under the Price Support Scheme (PSS) which in turn is under the umbrella scheme of PM-AASHA
  6. In 2008, it established, National Spot Exchange, a Commodities exchange as a joint venture of Financial Technologies (India) Ltd. (FTIL)
  7. Nafed was setup with the object to promote Co-operative marketing of Agricultural Produce to benefit the farmers. The objectives of the NAFED shall be to organize, promote and develop
    1. marketing, processing and storage of agricultural, horticultural and forest produce,
    2. distribution of agricultural machinery, implements and other inputs,
    3. undertake inter-state, import and export trade etc.
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7
Q

Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF)?

A
  1. constituted by CVC
  2. Headquartered in Delhi, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will provide required secretarial services, logistic and analytical support along with the necessary funding to the board.
  3. Composition:
    1. Besides the chairman, the Board consists of three other members.
    2. The tenure of the Chairman and members would be for a period of two years
  4. Jurisdiction:
    1. bank fraud of over ₹50 crore and recommend action.
    2. cases involving the level of officers of General Manager and above in PSBs
    3. would function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before recommendations or references are made to the investigative agencies by the respective PSBs
  5. CBI may also refer any case or matter to the board where it has any issue or difficulty or in technical matters
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8
Q

Appeals against decisions of Foreigners’ Tribunals lie at?

A

HC

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9
Q

National Commission for Protection of Child rights (NCPCR)?

A
  1. Set up in March 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
  2. It works under the administrative control of the MWC&D
  3. The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
  4. Under the RTE Act, 2009, the NCPCR can:
    1. inquire into complaints about violation of the law.
    2. summon an individual and demand evidence.
    3. seek a magisterial enquiry.
    4. file a writ petition in the High Court or Supreme Court.
    5. approach the government concerned for prosecution of the offender.
    6. recommend interim relief to those affected.
  5. Composition:
    1. This commission has a chairperson and six members of which at least two should be women.
    2. All of them are appointed by Central Government for three years.
    3. The maximum age to serve in commission is 65 years for Chairman and 60 years for members.
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10
Q

BIS?

A

BIS is the only national body that frames standards.

It works under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution

BIS is responsible for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

The Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016 establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India.

The Act enables the CG to appoint any authority/agency, in addition to the BIS, to verify the conformity of products and services with the established standard and issue certificate of conformity.

There is a provision for repair or recall, of the products (bearing Standard Mark) that do not conform to the relevant Indian Standard.

BIS (Hallmarking) Regulations, 2018 under the BIS act calls for Hallmarking of Gold and silver jewellery and artifacts

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11
Q

NCLAT constituted by?

A

under Sec 410 of Companies act, 2013

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12
Q

NCLAT: jurisdiction?

A
  1. appeals against orders of NCLT 2. Appellate tribunal against orers by NCLT under IBC 3. Appellate Tribunal for hearin appeals against orders of IBBI under IBC 4. appeals against orders passed by CCI
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13
Q

NCLAT appointments?

A
  1. President and Judicial members appointed after consultation with CJI 2. members and technical members on recommendation of a selection committee. 3. Selection committee consists of : CJI (chair), senior judge of SC or CJ of HC, secy in Min of CA, secy in Min of Law &Justice and Secy in deptt of Fin services in Min of fin.
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14
Q

NCLAT bench at?

A

New Delhi Govt has also decided to set up one at chennai.

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15
Q

CCEA?

A
  • CCEA is one of the standing committees of the cabinet constituted by GoI
  • CCEA comprises 11 ministers and three special invitees.
  • PM is the chairman of CCEA.
  • fns:
  1. review economic trends on a continuous basis
  2. also directs and coordinates all policies and activities in the economic field including foreign investment that require policy decisions at the highest level.
  3. fixation of prices of agricultural products as well as reviewing progress of activities related to rural development including those concerning small and marginal farmers
  4. Price controls of industrial raw materials and products, industrial licensing policies including industrial licensing cases for establishment of Joint Sector Undertakings, reviewing performance of PSUs including their structural and financial restructuring; all matters relating to disinvestment including cases of strategic sale, and pricing of Government shares in PSUs
  5. CCEA also lays down priorities for public sector investment and considers specific proposals for investment of not less than specific levels (Rs. 3 Billion at present) as revised from time to time.
  6. note that the increase in the prices of essential commodities or bulk goods under any form of formal or informal control is decided by the CCEA, even as the CCP monitors the price behaviour of essential commodities, takes decision on supply, imports and exports of essential commodities and prices for articles sold through the public distribution system.
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16
Q

CACP: abt?

A
  1. established in 1965, as the Agricultural Prices Commission, and was given its present name in 1985
  2. It is an attached office of MoAFW
  3. Composition:
  • a Chairman
  • Member Secretary
  • one Member (Official)
  • two Members (Non-Official)
  • The non-official members are representatives of the farming community and usually have an active association with the farming community.
  1. CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities:
  • 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi),
  • 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil),
  • 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed)
  • 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
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17
Q

National Productivity Council (NPC)?

