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Concepts From Incorrect Practice Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Proactive social movement

A

A social movement that aims to enact change or “make progress” -> Members organize, whether formally or informally, an effort to change their society or move forward

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2
Q

Reactive social movement

A

Resists change and members desire to return to or keep the status quo

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3
Q

What happens w the stereochemistry in an SN2 reaction?

A

Stereochemistry inverts

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4
Q

In which direction is the OH group in an alpha sugar anomer? In a beta sugar anomer?

A

Group on anomeric carbon is pointing down in the alpha anomer and up in the beta anomer

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5
Q

Under basic conditions is anomerization likely to occur spontaneously?

A

NO

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6
Q

When converting from a ketal group to a ketone, how can the ketal be effectively hydrolyzed?

A

It can be effectively hydrolyzed by treatment w a strong acid and water (EX: Aqueous sulfuric acid) since ketals are resistant to basic conditions (EX: Potassium tert-butoxide/ NaOH) and are unlikely to be affected by strong reducing agents (EX: Lithium hydroxide)

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7
Q

What kind of enzyme is carbonic anhydrase? What does it do? What metal cofactors does it contain?

A
  • Metalloenzyme
  • Catalyzes the reaction bt carbon dioxide and water
  • Zinc
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8
Q

What does the medial geniculate nucleus do?

A

Receives and transmits a great deal of auditory info

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9
Q

What do the semicircular canals do?

A

They perceive rotation of the body or head

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10
Q

What is the superior olive part of? What is it responsible for?

A
  • It is a region in the brain stem

- Responsible for localizing sound

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11
Q

What does the inferior colliculus help us do?

A

Helps us coordinate head rotation with visual focus on a specific point

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12
Q

Bipolar I and depressive disorder are characterized as what kind of disorder in the DSM-V? What does it name refer to?

A
  • Mood disorders
  • Mood refers to a long- term state that includes emotional and arousal; in individuals with mood disorders, this state is significantly altered from a typical range
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13
Q

What does a somatic disorder refer to?

A

Extreme concerns about physical or health- related symptoms, often those that do not stem from a clear physiological cause

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14
Q

What are anxiety disorders marked by?

A

Nervousness or extreme unease

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15
Q

What do trauma or stress- related disorders typically result from?

A

A specific traumatic event

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16
Q

What is collagen?

A

An extracellular fiber secreted by the cell

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17
Q

What cytoskeletal component make up the nuclear lamina? What do they do?

A

They are comprised of intermediate filaments that form the structural support of the nuclear mem

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18
Q

What does the term vasa recta refer to?

A

Blood vessels in the kidneys

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19
Q

What does the term secretion mean in terms of urine processing/ kidney function?

A

Molecules that enter the tubules from the vasa recta

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20
Q

What does filtration mean in terms of urine processing/ kidney function?

A

Process that occurs at the glomerulus of the nephron

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21
Q

What does excretion refer to?

A

Elimination of a molecule from the body

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22
Q

What does reabsorption refer to in terms of urine processing/ kidney function?

A

Any solutes or molecules that enter the vasa recta from the tubules are being reabsorbed back into the bloodstream and the body

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23
Q

What is usually the p- value for a statistically significant result? What does this mean?

A

P value is < 0.05, which means that the observed interaction has more than a 95% chance of being due to the concluded relationship and less than a 5% chance of resulting from luck

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24
Q

How can we increase statistical power?

A

Raising the sample size

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25
Q

What is an individuals locus of control based on?

A

One’s perception of their own level of involvement in, or control over, the events that occur in thei life

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26
Q

What are the two kinds of loci of control?

A

Internal and external?

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27
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

Factors stemming from the failure to properly control an experiment

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28
Q

What is a mediating variable?

A

One that explains the relationship bt independent and dependent variable

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29
Q

What is a moderating variable?

A

One that affects the strength of a relationship bt separate independent and dependent variables

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30
Q

What is the relationship bt pKa and acidity?

A

The lower the pKa, the more acidic or less basic a molecule is and the higher the pKa, the less acidic or more basic a molecule is

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31
Q

What is does the presence of an electron donating group do to a molecule in terms of acidity/ conjugate base stability? What is a good example of an electron donating group?

A
  • They give extra electron density to the conjugate base if the molecule, making it more unstable and less likely to form .: Making it less acidic
  • Hydrocarbon groups
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32
Q

What is the relationship bt conjugate base stability and acidity?

A

The more stable a conjugate base is, the more acidic the compound is generally

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33
Q

What is the relationship bt electron- withdrawing groups and acidity/ conjugate base stability?

A

Electron withdrawing groups better stabilize the conjugate base by pulling away electron density .: Making the conjugate base more likely to form and the compound more acidic as a whole

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34
Q

At what period does the d sub shell start? How does energy change as you move down the table?

A
  • Period 4

- Energy increase as you move down the table

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35
Q

D orbitals located in period 4 are termed _________ instead of ___________ orbitals

A

3d, 4d

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36
Q

The periods on the periodic table run in what direction? How many are there? The groups on the periodic table run in what direction? How many are there?

A
  • Periods run left to right AKA they are the rows and there are 7
  • Groups run up and down AKA they are the columns and there are 18
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37
Q

On a lineweaver Burke plot for competitive inhibition, how does the line move? Why is this?

A
  • The x interception changes, so the line rotates about the same y intercept
  • The x intercept changes bc Km is changed in competitive inhibition and Vmax remains the same
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38
Q

On a lineweaver Burke plot for noncompetitive inhibitor, how does the line move? Why is this?

A
  • The y intercept changes so the line rotates about the uninhibited x intercept
  • Y intercept changes because Vmax is decreased but Km stays the same
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39
Q

On a lineweaver Burke plot for uncompetitive inhibitor, how does the line move?

