Concepts in Development Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three basic steps of embryonic development?

A
  1. Cell division by mitosis.
  2. Cell determination and differentiation; cells become specialized in structure and function.
  3. Morphogenesis
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2
Q

What is morphogenesis?

A

Morphogenesis refers to the way in which physical processes give an organism its shape, including the organized distribution of differentiated cells.

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3
Q

What does genetic equivalence mean?

A

Genetic equivalence means that many somatic cells are structurally and functionally different but contain the same genome (DNA).

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4
Q

What does differential gene expression do?

A

This allows different types of cells to arise. Different cells have different mixes of activators that turn on the expression specific sets of genes.

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5
Q

What is albumin, and what produces it?

A

Albumin is one of the most common proteins in the blood and creates a lot of osmotic pressure that ensures blood stays in the vessels and doesn’t leak out. It is made by the liver.

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6
Q

What is crystallin, and what produces it?

A

Crystallin is a structural protein for the lens in the eye, which produces it.

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7
Q

How is albumin and crystallin production initiated?

A

Specific activators act as enhancers to bind to the gene that expresses each protein.

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8
Q

What are meristem cells?

A

Completely undifferentiated cells in plants that can give rise to an entire new organism if needed

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9
Q

How does genomic equivalence in carrots work?

A

A clone can be made of a whole carrot plant from a single root cell. Cells taken from the root of a developed plant grow into new, normal adult plants that are all genetically identical.

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10
Q

Describe the experiment done with frogs to illustrate genomic equivalence.

A

Differentiated cells in animals usually do not replicate in culture; here, researchers transplanted a nucleus into an enucleated egg. When the nucleus came from a frog embryo, the egg developed into a tadpole. When the nucleus came from a tadpole, the embryo died.

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11
Q

What was the conclusion of the experiment done with frogs?

A

Usually, the differentiated cells in animals do not replicate to give rise to a new organism, and the nucleus contains all the information needed to create a new organism, but something in the nucleus changes as a cell differentiates.

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12
Q

What are epigenetic differences?

A

Differences that do not affect the nucleotide sequence but affect gene expression.

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13
Q

Give three examples of epigenetic differences.

A
  1. Methylation of DNA.
  2. Acetylation of histones.
  3. Telomere length.
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14
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

A stem cell is an unspecialized cell that can replicate itself and differentiate into specialized cells of one or more types.

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15
Q

What are the two reproductive options for a stem cell?

A
  1. Mitosis to give rise to another stem cell.
  2. Mitosis to give rise to a progenitor cell that is dedicated to a “fate” or specialty.
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16
Q

What are the three types of stem cells?

A
  1. Totipotent
  2. Embryonic
  3. Adult
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17
Q

Give the characteristics of totipotent stem cells.

A
  1. Completely undifferentiated.
  2. Can give rise to any cell in the embryo and placenta.
  3. Must be collected during the first few cell divisions.
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18
Q

Give the characteristics of embryonic stem cells.

A
  1. Pluripotent stem cells.
  2. Can give rise to any cell type in the embryo (but not the placenta).
  3. Must be collected at the blastula or blastocyst stage.
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19
Q

Give the characteristics of adult stem cells.

A
  1. Multipotent stem cells.
  2. Can give rise to fewer cell types.
  3. They are used to replace specialized cells.
  4. Present in adults
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20
Q

Where can you find adult stem cells in the body?

A

In the red bone marrow.

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21
Q

How are stem cells used in reproductive cloning?

A
  1. Create a clone.
  2. Widely used in agriculture.
  3. Have been used in animals.
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22
Q

How are stem cells used in therapeutic cloning?

A

They are used to treat disease.

23
Q

What are induced pluripotent stem cells (IPS)?

A

Stem cells created from adult differentiated cells. Extra copies of four stem cell master regulatory genes were introduced into the genome of a differentiated cell, restoring pluripotency.

24
Q

What are cytoplasmic determinants?

A

Components such as RNA and proteins in the egg that were encoded in the mother’s DNA and were produced before fertilization.

25
Q

How do cytoplasmic determinants control the fate of the cell?

A
  1. Cytoplasmic determinants are unevenly distributed in the cytoplasm.
  2. Cell divisions partition them unevenly into different cells.
  3. The collection of cytoplasmic determinants in a cell controls the cell’s fate by regulating the expression of specific sets of genes.
26
Q

Why does the effect of cytoplasmic determinants decrease?