A
  1. NPC is national level organization to promote productivity culture in India.
  2. Established by the Ministry of Industry, Government of India in 1958.
  3. It is an autonomous, multipartite, non-profit organizationwith equal representation from employers’ & workers’ organizations and Government, apart from technical & professional institutions and other interests.
  4. NPC is a constituent of the Tokyo-based Asian Productivity Organisation (APO),an Inter Governmental Body, of which the Government of India is a founder member.
  5. Functions: NPC teams up with its clients to work out solutions towards accelerating productivity, enhancing competitiveness, increasing profits, augmenting safety and reliability etc.
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18
Q

Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF)?

A
  1. to be set up by RBI to give a push to digital payments
  2. fund has been created to encourage acquirers to deploy point of sale (PoS) infrastructure, both physical and digital, in tier-3 to tier-6 centres and north eastern states.
  3. fund worth 500cr Rs. RBI has made an initial contribution of Rs 250 crore. The remaining will come from the card issuing banks and card networks operating in the country.
  4. fund is also in line with the measures proposed by the vision document on payment and settlement systems in India 2019-2021.
  5. By 2021, there will be around 5 million active PoS
  • In a similar move, last year, the RBI had also proposed to set up an Acceptance Development Fund which will be used to develop card acceptance infrastructure such as swipe machines across the country particularly in Tier III and Tier VI cities.
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19
Q

SIDBI?

A
  • Small industrial Development Bank of INdia
  • it is a developmental institution, headquartered in Lucknow.
  • one of the four All India Financial Institutions regulated and supervised by the Reserve Bank; other three are EXIM Bank, NABARD and NHB (recently govt bought NHB’s 51% stakes)
  • established in 1990 through an Act
  • operates under the Department of Financial Services, GoI
  • Largest shareholders: SBI, GoI and LIC

Functions:

  1. microfinance through the Micro Finance Institution (MFI) route
  2. focuses on rural enterprises promotion and entrepreneurship development
  3. operates a refinance program known as Institutional Finance program, under which it extends term loan assistance to banks, SFBs and NBFCs
  4. SIDBI also lends directly to MSMEs
  5. SIDBI also coordinates the functions of institutions engaged in similar activities.
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20
Q

NPCI?

A
  1. NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
  2. It is an initiative of RBI, Indian bankers’ Association (IBA), under the provisions of payments and Settlements Act 2007 fr creating a robust Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India.
  3. incorporated as a not for profit company.
  4. ten original core promoters were SBI, PNB, Canara bank, UBI, BoI, ICICI, HDFC, HSBC etc. In 2016, the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.
  5. services offered by NPCI:
  • NFS: National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network with 37 member banks and connecting 50,000 ATMs was taken to NPCI’s authority from the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2009
  • IMPS
  • AePS
  • CTS: Cheque Truncation System (CTS) facilitates extended cut-off time to accept customer cheques by banks and reduces timelines for clearing.
  • RuPay
  • NACH: National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is a web-based solution that facilitates interbank, high volume electronic transactions that are repetitive in nature.
  • APBS: Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) System is used by the government and government agencies to make DBT wrt various schemes
  • *99#: is a USSD-based mobile banking service of NPCI launched in November 2012.
  • UPI: makes multiple bank accounts to be accessed from a single mobile application.
  • Bharat BillPay: is a system conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and driven by NPCI.
  • NETC: National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC)
  • BHIM and BHaratQR
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21
Q

SPIC MACAY?

A
  1. Society for the Promotion of Indian Classical Music And Culture Amongst Youth (SPIC MACAY) is a voluntary youth movement which promotes intangible aspects of Indian cultural heritage.
  2. It does this by promoting Indian classical music, classical dance, folk music, yoga, meditation, crafts and other aspects of Indian culture.
  3. It is a movement with chapters in over 300 towns all over the world.
  4. It was established by Dr. Kiran Seth in 1977 at IIT Delhi.
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22
Q

What is PM CARES fund?

A
  1. created on 28 March 2020, “with the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic”.
  2. It is a “public charitable trust”.
  3. Administration:
    • PM: ex-officio Chairman and the following as ex-officio members
    • HM
    • FM
    • Defece Min
  4. Reports suggest that PM CARES has already received contributions in excess of Rs. 10,000 crores.
  5. PMO has declared it to be not a ‘public authority’ under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act 2005 and has refused to divulge information sought in an application filed under the RTI Act.
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23
Q

PM-CARES not under RTI: views and provisions?

A
  1. Under Article 266(2) of the Constitution, “public moneys received by or on behalf of the GoI”, which is not on account of revenue from taxes, duties, repayment of loans and the like should be credited to the Public Account of India.
  2. since PM CARES conforms to being a “public account” and as vast sums of money have been collected manifestly at the behest of the government of India, allowing the CAG to audit it will be a step in the direction of transparency and instil public confidence in the Fund.
  3. For a trust which is created and run by 4 cabinet ministers in their ex-officio capacities, denying the status of ‘public authority’ is a big blow to transparency and not to mention our democratic values.
  4. The name, composition of the trust, control, usage of emblem, government domain name everything signifies that it is a public authority.
  5. Govt’s argument: The argument against conferring PM CARES the status of a “public account” seems to be that it is a fund based on voluntary contributions of individuals and organisations, and as such, beyond the full-fledged scrutiny of the CAG.
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24
Q

ECGC?