A

The whole line is shifted upward and both the x and y intercept change, so it is parallel to the uninhibited line

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40
Q

What does bond order denote?

A

Whether a bond is single (1), double (2), or triple (3) in nature

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41
Q

As bond order increases, what happens to bond length? Give an example/ explain

A

As bond order increases, bond length decreases
EX: Triple bond w bond order of 3 and a double bond w a bond order of 2, would have shorter bond length than a single bond with a bond order of 1

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42
Q

What are the 3 basic steps that occur in endocytosis? What structures can be used to define these 3 steps?

A
  1. Vesicle: External molecules or pathogens are engulfed in an invagination of the cell mem known as a vesicle
  2. Early endosome: Vesicles initially deliver their contents to early endosomes which are also membrane bound
  3. Later endosome: These contents then progress to late endosome, which fuse w lysosomes for degradation
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43
Q

Which type of force is stronger? Intramolecular or intermolecular?

A

Intramolecular forces (which attach atoms of the same molecule) are ALWAYS STRONGER) than intermolecular attractions

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44
Q

How do proline kinks impact secondary structure?

A

The rigidity of the proline rings disrupts the formation of alpha hélices and beta sheets, which is why they are found at “turns” in anti parallel beta sheets?

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45
Q

In order to be classified as an aromatic amino acid a residue must have what 3 characteristics

A
  • Planar, conjugated rings

- Follow Huckel’s rule: 4n+2

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46
Q

What does Huckel’s rule state?

A

An aromatic system must posses 4n+2 electrons, where n denotes any integer .: Aromatic systems may contain 6, 10, 14 pi electrons and so on

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47
Q

What classification of organism does NOT contain membrane bound organelles?

A

Prokaryotes like archaea/ archaebacteria

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48
Q

Do archaea/ archaebacteria contain membrane bound organelles?

A

NO, they are classified as prokaryotes and .: do not posses mem bound organelles

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49
Q

Protozoa are classified as part of what kingdom? They _____cellular and ________. Do they contain membrane bound organelles?

A
  • Protista
  • Unicellular and simple
  • They are eukaryotic .: do contain membrane bound organelles
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50
Q

What are hyphae? They comprise parts of what type of organism? Do these organisms have membrane bound organelles?

A
  • Long- filament like structures
  • Comprise parts of fungal organisms
  • Fungi are eukaryotes and .: contain mem bound organelles
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51
Q

What is one big difference bt eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells contain membrane bound organelles where as prokaryotic cells DO NOT

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52
Q

Do human cells like neurons contain membrane bound organelles?

A

Human cells are eukaryotic and .: contain membrane bound organelles

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53
Q

Via what forces can ketones interact w other molecules? Why?

A
  • Ketones can interact w other molecules via dipole- dipole forces
  • These attractions are direct result of its carbonyl since carbon and oxygen differ in electronegativities .: This bond represents a moderately strong dipole
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54
Q

What is shadowing? What does it test?

A

allows one to test for selective attention. Subjects are presented with two different messages, one in their right ear and one in their left, then they’re told to shadow the attended message by repeating it out loud with a delay of a few seconds between hearing a word and repeating the word.

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55
Q

In all but a relatively small number of people, the brain areas that process linguistic information are lateralized to which hemisphere of the brain?

A

Left

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56
Q

Verbal inputs to the left ear go to to the auditory cortex in which hemisphere? Where must this input then be processed?

A
  • Right

- Must be processed by the language areas of the left hemisphere

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57
Q

How long are sensory memories stored for? What happens when they are reprocessed?

A

A few seconds at most and are stored for as long as the sense is being stimulated? When they are reprocessed, they are then associated w a memory that can be stored in short term memory

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58
Q

What is selective attention? When is it demonstrated?

A
  • The capacity for or process of reacting to certain stimuli selectively when several occur simultaneously
  • Demonstrated when many stimuli are present and a person ignores the non- task related stimuli
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59
Q
  • What is divided attention?

- How does the brain respond to multiple stimuli? What does it use and what does this allow for?

A
  • The ability of the brain to attend to two different stimuli at the same time
  • The brain responds to multiple demands of the environment at the same time by using simultaneous attention, allowing a subject to process different information sources and carry out multiple tasks at one time.
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60
Q

When using statistical hypothesis testing, a result can be considered statistically significant when the p value is

A

Less than 0.05 or 5%

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61
Q

The Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are “normalized” to a mean and standard deviation of what? What does this mean for 2/3 of the data? what about 95%?

A
  • Mean of 100
  • Standard deviation of 15
  • 2/3 of the data will be found within plus or minus 1 standard deviation (so bt 85 and 115)
  • 95% of the data will be found within plus or minus 2 standard deviations so bt 70 and 130
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62
Q

Main function of hypothalamus

A

Maintenance of homeostatic equilibrium

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63
Q

Main function of frontal lobe

A

Voluntary movement, expressive language, managing higher level executive function and cognitive skills like planning, organization, self-monitoring and self control

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64
Q

Main function of thalamus

A
  • Body’s relay station” Where info from your body senses passes through before being sent to the brain’s cerebral cortex for interpretation
  • Also involved in sleep, wakefulness, consciousness, learning and memory
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65
Q

Main function of hippocampus

A

V plastic so for learning and memory

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66
Q

Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the __________ of the neuron?

A

Outside

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67
Q

What drug is associated w pain relief?

A

Heroin

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68
Q

Do electrical synapses involve neurotransmitter?

A

NO, they involve gap junctions

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69
Q

Where are neurotransmitter manufactured?

A

In neurons

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70
Q

Where are receptors for neurotransmitters located?

A

On the postsynaptic neuron

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71
Q

How do neurotransmitters go from the presynaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft?