A

As cells divide further, the components become diluted or break down. The embryo now needs to make its own and inductive signals become more important.

27
Q

How does induction by nearby cells work?

A

Inductive signals from nearby embryonic cells, either via direct contact or via soluble secreted growth factors, induce the target cell to turn on or off specific sets of genes. (cell-cell signaling)

28
Q

What is cell determination?

A

The point where the cell is irreversibly committed to become a particular cell type. At this point, the path to differentiation is set, even if the cell is transplanted. Determination is marked by the presence of tissue-specific proteins.

29
Q

What is the difference between cell determination and cell differentiation?

A

Determination is the assignment of fate and differentiation is the process by which a cell reaches its fate.

30
Q

What is the master regulatory gene?

A

A gene at the top of a gene regulation hierarchy–activation results in cell determination and cell differentiation.

31
Q

What is the product of the master regulatory gene?

A

The product is a master regulator, which involves positive feedback.

32
Q

What does the transcription of MyoD result in?

A

It results in the determination and differentiation of skeletal muscle cells.

33
Q

What develops the spatial organization of tissues and organs?

A

Cytoplasmic determinants and inductive signals.

34
Q

What is the pattern formation of cytoplasmic determinants and inductive signals driven by?

A

Molecular cues collectively called positional information.

35
Q

In the fruit fly, what do cytoplasmic determinants provide information for?

A

Positional information for the three axes: anterior-posterior, dorsal-ventral, and left-right.

36
Q

What are maternal effect genes?

A

Maternal genes that encode cytoplasmic determinants.

37
Q

What are egg-polarity genes?

A

Maternal effect genes that control the orientation of the egg.

38
Q

In the fruit fly, what does the bicoid gene control?

A

It sets the anterior-posterior axis by following the morphogen gradient hypothesis.

39
Q

What happens to a fruit fly if there is a lack of bicoid?

A

It yields two posteriors.

40
Q

What is the morphogen-gradient hypothesis?

A

Gradients of the substances called morphogens establish the axes and other features.

41
Q

What do homeotic (hox) genes control?

A

These genes control pattern formation; mutations in Hox genes can result in, for example, abnormal placement of structures.

42
Q

What does antennapedia (a hox gene) control?

A

It controls the formation of legs; certain mutations result in legs developing in place of the antennae.

43
Q

What controls the sequential (hierarchical) expression of genes?

A

This is controlled by transcription factors that bind to enhancers upstream of promoters of the controlled genes.

44
Q

What do gap genes do?

A

They define several broad areas and regulate pair-rule genes.

45
Q

What do pair-rule genes do?

A

They refine segment locations and regulate segment polarity genes.

46
Q

What do segment polarity genes do?

A

They determine the boundaries and anterior-posterior orientation of each segment.

47
Q

Which genes collectively control the hox genes?

A

The gap, pair-rule, and segment polarity genes control the hox genes, which define the identity of each segment.

48
Q

How are homeotic genes that control anterior-posterior structures related between fruit flies and mice?

A

Anterior-posterior structures are evolutionarily conserved and occur in the same linear sequence.

49
Q

What was thalidomide intended to do?

A

The drug was used to alleviate nausea and morning sickness in pregnant women.

50
Q

What were the adverse effects of thalidomide?

A

It interferes with axes formation in the developing fetus, leading to death and malformation. 50% mortality and limb deformation in the survivors.

51
Q

How does apoptosis function in the formation of three-dimensional structures during development?

A
  1. It can chop up the DNA, organelles, and cytoplasmic components.
  2. Blebbing: cell shrinks and becomes lobed.
  3. Scavenger cells digest the blebs.
52
Q

What are caspases?

A

Caspases are proteases that drive apoptosis.

53
Q

List the steps of apoptosis.

A
  1. Death signals bind receptor.
  2. Ced-9 (inhibits Ced-4) is inactivated.
  3. Ced-4 activates.
  4. Ced-3 (the chief caspase) is activated
  5. Nucleases and other proteases are activated.
54
Q

What is the role of Ced-9?

A

It keeps Ced-4 inactivated. If nothing binds to the death receptor, Ced-9 remains active.