A
  1. It is a fully government-owned company that was established in 1957 to promote exports by providing credit insurance services.
  2. The ECGC provides Export Credit Insurance to Banks (ECIB) to protect the banks from losses on account of export credit at the Pre and Post-Shipment stage given to exporters due to the risks of insolvency or protracted default of the exporter borrower.
  3. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Department of Commerce.
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25
Q

Composition of NCLT?

A

NCLT shall consist of a President and such number of Judicial and Technical Members as may be required

NCLT has 16 benches, 6 of them in New Delhi, one of which is the Principle Bench

NCLT bench is chaired by a Judicial member who is supposed to be a retired or a serving High Court Judge and a Technical member who must be from the Indian Corporate Law Service, ICLS Cadre.

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26
Q

Godavari river Mangament Board?

A
  1. constituted by the Central Government as an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Central Government in pursuance of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014
  2. under administrative control of MoWR
  3. for the administration, regulation, maintenance and operation of such projects on the rivers Krishna and Godavari respectively, as may be notified by the Central Government from time to time
  4. Board shall consist of a Chairperson, of the level of an additional Secretary to the Government of India from the Central Water Engineering (Group ‘A’) Service; two Members nominated by each of the successor States of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, and one expert.
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27
Q

TRAI?

A
  1. TRAI) is a statutory body set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997
  2. It consists of a Chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members.
  3. The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
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28
Q

Foreigners tribunal?

A
  1. In 1964, the govt brought in the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order 1964.
  2. Composition: Advocates not below the age of 35 years of age with at least 7 years of practice (or) Retired Judicial Officers from the Assam Judicial Service (or) Retired IAS of ACS Officers (not below the rank of Secretary/Addl. Secretary) having experience in quasi-judicial works.
  3. MHA) has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, and has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals (quasi-judicial bodies) to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not. Earlier, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre.
  4. Foreigners Tribunals have been established only in Assam
  5. Typically, the tribunals there have seen two kinds of cases: those concerning persons against whom a reference has been made by the border police and those whose names in the electoral roll has a “D”, or “doubtful”, marked against them.
  6. The amended order (Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019) also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals. Earlier, only the State administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect.
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29
Q

National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC)

A
  1. established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
  2. It has many regional centres to provide the financial assistance to Cooperatives/Societies/Federations.
  3. FPO is a Producer Organisation (PO) where the members are farmers. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC)is providing support for the promotion of FPOs.
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30
Q

Chief of Defence Staff: recommended by committees? features?

A

1) Kargil review committee headed by K. Subramanyam ; fleshed out in detail in 2001 as under recommendation by a GoM on National security; Naresh chandra committee (2012) recommended a ‘top military advisor’ as a Permanent chairman of Chiefs of staff committee
1) function:
(i) ensure cood bet 3 services, esp in matters of defence procurement (will be a member of Defence Min headed Defence procurement council)
(ii) will head the newly formed Deptt of military affairs, and thus called a ‘dual hatted role’
(iii) helping in force restructuring to bring in savings and operational synergy
(iv) see to requirements of the 3 services in Budgetary allocations
(v) a pre-testing for a future joint theatre command
(vi) provide military advice to the govt (principal military adviser but not the sole adviser)
(vii) will oversee five tri-services commands: integrated command at A&N and strategic command (missiles) and three recently constituted :cyber, space and special forces. The CDS will also function as the military advisor to the PM-led Nuclear Command Authority,as also have direct command of tri-Service organizations to handle the new warfare domains of space and cyberspace.
(viii) will be a member of NSC
(ix) take up some responsibilities of Defence secy who used to be a civilian, however given the rank of Cabinet Secy.
(x) The CDS will be member of Defence Acquisition Council and Defence Planning Committee.
2) Not the commander of all armed forces in the country, but equal in rank of all the othr chiefs of staff i.e. 4 star general. CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee which will also have three service chiefs as members.
3) will not exercise any military command, incl over any of military chiefs.; at par with the three service chiefs; only head of the tri-services committee, that earlier used to be headed by the oldest serving member by rotation; however, DMA will also handle promotion, posting and disciplinary matters and thus indirect influence.

● Not eligible to hold any Government office after demitting the office of CDS.
● No private employment without prior approval for a period of five years after demitting the office of CDS.

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31
Q

departments of Ministry of defence? ‘security of India’ lies with?

A

4 already existing deptts

1) Deptt of Defence-headed by Defence secy
2) deptt of defence production
3) Deptt of defence R&D
4) deptt of ex-servicemen welfare New deptt created- Deptt of military affairs (DMA)-headed by CDS Deptt of Defence will be responsible for defence of India and defence policy and all such acts conducive in times of war.

32
Q

distri of responsibilities betn DMA and Deptt of defense?

A

Work exclusively pertaining to military matters will fall within DMA while larger issues pertaining to defencewillbe seen by DoD. eg. tri-service military training insti will fall under DMA while org like IDSA and NDC, whose remit are broader than military matters, will be handled by DoD.