A

They are exocytosed

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72
Q

Why is continuous reinforcement the best for the beginning of the acquisition phase of operant conditioning? What kind of procedure is this?

A
  • The schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct: if every correct response is reinforced, other (incorrect) responses are infrequent and the behavior gains strength and learning results.
  • A shaping procedure
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73
Q

What is instinctual drift?

A
  • Established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors
  • The tendency of some trained animals to revert back to instinctual behavior
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74
Q

What is stimulus generalization?

A

Demonstrating the conditioned response to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus

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75
Q

What is operant extinction?

A

when a reinforced behavior is extinguished entirely.

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76
Q

Together, the primacy and recency effects comprise what?

A

The serial position effect

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77
Q

What is decay in psychology?

A

A theory that memory fades due to the mere passage of time

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78
Q

What is the hindsight bias?

A
  • When an individual or group believes that they knew something was going to occur when in reality there is no way that they could have made that prediction.
  • “Oh well in HINDSIGHT i should’ve known that something was going to happen or not happen
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79
Q

Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person’s what? This is kind of information is associated w what kind of intelligence?

A
  • Ability to retrieve general information AKA semantic memory
  • Crystallized intelligence
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80
Q

Polar bodies have a total amount of DNA that is about what percentage of that of a somatic cell in the G1 phase?

A

50%

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81
Q

A cell that has experienced replication will have about ____________ the amount of DNA

A

Twice or double

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82
Q

In meiosis when do cells become haploid?

A

After anaphase of meiosis I

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83
Q

In meiosis, when do sister chromatids separate?

A

Anaphase of meiosis II

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84
Q

In meiosis when do homologous chromosomes separate?

A

Anaphase of meiosis I

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85
Q

Wha is G1 responsible for? What must the cell have in order to pass the G1 checpoint?

A
  • Protein and organelle production and cell growth

- Sufficient size and synthesized enough organelles

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86
Q

What does the G2 checkpoint ensure?

A

That DNA replication has proceeded accurately

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87
Q

What are the centromeres?

A

They are attachment sites for the spindle fibers to pull apart the chromosomes during anaphase

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88
Q

How does the behavior of the centromeres during meiosis differ from that during mitosis?

A

During meiosis, the centromeres do not split during the first incarnation of anaphase -> This only occurs during the anaphase II in meiosis, as anaphase I only involves the segregation of homologous chromosomes

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89
Q

What does it mean that DNA replication is understood to be semiconservative?

A

After a round of replication, the daughter dsDNA will have one strand of original DNA and one new strand

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90
Q

In semiconservative replication, why is the parent dsDNA is denatured?

A

So that each strand can be used as a template to form a new piece of DNA

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91
Q

When does allopatric speciation occur?

A

When populations, or parts of the same population, are separated by a physical barrier

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92
Q

How does sympatric speciation occur?

A

It occurs without a physical barrier

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93
Q

When does parapatric speciation occur?

A

It occurs when segments of two distinct populations overlap. Due to environmental differences, these segments may develop into two species, but individuals in the overlapping areas can typically still interbreed

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94
Q

The lagging strand of DNA must be synthesized in segments known as what? Why does this happen?

A
  • Okazaki fragments

- Bc DNA pol can only read template DNA from 3’ to 5’ meaning that it can only elongate new strands from 5’ to 3’

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95
Q

In normal DNA replication, ligase activity is greater on which strand?

A

The lagging strand bc it has to connect Okazaki fragments

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96
Q

Why are 3’ ends of chromosomes normally not replicated? What must they be acted upon to prevent shortening?

A

DNA pol reads the template DNA from 3’ to 5’ and can only begin replication where a primer already exists and bc of this 3’ ends of chromosomes are generally not replicated
-Telomerase

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97
Q

For a projectile, time in flight is determined by?

A

Vertical components

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98
Q

Increasing the total velocity of a projectile while leaving the angle unchanged must also increase what?

A

Vertical velocity and time

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99
Q

Simply increasing the horizontal velocity of a projectile will increase what?

A

Range

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100
Q

What is kinetic friction dependent on?

A

The coefficient of friction and the normal force

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101
Q

Is the path is linear, normal force will

A

Remain constant

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102
Q

Is work a scalar or vector quantity? Why?

A

Scalar bc it does not give any indication of the direction in which the work is performed

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103
Q

What does a nucleoside include? What can they be considered?

A
  • A 5 carbon sugar attached to a nitrogenous base

- They can be considered nucleotides that lack attached phosphate groups

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104
Q

What do purines contain?

A

Pyrimidine rings w fused imidazole groups

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105
Q

The purines are:

A

A and G

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106
Q

The pyrimidines are:

A

T and C and U

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107
Q

Stages of meiosis?

A

-Prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II

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108
Q

What is the equation for the coefficient of static friction?

A

Fs=usFn, where Fn=mgcos or sin(theta)

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109
Q

Kinetic friction can only be applied when

A

The object is sliding against a surface

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110
Q

If mechanical energy is conserved, all PE is converted into ______

A

KE

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111
Q

If an object is stopped by friction all of its PE must be? What does this mean?

A
  • Dispersed by the friction

- We can set the equation for the work down by friction equal to the work done by gravity

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112
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate method for determining the number of particles in a certain mass of a compound?

A

of particles = mass × 1 / MM × Avogadro’s number

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113
Q

What is the difference between a benzene ring and a cyclohexane?

A

Cyclohexane has no pi bonds

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114
Q

What enzyme is required to generate GTP from GDP? Why?

A

Nucleoside- disphosphate kinase: It takes a phosphate group from ATP and places it on a GDP molecule to make GTP

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115
Q

What does the term unsaturated refer to in molecules?

