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INFECTIONS - HIGH WEIGHTED > Conditions > Flashcards

Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What do you use to treat MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

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2
Q

What is used in phase 1 of treating TB and how long for?

A

RIPE

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

2 months

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3
Q

What is used in phase 2 of treating TB and how long for ?

A

Rifampicin
Isoniazid

4 months

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4
Q

TB - What are key warning signs for rifmapicin?

A
  • enzyme inducer
  • report hepatotoxicity
  • colours soft contact lenses and urine red/orange
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5
Q

TB - what are key things about isoniazid?

A
  • peripheral neuropathy - give pyridoxine

- enzyme inhibitor

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6
Q

TB - What should be immediately reported with ethambutol?

A

visual changes

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7
Q

What is used to treat fungal infections?

A
  • Azoles - e.g. itraconazole, ketoconazole.

- Amp B - for serious infs

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8
Q

What is a key interaction with itraconazole?

A
  • antacids - needs acidic pH for absorption
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9
Q

What does MHRA say about oral ketoconazole?

A

risk of heptaotoxicity is greater than benefit of treating fungal infections

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10
Q

What are ADRs of voriconazole?

A
  • phototoxicity

- hepatotoxicity

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11
Q

What needs to be taken into consideration when giving Amphotericin B?

A
  • specify brand

- anaphylaxis with IV preps - do test dose and monitor for 30 mins

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12
Q

What is used to treat oral candidiasis? (oral thrush)

A
  • Nystatin or miconazole
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13
Q

What is used to treat vaginal thrush?

A
  • oral fluconazole or clotrimazole
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14
Q

What is used for tinea? e.g. ringworm, athletes foot etc

A
  • miconazole/clotrimazole/terbinafine
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15
Q

What is the treatment for Community acquired pneumonia?

A
  • 7 day treatment
  • 14-21 days if staph

Mild - amoxicillin. alternative = clarithromycine or doxycycline

Moderate - amoxicillin + clarithromycin OR just doxycycline

Severe - Pen G + clarithromycin/doxycycline

Add fluclox if staph
Add vancomycin if MRSA

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16
Q

What is the treatment for Hospital acquired pneumonia?

A
  • 7 day treatment

Early onset < 5 days = co-amox or cefurozime

Severe or > 5 days = antipseudomonal penicillin or broad spec cephalosporin or quinolone

Add vancomycin if MRSA
Add aminoglycoside for pseudomonas aeruginosa

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17
Q

Helminth infections - what do you give for threadworm?

A

mebendazole

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18
Q

Helminth infections - what do you give for tapeworm?

A

praziquantel

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19
Q

Helminth infections - what do you give for hookworm?

A

mebendazole

20
Q

Helminth infections - what do you give for scabies?

A

ivermectin

21
Q

What is the most effective at preventing insect bites in order to prevent malaria transmission?

A

nets lined with permethrin

22
Q

What spray is used for mosquito bites?

A

DEET

  • safe in people over the age of 2 months
  • can reduce spf
23
Q

When should you take doxycycline for malaria prevention?

A

Take 1-2 days before entering area and continued for 4 weeks after leaving

24
Q

What are rules when taking doxycycline?

A
  • avoid sunlight - photosensitivity
  • do not take indigestion remedies, iron or zinc 2 hours before or after taking (reduces abs)
  • swallow capsules whole while standing or sitting - oesophageal irritation
25
Q

Who should mefloquine be avoided in?

A
  • people with psychiatric orders or convulsions
26
Q

Why should you be cautious when driving after having mefloquine?

A
  • long half life

- can cause dizziness/disturbed sense of balance

27
Q

What is the length of prophylaxis of antimalarials before travel?

A

1 week

exceptions:

  • mefloquine - 2 to 3 weeks before
  • malarone and doxy - 1 to 2 days before
28
Q

What is the length of prophylaxis after travel?

A

4 weeks after

exception:
- malarone - 1 week after

29
Q

Which anti-malarials should be avoided in those with epilepsy?

A
  • chloroquine or mefloquine
30
Q

Which anti-malarials should be avoided in those with renal imp?

A
  • proguanil, malarone and chloroquine

choose doxy or meflo

31
Q

Which anti-malarials are chosen in pregnancy?

A
  • chloroquine and proguanil (give 5mg folic acid)
  • doxycycline CI due to dental problems
  • malarone can be given in 2nd or 3rd trimester only if really ecessary
32
Q

When should INR be monitored in pts who require antimalarials?

A
  • before
  • 7 days after starting
  • after completing course
33
Q

What is the standby TREATMENT of malaria?

A
  • quinine

- only take if you can’t access medical care in 24 hours of fever onset

34
Q

What is used for viral infections such as HSV?

A

aciclovir

35
Q

What is olseltamivir used in?

A
  • prophylaxis of influenza
  • for at risk groups - 65+, DM, immunocompromised
  • start within 48 hours of symptoms
36
Q

How do you treat endocarditis?

A
  • Amoxicillin and/or low dose gentamicin
  • Vancomycin: in MRSA/penicillin allergy
  • Flucloxacillin: in staph
  • PenG: in strep
37
Q

How do you treat osteomyelitis (bone inf)?

A
  • fluclox

- if allergic - clindamycin

38
Q

How do you treat impetigo?

A
  • Fusidic acid for 7 days if small areas infected

- Flucloxacillin for 7 days if widespread

39
Q

How do you treat cellulitis?

A

fluclox

40
Q

How do you treat animal and human bites?

A

co-amox

OR

doxycycline + metronidazole

41
Q

How do you treat MRSA skin and soft tissue inf?

A

tetracycline

OR

sodium fusidate + rifampicin

OR

clindamysin

42
Q

How do you treat oral gingivitis?

A

metronidazole 400mg TDS for 3 days OR amox

43
Q

How do you treat a sore throat caused by streptococci?

A

Pen V

44
Q

How do you treat sinusitis?

A

amox or clarithro or doxy

45
Q

How do you treat otitis externa (staph aureus )?

A

fluclox

46
Q

How do you treat otitis media ?

A

amox or clarithro

INFECTIONS - HIGH WEIGHTED (9 decks)

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