33
Q

Armed forces comes under which deptt of Min of defence?

A

Armed forces and their service hqrs are attched offices, earlier to DoD, but now to DMA

34
Q

CARA?

A

Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an apex body of Government of India for promoting and facilitating In-country Adoption and is the designated Central Authority for regulating Inter-countryAdoption.

CARA was designated as a Statutory Body on 15 Jan 2016, under the provisions of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.

35
Q

T/F: national investigation agency is the only truely federal agency in the country akin to FBI of USA.

A

T

36
Q

T/F: NIA can take suo moto cognisance of terror activities in any part of INdia and register a case.

T/F: NIA can enter any state state regarding a terror activity investigation, and can arrest people without permission of SG

A

T

T

37
Q

Which state recently challenged NIA act 2008 in SC citing it being ultra vires Constitution and Federalism?

A

Chhatisgarh

38
Q

National Investigating Agency (NIA)?

A

It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:
● affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State, friendly relations with foreign States.
● against atomic and nuclear facilities.
● smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency.

It is also the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
● It is empowered to deal with terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
● Established under the National Investigation Agency Act 2008.
● Works under the Ministry of Hime Affairs.

Jurisdiction:
● A State Government may request the Central Government to hand over the investigation of a case to the NIA, provided the case has been registered for the offences as contained in the schedule to the NIA Act.
● Central Government can also order NIA to take over investigation of any scheduled offense anywhere in the India.

Composition:
Officers of the NIA are drawn from the Indian Police Service and Indian Revenue Service.

Special NIA Courts:
● Various Special Courts have been notified by the Central Government of India.
● Any question as to the jurisdiction of these courts is decided by the Central Government.
● These are presided over by a judge appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the High Court with jurisdiction in that region.
● Supreme Court of India has also been empowered to transfer the cases from one special court to any other special court within or outside the state.

Powers:
The NIA Special Courts are empowered with all powers of the court of sessions under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 for trial of any offense.

Appeals:
An appeal from any judgement, sentence or order, not being an interlocutory order, of a Special Court lies to the High Court both on facts and on law. State Governments have also been empowered to appoint one or more such special courts in their states.

39
Q

Telecommunication Consumers Education and Protection Fund (TCEPF)?

A

Framework provided in TCEPF Regulations of 2007

  • It offers a basic framework for depositing unclaimed money of consumers by service providers, maintenance of the fund and other aspects.
  • It provides a time of 12 months or period of limitation specified under law whichever is later, after which unclaimed consumer money should be deposited to the fund.
  • The income from the fund is utilised for programmes and activities relating to consumer education and protection.

It includes unclaimed/nonrefundable money on account of excess billing revealed in the audit, unclaimed money such as security deposits and plan charges of failed activations.

40
Q

Efficacy of Central commissions: NCRB data?

A
  1. only 4% of cmoplaints sent to NHRC or SHRC ended up as FIRs
  2. The value stood at 7% for Comm for SCs, 5% fro Comm of STs and 5% of Comm for women. Children welfare Boards/commissions had a success rate of 20%
41
Q

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)?

A

APEDA was established by GoI under APEDA act, 1985

mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled products

  1. fruits, vegetables and their products
  2. meat, meat products, poultry and products
  3. dairy products
  4. Confectionery, Biscuits and Bakery Products.
  5. Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products.
  6. Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds.
  7. Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages.
  8. Cereal and Cereal Products.
  9. Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts.
  10. Pickles, Papads and Chutneys.
  11. Guar gum
  12. Floriculture and Floriculture Products.
  13. Herbal and Medicinal Plants.

composition:

  • Chairman – Appointed by the CG
  • Director – Appointed by APEDA.
  • Secretary – Appointed by the CG
42
Q

National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)?

A
  1. established by UGC
  2. to assess and accredit institution of higher learning in the country.
  3. The NAAC was originally formed in 1992 as a result of recommendations from ‘National Policy on Education – 1986’ which emphasizes on deteriorating quality of higher education in the country.
  4. Functions: The NAAC certifies institutions of higher learning (Colleges, Universities, Institutes, etc) in the country; however, it does not include the institutes providing technical education.
  5. It is an autonomous organisation
43
Q

Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)?

A

established by PNGRB Act, 2005, to regulate downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector

PNGRB shall regulate the laying and expanding of (a) transmission pipelines for gas and petroleum and (b) city/ local gas distribution networks

Entities will have to register with the PNGRB to market petroleum products and natural gas, operate LNG terminals and establish storage facilities beyond specified capacity

PNGRB will monitor PNG prices and can take corrective measures to prevent restrictive trade practice by the entities

The PNGRB will have the same powers as a civil court to settle disputes. The Appellate Tribunal under the Electricity Act will serve as the Appellate Tribunal for this Act

44
Q

National Startup Advisory Council: composition?

A

set up to advise the central government to create a strong ecosystem to nurture innovation and start-ups in India.

Composition

  1. chaired by Minster for Commerce & Industry.
  2. It will consist of the non-official members, to be nominated by Central Government, from various categories like founders of successful startups, veterans and persons capable of representing interests of incubators and accelerators etc.
  3. term of the non-official members of the Startup Advisory Council will be for a period of two years.
  4. The nominees of the concerned Ministries/Departments/Organisations, not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India, will be ex-officio members of the Council.
  5. Joint Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade will be the Convener of the Council.
45
Q

TERI?