A

The molecule does not possess the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms .: it contains double or triple bond

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116
Q

What is an α,β-unsaturated aldehyde?

A

An aldehyde that possess a double bond bt the alpha and beta carbons

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117
Q

What is a β,γ -unsaturated aldehyde?

A

On a carbonyl compound, the beta position is the atom two positions away from the carbonyl carbon, while the gamma position is one atom away from that (on the side more distant from the carbonyl). This double bond falls between these two positions.

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118
Q

What are dicarbonyl compounds?

A

Compounds that contain two carbon-oxygen double bonds

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119
Q

Can a molecule w one or more double bonds ever be accurately referred to as saturated?

A

No

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120
Q

Cleaving a dinucleotide from the 3’ end of a strand of viral DNA would involve the cleavage of what kind of bond?

A

P-O

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121
Q

mRNA transcribed from retroviral DNA is either used to? This means that the sequence of the nucleotide in the original viral genome will be the same as ?

A

synthesize viral proteins, or used as the RNA genome for progeny viruses. This means that the sequence of the nucleotide in the original viral genome will be the same as that of the transcribed mRNA

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122
Q

A competitive inhibitor will have what affect on Km and Vmax

A

A competitive inhibitor will increase the apparent Km and not affect the Vmax.

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123
Q

What is the average molecular weight of an amino acid?

A

110 Da

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124
Q

If a monomer is composed of 288 amino acids, what will its approximate molecular weight be? Why? Then what would the molecular weight be of a tetramer of this monomer?

A

If a monomer is composed of 288 amino acids it will have an approximate molecular weight of 32 kDa bc the average molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da). Thus, a tetramer will have an approximate molecular weight of 128 kDa.

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125
Q

What is one of the main functions of the liver?

A

Detoxify drugs

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126
Q

If a a normal mendelian cross results in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio of F1 offspring, what does this mean about the parents?

A

They both must be heterozygotes

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127
Q

When do you add probabilities vs multiplying them?

A

If you have “or” in the wording, add the probabilities. If you have “and” in the wording, multiply the probabilities.

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128
Q

What does a Hill coefficient greater than 1 mean?

A

It means that an enzyme exhibits cooperativity

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129
Q

How are Vmax and Km affected in noncompetitive inhibition? How does it impact the enzyme’s affinity to its substrate?

A
  • Vmax is affected, but KM does not change.

- Noncompetitive inhibitors is that they bind the enzyme and the enzyme–substrate complex with the same affinity;

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130
Q

Which human need serves as the basis for cognitive dissonance theory?

A

Need for consistency

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131
Q

What does cognitive dissonance refer to? What does it produce?

A

Cognitive dissonance refers to a situation involving conflicting attitudes, beliefs or behaviors. This produces a feeling of discomfort leading to an alteration in one of the attitudes, beliefs or behaviors to reduce the discomfort and restore the balance and consistency of behavior/thoughts.

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132
Q

What is framing in psychology? What can it involve?

A

Framing is a way of structuring or presenting a problem or an issue. It can involve explaining and describing the context of the problem to gain the most support from your audience, and it can also refer to how an individual conceptualizes a problem.

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133
Q

The way a question is stated before problem solving begins is known as:

A

Framing

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134
Q

What does the represenativeness heurisitc have to do with?

A

The representativeness heuristic is a mental shortcut that we use when estimating probabilities. When we’re trying to assess how likely a certain event is, we often make our decision by assessing how similar it is to an existing mental prototype.

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135
Q

What is the availability heuristic? What does it often result in?

A
  • A bias that is seen when people make decisions based on available information.
  • It often results in the overestimate of certain rates or outcomes that we hear about often.
136
Q

What does the affect heuristic relate to?

A

Emotion

137
Q

What does the conformation bias cause people to do?

A

the confirmation bias causes people to overvalue information that confirms their previously-held opinions, while neglecting facts that challenge these viewpoints

138
Q

Gender behavior is mainly learned through?

A

Socializiation

139
Q

Learning gender-specific behavior is greatly influenced by what 2 things? What do these things refer to?

A
  • Imitation and identification
  • Imitation is when you copy specific behavior of a person or a character from the media. Identification is when you copy many behaviors of such an individual with the goal of being just like them
140
Q

What does morality refer to?

A

principles concerning the distinction between right and wrong behavior.

141
Q

What are illusions of invulernability? What is it a symptom of?

A

Illusions of invulnerability is a symptom of groupthink. It refers to a phenomena where group members believe that their group as a whole could not possible perform errors in judgment.

142
Q

What is conformity vs obedience?

A
  • Conformity is social influence involving a change in belief or behavior in order to fit in with a group. This change is in response to real or imagined group pressure.
  • Obedience is a form of social influence where an individual acts in response to a direct order from an authority figure.
143
Q

Which aspect of groupthink is exemplified by the idea, often proposed by groups at war, which states “If you’re not with us, then you’re my enemy”? Obedience or conformity?

A

Conformity

144
Q

In order for something to confer a biological advantage, what must it confer?

A

In order to confer a biological advantage, a behavior must increase reproductive success or assist in survival.

145
Q

The bystander affect is also known as what? What does it refer to? What is a classic example of this?

A
  • Bystander apathy
  • This relates to the tendency of people to avoid helping those in distress when other individuals are present. This concept is thought to stem from the idea that “someone else will do it,” a viewpoint that (when held by everyone present) causes nobody to actually step in.
  • The Kitty Genovese case
146
Q

What is group polarization?

A

A phenomenon in which members of a group tend to take stronger viewpoints after discussion than they would have on their own. -> Usually goes to extremes!!

147
Q

The dramaturgical approach of self-presentation is a theatrical metaphor that describes individuals “performing on stage” with the goal of gaining acceptance from their “audience. What are its 4 main parts?