A

The Energy and Resources Institute

It is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South.

established in 1974 as an information centre on energy issues. However, over the following decades, it made a mark as a research institute, whose policy and technology solutions transformed people’s lives and the environment.

46
Q

INCCU?

A
  1. Indian National commission fr Cooperation with UNESCO
  2. Initially Setup in 1949, it is a governmental body functioning under the Department of Secondary and Higher Education in MHRD. A permanent Commission was established in 1951.
  3. The Constitution of the UNESCO mandates each member to form a national commission to function as agencies of liaison between the national government and UNESCO.
  4. The objective of the Commission is to advise the Government in matters relating to the UNESCO.
  5. Composition: Presided by MHRD; Secy to GoI in Deptt of Higher Education is the Secy-General of the Commission
47
Q

APTEL?

A
  1. the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity was constituted in the year 2005 to hear appeals against the orders of the adjudicating officer or the Central and State Electricity Regulatory Commissions under the Electricity Act, 2003
  2. second appeal lies before SC
  3. In 2007, the APTEL was designated as the Appellate Tribunal to hear the appeals against the orders of PNGRB
  4. Besides regular appellate power, APTEL has a superintending role over regulators for performance of its statutory functions under the Electricity Act, 2003.

Composition:

  • comprises a Chairperson who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or Chief Justice of a High Court,
  • one Judicial Member who has been or qualified to be a judge of High Court,
  • two Technical Members who are electricity sector experts and
  • one Technical Member who is an expert from petroleum and natural gas sector.
48
Q

Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR: what?

A
  1. created by The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act 2021
  2. The monitoring and management of air quality in the Delhi-NCR region has been done in pieces by multiple bodies, including the CPCB, the state PCBs, the state govts in the region, including Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan, and the EPCA
  3. They in turn are monitored y MoEFCC and SC which monitors air pollution as per the judgment in ‘M C Mehta vs Union of India’ case in 1988.
  4. The Act however, seeks to create an overarching body to consolidate all monitoring bodies, and to bring them on one platform so that air quality management can be carried out in a more comprehensive, efficient, and time-bound manner.
  5. The Centre also seeks to relieve the Supreme Court from having to constantly monitor pollution levels through various cases.
49
Q

Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR: responsibilities and powers?

A
  1. It will be an overarching body to consolidate all monitoring bodies, and to bring them on one platform so that air quality management can be carried out in a more comprehensive, efficient, and time-bound manner.
  2. it will replace EPCA which had been running for 22 years. While dissolving the body, the Centre felt that the EPCA had become redundant and had been ineffective in addressing issues related to air pollution. The EPCA also did not have penal provisions that the commission will now have.
  3. The Commission is the most powerful air pollution monitoring body set up by the Centre to date. The rulings by the commission on air pollution will override anything contained in any other law and its powers will supercede that of any other body in matters of air pollution
  4. The Commission will have the power to take measures, issue directions and entertain complaints “for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of air in NCR
  5. It will also coordinate action taken by states on air pollution
  6. It will lay down parameters for air quality and emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.
  7. It will also have powers to restrict industries in any area, carry out random inspections of any premises including factories and be able to close down an industry or cut its power and water supply in case of non-compliance.
  8. It will also be monitoring the measures taken by the states to prevent stubble burning.
  9. Act further says that no civil court will have jurisdiction to entertain any suit, proceeding or dispute pertaining to or arising out of the actions taken or directions issued by the commission
  10. orders of the commission can only be contested before the National Green Tribunal
50
Q

Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR: composition?

A
  • will be headed by a full-time chairperson with experience of not less than 15 years in the field of environmental protection and pollution control or having administrative experience of not less than 25 years.
  • members
    • an official from the Environment Ministry,
    • five ex-officio members who are either chief secretaries or secretaries from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh,
    • one full-time member who is or has been a joint secretary,
    • three full-time independent technical members who are experts in air pollution,
    • one technical member each from the CPCB and ISRO,
    • three members fromNGOs who deal in air pollution and
    • one representative of the NITI Aayog
    • The commission will also have three members, being stakeholders from sectors such as agriculture, industry, transport or construction apart from representatives of several ministries, including Road Transport and Highways, Min of agri etc.
51
Q

Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR: issues and concerns?

A
  1. Environmentalists have raised concerns over the concentration of power with the Central Government.
  2. They have also criticized the overwhelming number of bureaucrats in the commission, with “only a token representation” of environmental bodies and non-governmental groups.
  3. While clause 14 excludes farming community from penalties (strictest in any env law in India) for stubble burning, the very next clause says that the commission “may impose and collect environmental compensation from farmers causing air pollution by stubble burning, at such rate and in such manner, as may be prescribed”.
52
Q

What is wage employment?

A

wage employment can be defined as ‘a mutual agreement between two parties (known as employer and employee) in which the employee (generally an individual) agrees to work for the employer (generally a business firm, government office or sometimes an individual) under some specific terms and conditions

53
Q

Role under MNREGA: wage seekers?