A
  • Front stage self
  • Back stage self
  • Outside
  • Borders
148
Q

In the dramaturgical approach what does the aspects of outside and borders mean?

A
  • Outside is the place where individuals are not involved in the performance (although they may be aware of it).
  • Borders or boundaries are important as they prevent or restrict movement of individuals between various regions. Performers need to control boundaries to control who has the access to the performance.
149
Q

Does heroin act on the dopaminergic pathway? What does it bind to?

A

No, it (and other opiates) bind to mu-opioid receptors in the brain.

150
Q

What does heroin act as? What does cause constant stimulation of? What does this result in when the person stops using heroin?

A
  • Heroin, like other opiates, acts as a pharmacological endorphin.
  • The constant stimulation of specific receptors by the drug causes a downregulation of endorphin production by the body. When an individual ceases to use opiates, painful withdrawal symptoms occur due to this underproduction or even complete stoppage of endorphin release.
151
Q

GABA is an ___________ neurotransmitter

A

Inhibitory

152
Q

What does the Yerkes- Dodosn law posit?

A

A person will perform best on a task when he or she is moderately aroused, or physically and mentally alert. At very low arousal levels, the person will not be involved enough to do well at the task, while at high levels, he may be too nervous or agitated to perform at his best.

153
Q

According to the work energy theorem, work is equal to

A

to the change in kinetic energy throughout a process.

154
Q

What is proxemics?

A

the study of how people use space to structure interactions with each other, as in the example of personal space. Personal space is not an inferential process, but rather the space surrounding a person that the person considers “theirs”, and which they do not wish others to occupy unless invited.

155
Q

What is attribution?

A

attribution is the process by which individuals explain the causes of behavior. A person can make attributions about their own behavior as well as that of others.

156
Q

What does group cohesiveness?

A

refers to the sense of unity experienced by a group as the individual members work together toward some common goal. The goal might be externally-focused (e.g., creating a product) or focused on the needs of group members. Thus, group cohesiveness is not a process of inference but rather a sense of shared unity.

157
Q

What does social stratification refer to? The existence of what illustrates social stratificatoin?

A

refers to the process as well as the outcome of dividing people into social groups based on dimensions such as wealth and/or power. The existence of socioeconomic classes (upper, middle, and lower) illustrates social stratification.

158
Q

Δx = vit + ½ at^2 is an example of?

A

A kinetic equation that can be used when you don’t have final velocity or need to solve for one of the variables in the equation

159
Q

Protein kinase A acts to?

A

phosphorylate and inactivate the phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) domain of the bi-functional enzyme responsible for the formation of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

160
Q

fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is a potent allosteric inhibitor of?

A

phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)

161
Q

Activation of PFK2 and decreased protein A activity would disfavor what process?

A

Gluconeogenesis

162
Q

Activation of PFK1 or PFK2 favors gluconeogenesis?

A

PFK1

163
Q

An increase in osmotic pressure, causing water to

A

Leave the cell, leading to cellular dehydration

164
Q

The hormone leptin inhibits what other hormone? What does this do to apeptite?

A

Leptin inhibits ghrelin which stimulates appetite

165
Q

Describe the negative feedback loop used for appetite and adipose tissue regulation

A

Decreased adipose tissue causes lower concentrations of leptin hormones, which stimulate appetite until increased adipose mass raises leptin hormone concentrations, and appetite decreases.

166
Q

Totipotent cells can differentiate into? What is an example?

A
  • Any cell types

- Embryonic stem cells AKA zygotes

167
Q

Pluripotent cells can differentiate into? What is an example?

A
  • Cells from any of the 3 germ layers

- Embryonic stem cells, IPSCs

168
Q

Multipotent cells can differentiate into? What is an example?

A
  • A limited range of cell types (have less gene activation potential)
  • Adult stem cells like mesenchymal and hematopoietic
169
Q

Oligopotent cells can differentiate into? What is an example?

A
  • A limited range of cell types

- Adult stem cells like lymphoid, myeloid

170
Q

Unipotent cells can differentiate into? What is an example?

A
  • A single cell type

- Adult stem cells like satellite and epidermal

171
Q

What are the 3 cell cycle checkpoints?

A

G1/S, G2/M, and M

172
Q

At what checkpoint does the cell commit to dividing? upon passing it?

A

G1 to S

173
Q

G1 checkpoint checks for

A

Sufficient growth factors and nutrients/ DNA damage

174
Q

G2 checkpoint checks for

A

Cell size and DNA damage from the S phase

175
Q

M checkpoint checks for

A

Proper chromosome spindle formation/ attachment

176
Q

The proportion of an object submerged in water is as what?

A

It’s specific gravity

177
Q

Within a pipe system, the speed of flow and cross-sectional area is related by what equation? What does this mean?

A
  • A1V1=A2V2

- As cross-sectional area increases, velocity decreases to account for the change

178
Q

What does Boyle’s law state at constant temp?

A

P*V= Constant

179
Q

The contents of bilirubin-containing bile serve what digestive functions when released into the duodenum?

A

To solubilize ingested fats and increase duodenal pH -> Bile acts in part as a surfactant, helping to emulsify ingested lipids by disrupting intermolecular attractions among lipids. Anionic bile salts contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic components. As a result, they aggregate around lipids droplets of triglycerides and phospholipids to form micelles. These dispersions greatly increase the surface area of lipids available for the action of the enzyme pancreatic lipase, which actually digests the triglycerides. Additionally, bile is alkaline because of its bicarbonate content. The relatively alkalinity of bile functions to neutralize excess gastric acid entering the duodenum from the stomach, thereby increasing duodenal pH.

180
Q

What do pancreatic lipases secreted from the liver do?

A

responsible for the hydrolysis of dietary fat molecules in the human digestive system, converting triglyceride substrates found in ingested oils to monoglycerides and free fatty acids via cleavage of ester linkages.

181
Q

How does bile impact the activity of pancreatic lipases secreted from the pancreas and the solubility of ingested fats?

A

Bile acts in part as a surfactant, helping to emulsify ingested lipids by disrupting intermolecular attractions among lipids. Anionic bile salts contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic components. As a result, they aggregate around lipids droplets of triglycerides and phospholipids to form micelles. These dispersions greatly increase the surface area of lipids available for the action of the enzyme pancreatic lipase, which actually digests the triglycerides.

182
Q

How does bile impact the duodenal pH?

A

Neutralizes the acidity from the stomach -> bile is alkaline because of its bicarbonate content. The relatively alkalinity of bile functions to neutralize excess gastric acid entering the duodenum from the stomach, thereby increasing duodenal pH.

183
Q

On a standard blood panel run on patients suspected of pathological jaundice, what does hematocrit represent?

A

The percentage of red blood cells in a sample of blood

184
Q

The most ideal gases are those that…

A

Experience the weakest IMFs AKA have the least polar bonds

185
Q

Although all blood vessels are coated in endothelial cells, what type of muscle do arteries (as well as arterioles, veins, and venules) also contain? What does it allow for?

A

Arteries (as well as arterioles, veins, and venules) contain a layer of smooth muscle in their walls. This allows for processes such as vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

186
Q

W LeChatelier’s principle, a reduction in volume will do what?

A

will increase the pressure of the system. When such a change is initiated, the equilibrium will shift to the side that contains fewer moles of gas in an attempt to reestablish a stable state.

187
Q

Which cells release gastrin? What does gastrin promote? What makes it different from other digestive substances?

A

Gastrin is secreted by G cells and promotes the release of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells in the stomach. Unlike many digestive substances, it is a hormone, not an enzyme; as such, it is not initially present in zymogen form.

188
Q

Where does the breakdown of triacylglycerides occur? What catalyzes the reaction?

A
  • The lumen of the small intestine and a number of other places
  • Lipases released by the pancreas into the small intestine catalyzes this reaction.
189
Q

What is the effect 2,3 BPG binding to hemoglobin? What does ain in in adults?

A

2,3-BPG binds hemoglobin and causes a decrease in oxygen affinity. In adults, this aids in oxygen delivery to the peripheral tissues.

190
Q

What does fetal insensitivity to 2,3- BPG permit?

A

Fetal insensitivity to 2,3-BPG permits heightened saturation of fetal hemoglobin, giving it higher affinity to O2 since 2,3-BPG can’t bind

191
Q

Preterm neonates commonly suffer from respiratory failure as a result of inadequate secretion of surfactant. When surfactant production is insufficient, alveoli tend to collapse in a condition known as atelectasis. In a preterm neonate suffering from respiratory distress, what behavior would be most helpful?

A

Grunting, which permits expiration against a positive pressure ->The question stem tells us that this condition stems from the collapse of alveoli. Expiration against a positive end-expiratory pressure (in other words, causing the alveolar pressure to be comparatively low) forces air into the alveoli, keeping them open and allowing gas exchange to continue. In fact, infants do grunt when they are struggling to breathe.

192
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A

Water/ electrolyte absorption and provision of an environment for E.coli

193
Q

Where does fat absorption occur?

A

The small intestine

194
Q

Polyunsaturated fatty acids w the greater number of _______ ___ _____________ are more likely to be oxidized

A

degrees of unsaturation AKA more double bonds

195
Q

Based on Le Châtelier’s principle, lowering temperature causes an exothermic rxn

A

to shift right to release heat.

196
Q

If a rxn is exothermic or spontaneous what will delta G and H be? Delta S?

A

They will both be negative and delta S will be positive

197
Q

How do you determine the enthalpy of formation of a reaction?

A

Delta H of formation of products minus delta H of formation of reactants (remember to multiply by the stoichiometric coefficients of the balanced reaction)

198
Q

How do you determine the entropy of formation of a reaction?

A

Delta S of formation of products minus delta S of formation of reactants (remember to multiply by the stoichiometric coefficients of the balanced reaction)

199
Q

How do you determine the heat of vaporization of water?

A

Use the heats of formation of water in the liquid and gas phases: [Heat of formation of water vapor]-[Heat of formation of liquid water]

200
Q

Equation for the bicarbonate buffer system

A

H2O + CO2 ⇌ H2CO3 ⇌ H+ + HCO3-

201
Q

When carbonate is placed in acidic conditions, it will be converted to what? What can this be broken down into?

A

when carbonate is placed in acidic conditions, it will be converted to carbonic acid, which can be broken down into carbon dioxide and water

202
Q

What is the equation that relates power, voltage, and resistance?

A

P=V^2/R

203
Q

What is the equation for Poiseuille’s flow rate law?

A

Q=(piPr^4)/8nl)

204
Q

What is the equation for root mean square speed? What does it tell us about the speed of a gas and its molar mass?

A
  • vrms = √(3RT/M)

- The root mean sqaure speed of a gas increases as molar mass (M) decreases

205
Q

What is Hooke’s Law? What can you use it to find?

A

The spring constant of the rope can be determined by using Hooke’s law or F = -kx)

206
Q

What is the equation for the PE of a spring?

A

PEspring = ½ kx2

207
Q

SDS PAGE uses a detergent to do what?

A

Make all proteins negatively charged

208
Q

Since electrophoresis requires an external power source, it acts as what kind of cell? What does this mean in terms of the charges on the anode and cathode? Which way will proteins move?