A

Rights and Entitlements

  1. application
  2. obtaining a job card
  3. choice of time and duration of work applied for
  4. Getting work within fifteen days of application or from the date when work is sought
  5. Facilities of crèche, drinking water, first aid etc., on the work site.
  6. Right to get 10 per cent extra wage in case of employment provided beyond 5 km of radius.
  7. workers are entitled to payment on a weekly basis, and in any case within a fortnight of the date on which work was done.
  8. Right to get unemployment allowance; in case employment is not provided within fifteen days
  9. Right to receive payment of compensation for the delay, at the rate of 0.05 per cent of the unpaid wages per day beyond the sixteenth day
  10. Medical treatment in case of injury in the course of employment including cost of hospitalisation if required and ex gratia payment in case of disability or death in the course of employment.
54
Q

Role under MNREGA: Gram sabha?

A

It determines the order of priority of works in the meetings of the Gram Sabha

Monitor the execution of works within the GP.

It is the primary forum for conduct of social audits. It provides a platform to all residents to seek and obtain all relevant information from all the Implementing Agencies including GP in relation to MGNREGA works implemented in the GP area.

55
Q

Role under MNREGA: Gram Panchayat?

A
  • registration
  • issuing job cards
  • Allotting work within fifteen days
  • Conducting periodical surveys to assess demand for work
  • Identification and planning of works, developing shelf of projects including determination of the order of their priority.
  • Prepare annually a report containing the facts and figures and achievements
  • Monitoring implementation at the village level
  • Organise Rozgar Diwas at every ward and Gram Panchayat level at least once a month.
56
Q

Role under MNREGA: SG?

A

Set up the SEGC

Set up a State level MGNREGS implementation agency/ mission and a State level MGNREGS social audit agency/directorate

Establish and operate a State Employment Guarantee Fund (SEGF)

57
Q

Ordnance factory Board?

A
  • It is an umbrella body for the ordnance factories and related institutions, and is currently a subordinate office of the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
  • The first Indian ordnance factory was set up in the year 1712 by the Dutch Company as a GunPowder Factory, West Bengal.
  • It is a conglomerate of 41 factories, 9 training Institutes, 3 regional marketing centres and 5 regional controllers of safety.
  • Headquarters: Kolkata
  • Significance: A major chunk of the weapon, ammunition and supplies for not just armed forces but also paramilitary and police forces comes from the OFB-run factories.
  • Production includes: Civilian and military-grade arms and ammunition, explosives, propellants and chemicals for missile systems, military vehicles, armoured vehicles, optical devices, parachutes, support equipment, troop clothing and general store items.
58
Q

Corporatization of Ordnance factory Board: what?

A
  • 41 factories across the country will be dissolved into seven new Defence PSUs
  • The newly created entities will be 100% owned by the government.
  • These entities will be responsible for different verticals of the products for eg. the Ammunition and Explosives group will be engaged in production of ammunition while a Vehicles group will engage in production of defence mobility and combat vehicles.
  • All OFB employees in the production units will be transferred to the new corporate entities on a deemed deputation initially for a period of two years without altering their service conditions as central government employees.
  • Pension liabilities of the retirees and existing employees will continue to be borne by the government.
59
Q

Corporatization of Ordnance factory Board: suggested by/relevant committees?

A

recommended in one or the other form by at least three expert committees on defence reforms set up in the last two decades —

the TKS Nair Committee (2000),

Vijay Kelkar Committee (2005), and

Vice Admiral Raman Puri Committee (2015).

A fourth committee, constituted by former Defence Minister Manohar Parrikar and chaired by Lt Gen D B Shekatkar, did not suggest corporatisation, but recommended regular audits of all ordnance units considering past performance.

60
Q

Corporatization of Ordnance factory Board: arguments in support?

A
  1. central argument has been that corporatisation, which will bring these entities under the purview of The Companies Act, would lead to improvements in efficiency, make products cost-competitive, and enhance their quality.
  2. A performance evaluation by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) in its report for 2019 on the OFB highlights a few issues:
    • Overheads (expenses not directly attributed to creating a product or service) constitute a staggering 33% of the overall allotted budget for the year. The major contributors being supervision costs and indirect labour costs.
    • Delayed Production: The Ordnance factories achieved production targets for only 49% of the items.
    • More than half the inventory (52%) was store-in-hand, procured for manufacture but not used within the year by the factories.
  3. Functioning directly under the Ministry of Defence, the OFB and its factories could not retain profits, and thus had no incentive to work towards increasing them
  4. The Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, also calls for the Corporatisation of OFB for: ‘improving autonomy, accountability and efficiency in ordnance suppliers’.
  5. It will allow these companies autonomy as well as help improve accountability and efficiency.
  6. will help to deepen their specialisation in product range
61
Q

National Financial Reporting Authority?