A
  • An electrolytic cell
  • This means the anode will be positive (higher potential), and the cathode will be negative (lower potential). Thus, the proteins will migrate towards the positive anode.
209
Q

How could calculate pI?

A

The pI can be approximated as the average of the pKa values of the carboxylic acid (pKa1) and the ammonium group (pKa2)

210
Q

What is the pKa 1 and 2 of an amino acid?

A

pKa 1 refers to the pKa at which the alpha carboxyl group loses a proton .: producing a negative charge and pKa 2 refers to the pKa at which the amino group is protonated producing the alpha ammonium ion and .L a positive charge

211
Q

What is the average weight of an amino acid in Da or amu?

A

110

212
Q

Glucagon is primarily focused what? How does it do this? How does it act on adipose tissue?

A

primarily focused around making glucose available to the bloodstream, by stimulating the conversion of stored glycogen to glucose and promoting gluconeogenesis. Glucagon also acts on adipose tissue to stimulate the breakdown of fat stores into the bloodstream.

213
Q

What does pyruvate decarboxylation produce? What happens to this product? When is this process upregulated? Would glucagon release amplify this process?

A

This step is upregulated when the cell needs to consume glucose to produce energy, not produce glucose. Therefore, glucagon downregulates pyruvate decarboxylation.

214
Q

Resistors in series have the same……

A

Current flowing through them

215
Q

Resistors in parallel have the same….

A

Voltage going through them

216
Q

When tripling the concentration of one reactant, while keeping the others unchanged, and the rate triples, what does this mean?

A

The reaction is first order w respect that reactant

217
Q

The rate of a zeroth order reaction is

A

Independent of reactant concentration

218
Q

With regard to leaving group alone, which of these species is the LEAST unstable? Br, Cl, I, or F?

A

fluorine serves as the worst leaving group. As a member of a higher period than chlorine, bromine, or iodine, fluorine is a very small atom. As such, it poorly delocalizes the negative charge gained when it exits as a leaving group. The worse the leaving group, the less reactive the compound, and an unreactive molecule is by definition more stable.

219
Q

Grignard reactions are typically used to alkylate compounds that contain what functional groups?

A

Carbonyl functional groups

220
Q

Do straight chain or branched hydrocarbons have higher boiling points?

A

Straight chain hyrocarbons have higher boiling points bc Branching, which decreases the surface area available for intermolecular attractions, tends to lower the boiling point.

221
Q

Since magnetic fields always exert a force on a moving particle that is perpendicular to both the particle’s velocity and the field itself, what does this mean about work?

A

Work done by a magnetic field is almost always 0. the equation for work is W = Fd cos θ . This relationship tells us that only the force exerted parallel to the object’s motion contributes to the work, of which there is none here AKA cos90 is 0

222
Q

only the force exerted parallel to the object’s motion contributes to the

A

work

223
Q

What is the equation for resistance?

A

R=resistivity or p(l/A)

224
Q

A hypothetical neuron possesses a high number of voltage-gated potassium channels. Imagine that one of these ion channels is open for 10 ms, during which it lets 1 mmol of K+ ions out of the cell. What amount of current passes through the channel during this interval? (Note: an electron’s charge is -1.60 × 10−19 C)

A

The current is given by:

The amount of charge passing through the channel / 𝚫t

= (# of K+ ions)(charge per K+ ion) / 𝚫t

= (1 x 10-3 mol)(6.02 x 1023 ions/mol)(1.60 x 10-19 C) / 𝚫t

= (6.02)(1.60) x 10-3 + 23 - 19 C / 10 x 10-3 s

= 10 x 101 C / 10-2 s

= 1 x 104 A

225
Q

What is included in the equilibrium constant expression?

A

Only [products]/[reactants] in the aqueous and gaseous phases

226
Q

At STP, 1 mole of gas occupies what volume?

A

22.4 L

227
Q

Fractional distillation separates compounds based on?

A

BP/ MW

228
Q

Oxidation of what kind of alcohols is difficult bc it involves C-C breaking?

A

Oxidation of tertiary alcohols

229
Q

When two vectors make an angle of 180 degrees AKA they are anti-parallel and you are trying to add them, you simply?When two vectors make an angle of 0 degrees AKA they are parallel and you are trying to add them, you simply? .: At an angle anywhere bt 0 and 180, the magnitude of the sum of the vectors would be?

A
  • Subtract them
  • Add them
  • Anywhere in bt the max of 0 degrees and the min of 180 degrees
230
Q

If you flatten a circle, the radius of the curvature….

A

Increases!!!

231
Q

Since NH3 is a permanent dipole, what kind of forces will it exhibit?

A

London dispersion and dipole dipole

232
Q

Strictly nonpolar molecules will exhibit what kind of forces?

A

London dispersion

233
Q

All atoms and molecules exhibit

A

London dispersion forces

234
Q

The ratio of the effects of drug 1 to the effects of drug 1 in combination with drug 2 give us the

A

“Fold enhancement”

235
Q

Atoms positioned to the right of the periodic table tend to gain

A

Electrons

236
Q

The separation between the energy level equals

A

the energy of the photon

237
Q

The energy of the photon is inversely proportional to? So the longest wavelength corresponds to?

A
  • the wavelength

- Smallest energy photon

238
Q

Imine structure

A

C=N

239
Q

Amide structure

A

Like a carboxylic acid w a C=O but w an N in place of the second, ether like, oxygen

240
Q

Carbamate

A

A carboxylic acid w an N on the other side-> Carboxylic hydroxyl group, carbonyl group, then N so like a combination of an amide and carboxylic acid

241
Q

What happens in an ordered enzyme mechanism?

A

A ternary complex is formed AKA a ternary complex consisting of two substrates and the enzyme -> the binding of the first substrate to the enzyme’s active site causes a conformational change (without catalysis), which is required for binding the second substrate.