A

constituted in 2018 by the Government of India under section 132 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013. It is an audit regulator.

decision to constitute the NFRA was taken after the role of auditors and the ICAI came under the scanner for alleged lapses in various corporate scams including that at PNB

  • Composition: chairperson, who shall be a person of eminence and having expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance or law, appointed by the CG and other members not exceeding 15.
  • Functions and Duties:
    • Recommends accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government.
    • Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards.
    • Oversee the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggest measures for improvement in the quality of service.
    • Protect the public interest.
  • Powers:
    • It can undertake investigation related to the following class of companies and bodies corporate called Public Interest Entities:
      • Companies whose securities are listed on any stock exchange in India or outside India.
      • Unlisted public companies having paid-up capital of not less than Rs. 500 crores or having annual turnover of not less than Rs. 1,000 crores or having, in aggregate, outstanding loans, debentures and deposits of not less than Rs. 500 crores as on the 31st March of immediately preceding financial year.
      • Insurance companies, banking companies, companies engaged in the generation or supply of electricity.
    • It can investigate professional misconduct committed by members of ICAI
    • Where professional or other misconduct is proved, it has the power to make order for imposing penalty of—
      • not less than one lakh rupees, but which may extend to five times of the fees received, in case of individuals; and
      • not less than ten lakh rupees, but which may extend to ten times of the fees received, in case of firms.
  • Its account is monitored by the CAG
62
Q

Central Zoo Authority?

A

It is the statutory regulatory body for zoos in India. It was established in 1992 under WPA.

  • The main objective of the Authority is to complement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country, particularly the fauna as per the National Zoo Policy, 1998.

Important functions:

  1. It enforces minimum standards and norms for the upkeep and healthcare of animals in Indian zoos.
  2. Every zoo in the country is required to obtain recognition from CZA for its operation.
  3. It can also de-recognise zoos.
63
Q

Enforcement Directorate (ED)?

A
  • It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
  • On 1st May 1956, an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed in the Department of Economic Affairs for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947. In 1957, it was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’.
  • ED enforces the following laws:

Dec 2021:

Union Government has brought in two ordinances allowing the service of the directors of the Enforcement Directorate (ED) and the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to be extended beyond their fixed tenure of at least two years up to a maximum of five years.
● The extension can be given only one year at a time. That is, after a fixed two-year tenure, they may get three annual extensions.

the changes to the tenure of the ED Director was brought in by amending the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

64
Q

Consent needed by CBI?

A

CBI is governed by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act that makes consent of a state government mandatory for conducting investigation in that state.

Given that the CBI has jurisdiction only over central government departments and employees, it can investigate a case involving state government employees or a violent crime in a given state only after that state government gives its consent.

There are two kinds of consent: Case-specific and general. “General consent” is normally given to help the CBI seamlessly conduct its investigation into cases of corruption against central government employees in the concerned state.

In exercise of power conferred by Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, the state governments can withdraw the general consent accorded. Withdrawal of consent means that CBI officers will lose all powers of a police officer as soon as they enter the state unless the state government has allowed them.

However, The CBI would still have the power to investigate old cases registered when general consent existed. Also, cases registered anywhere else in the country, but involving people stationed in states which have withdrawn consent, would allow CBI’s jurisdiction to extend to these states.

65
Q

Suit by WB govt against UoI regarding consent to CBI?

A

A suit was filed by the West Bengal Government against the Union of India under Article 131 of the Constitution.

  • The State has challenged the CBI’s jurisdiction to register FIRs and conduct investigations in the State in myriad cases.
  • West Bengal said it had withdrawn “general consent” to the CBI way back in 2018.
  • The State said the CBI’s actions were a direct attack on the federal structure of governance and aimed to harass ruling party
  • Centre’s response
    • State governments do not have any “absolute” power to keep the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) from investigating crimes inside the State.
    • Not even the Union government”, has the authority to rattle the autonomy of the premier agency to conduct investigations.
    • Also, withdrawal of general consent would not stand in the way of constitutional courts entrusting the CBI with the cases “where it is found that the State Police would not effectively conduct a fair and impartial investigation”.
    • Besides, the CBI was empowered to probe cases concerning any of the Central subjects enumerated in the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
66
Q

What is a Foreigners tribunal?

A

Foreigners’ Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies established as per the Foreigners’ Tribunal Order, 1964 and the Foreigners’ Act, 1946.

Composition: Advocates not below the age of 35 years of age with at least 7 years of practice (or) Retired Judicial Officers from the Assam Judicial Service (or) Retired IAS of ACS Officers (not below the rank of Secretary/Addl. Secretary) having experience in quasi-judicial works.

Who can setup these tribunals?

  • The MHA has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, and has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals (quasi-judicial bodies) to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.
  • Earlier, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre. The Centre has the power to deport foreign nationals staying illegally in the country under Section 3(2)(c) of The Foreigners Act, 1946. State governments have also been entrusted under Article 258(1) of the Constitution to take similar steps.

Who can approach?

  • The amended order (Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019) also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals.
  • Earlier, only the State administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect.
67
Q

T/F: Only Assam and Delhi in India have detention centres for foreigners?

A

F

Also in Goa, RJ, KN; further, other states like PJ, Mh, WB and Kerala also have plans in this regard

68
Q

Registrar-General and Census Commissioner of India?

A
  • Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, was founded in 1961 by the Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Role: Arranging, conducting and analysing the results of the demographic surveys of India including Census of India and Linguistic Survey of India.
  • The position of Registrar is usually held by a civil servant holding the rank of Joint Secretary.
69
Q

Defence Acquisition Council?

A

To counter corruption and speed up decision- making in military procurement, the government of India in 2001 decided to set up an integrated DAC.

  • It is headed by the Defence Minister.
  • The DAC is responsible to give policy guidelines to acquisitions, based on long-term procurement plans. It also clears all acquisitions, which includes both imported and those produced indigenously or under a foreign license.
70
Q

National Export Insurance Account (NEIA)?

A

● National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) is a trust set up by the Ministry of Commerce and administered by Export Credit & Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC).
● NEIA Trust was established in 2006 to promote project exports from India that are of strategic and national importance. Insures credit and political insurance.
● NEIA provides additional support to the insurance cover provided by ECGC for project exports

Objectives:
The National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) Trust aims to ensure the availability of credit risk cover for projects and other high-value exports, which are desirable from the point of view of national interest, but which ECGC is unable to underwrite due to capacity constraints or at terms, which are different from its regular policies.

What does it do?
● The NEIA Trust promotes Medium and Long Term (MLT) /project exports by extending (partial/full) support to covers issued by ECGC to MLT/project export.
● It also supports to Exim Bank for Buyer’s Credit (BC-NEIA) tied to project exports from India.

Step taken by GOI recently:

Government approves continuation of the National Export Insurance Account (NEIA) scheme and infusion of Rs. 1,650 crore Grant-in-Aid over 5 years.
Significance of recent move of Government:
The capital infusion in NEIA Trust will help the Indian Project Exporters (IPE) to tap the huge potential of project exports in focus market.
● Support to project exports with Indian content sourced from across the country will enhance the manufacturing in India.
● Corpus contribution of ₹1,650 Crore will enhance the underwriting capacity of the Trust.
● It will enable NEIA to support project exports worth ₹33,000 Crore at full capacity utilization.
● In turn this support will translate into an estimated output of domestically manufactured goods to the tune of ₹25,000 Crore approximately.

NEIA- Performance highlights:

● NEIA supports projects which are commercially viable and are strategically important.
● The corpus commitment of GOI is Rs.4000 crore and Maximum Liability Permissible is 20 times of the actual corpus.
● Since inception, NEIA has extended 213 covers, with a consolidated project value of Rs. 53,000 crores, to 52 countries as of 31st August 2021.
● Its impact in enabling project exports has been most significant in Africa and South Asia.

71
Q

EXIM Bank?

A
  • EXIM stands for Export-Import
  • Export-Import Bank of India is a wholly owned Govt. of India entity
  • Established in 1982
  • Aim : financing, facilitating and promoting foreign trade of India.
  • The EXIM bank extends Line of Credit (loC) to overseas financial institutions, regional development banks, sovereign governments and other entities abroad.
  • Thus the EXIM Banks enables buyers in those countries to import developmental and infrastructure, equipment’s, goods and services from India on deferred credit terms.
  • The bank also facilitates investment by Indian companies abroad for setting up joint ventures, subsidiaries or overseas acquisitions.
72
Q

Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH)?

A

INTACH) is a non-profit charitable organisation registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.

established in 1984

Among the tasks undertaken by INTACH are

  • restoration of monuments and their management;
  • advocacy for heritage property conservation; public awareness through heritage walks and buses;
  • establishment of heritage clubs in schools;
  • and holding of awareness workshop for teachers of schools and colleges and heritage walks to various unprotected sites
73
Q

Consider the following statements about Election Commission of India. 1. Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament. 3. If elections are being held only for the State Legislature, the expenditure is borne entirely by the concerned State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3

A

D

The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.
If elections are being held only for the Parliament, the expenditure is borne entirely by the Union Government while for the elections being held only for the State Legislature, the expenditure is borne entirely by the concerned State. In case of simultaneous elections to the Parliament and State Legislature, the expenditure is shared equally between the Union and the State Governments. For Capital equipment, expenditure related to preparation for electoral rolls and the scheme for Electors’ Identity Cards too, the expenditure is shared equally

74
Q

8) Consider the following statements regarding Statutory Grants
1. Statutory Grants are granted under Article 282.
2. The statutory grants are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
3. These grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

A

B

Statutory Grants
Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year. The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
Discretionary Grants
Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence.
“These grants are also known as discretionary grants, the reason being that the Centre is under no obligation to give these grants and the matter lies within its discretion.

75
Q

Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
1. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country.
2. He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years.
3. He can be removed by the president after an enquiry by the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

A

A

76
Q

National Commission for Women (NCW)?

A

The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to:
• review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women;
• recommend remedial legislative measures;
• facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

It is an advisory body, not a court. It can attend to grievances but only recommend action, and not order punishments.

77
Q

NCRB?

A
  • In 1986 (based on recommendations of the Tandon Committee, MHA Taskforce and National Police Commission (1977))
  • It acts under the Ministry of Home Affairsand functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
  • NCRB looks after CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems) and Central Finger Print Bureau
  • It released reports: Crimes in India, Prison Statistics in India and Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India.