242
Q

What happens in a ping pong/ double displacement enzyme mechanism?

A

No ternary complex is formed, instead a substituted enzyme intermediate is formed (only temporarily)-> a product is released before the second reaction happens.

243
Q

In a random order enzyme kinetic mechanism…

A

Any substrate could bind first

244
Q

A buffer has a capacity that is ….

A

±1 pH unit away from the pKa

245
Q

kcat is proportional to?

A

Vmax

246
Q

What is the radioactive decay law? What can it be used for?

A
  • N(t) = N0(1/2)^t/T

- To determine the amount of remaining isotope

247
Q

When does refraction occur?

A

When light passes through the interface between optical media with different indices of refraction

248
Q

When does polarization occur?

A

When a substance has optical properties that can preferentially select a certain oscillation direction of the electric field of light.

249
Q

What does diffraction cause?

A

causes the initially plane-parallel wave-fronts of light to change direction and partially enter the shadow region behind the thread due to its narrowness. The overlapping of different wave-fronts on the screen causes the pattern of dark and bright fringes on the screen according to the phase difference between the wave-fronts that interfere there.

250
Q

When does reflection occur?

A

Reflection occurs when light bounces back at the interface between optical media with different indices of refraction

251
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are there bt A and T? G and C?

A
  • Two hydrogen bonds bt A and T

- Three hydrogen bonds bt G and C

252
Q

Equation for PE?

A

PE=mgh

253
Q

What is the definition of current? How can we find charge from current?

A

Flow of charge per unit time .: charge equals current multiplied by time

254
Q

How many seconds are there in an hour?

A

3600s

255
Q

According to Newton’s second law, the average force is equal to

A

the mass of blood multiplied by the average acceleration of the blood.

256
Q

How to find average acceleration

A

Difference in velocity over time

257
Q

The electric field inside each of the conductors that forms the capacitor in the defibrillator is zero. Why is this? What would happen if free electrons also arranged inside?

A
  • Free electrons in the conductor arrange themselves on the surface so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field. -> Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons. Free electrons arrange themselves on the surface of conductors, and their collective electric field produced inside the conductor cancels any external electric field. The resulting electric field inside the conductor is zero.
  • Free electrons arrange themselves only on the surface of the conductor. If they also arranged inside, the electric field inside the conductor would move the electrons even in the absence of a battery.
258
Q

Conductors are characterized by

A

the existence of free electrons that carry current.

259
Q

In conductors like defibrillators, can bound electrons arrange themselves on the surface?

A

Bound electrons cannot arrange themselves on the surface of the conductor due to the binding effects.

260
Q

Calcium influx and release of neurotransmitters does not occur until

A

action potentials arrive at axon terminals.

261
Q

Where do graded potentials occur? Where do they not occur?

A

the cell body and dendrites, not the axon.

262
Q

A cyclic ester is called a

A

Lactone

263
Q

Intramolecular transesterification is called

A

Lactonization

264
Q

Saponification of a lactone?

A

The process by which esters can be cleaved back into a carboxylic acid and alcohol by reaction w a water and a base -> EX: an occur when 4 equivalents of a base are used : When four equivalents of base (–OH) are used, one –OH will saponify the lactone to form the secondary alcohol and carboxylate, a second –OH will hydrolyze the carbamate, with the remaining –OH as excess.

265
Q

Na2CO3 acts as a

A

Bronsted base, which is capable of accepting a proton

266
Q

If a carbonyl oxygen substrate has a partially negative charge, can it act as an electrophile?

A

No bc of the partially negative charge it can’t accept a nucleophile

267
Q

Afferent neurons send information

A

AT or toward the brain

268
Q

What is phototransduction?

A

the process by which light is converted into electrical signals in the rods, cones, and photosensitive ganglion cells of the retina of the eye.

269
Q

What is phototaxis?

A

Phototaxis is the movement of an organism towards or away from a light source.

270
Q

When selecting an indicator for a titration, we want to select an indicator that will change color

A

around the pH of the equivalence point of the titration.

271
Q

What does the equivalence point tell us? Where can we find it?

A

The equivalence point of a titration is where the moles of acid or base added is equivalent to the moles of acid or base originally present in the solution, and it can be approximated as the middle of the vertical section of the curve

272
Q

Where does pKa occur on a titration curve?

A

At the half- equivalence point -> When pH = pKa, the concentration of [A-] = [HA], and this point is the half-equivalence point.

273
Q

pKa=

A

-log(Ka)

274
Q

Henderson Hasselbach equation

A

pH=pKa+log([base]/[acid])

275
Q

What is the equation for heat transfer w heat capacity?

A

Q = mcp∆T -> (Looks like MCAT)

276
Q

Equation to relate mass destiny and volume

A

mass= density x volume OR density= mass/volume

277
Q

The equivalence point of a strong acid/ weak base titration will be

A

Less than 7

278
Q

The equivalence point of a strong acid/ strong base titration will be

A

exactly pH 7

279
Q

The equivalence point of a strong base/ weak acid titration will be

A

greater than pH 7

280
Q

The equivalence point of a weak base/ weak acid titration will be

A

Difficult to predict bc these mixtures make good buffers and resists pH changes.

281
Q

The level of sound intensity that can cause pain is typically around where? What happens at this point?

A
  • 130-140 dB
  • At that point, participants are experiencing auditory and pain inputs, so their ability to discriminate between stimuli is going to change.
282
Q

Nocireceptors detect

A

damaging stimuli at the skin by detecting extremes in temperature and pressure and injury-related chemicals that can cause pain
- they transducr these stimuli into long-ranging electrical signals that are relayed to higher brain centers

283
Q

What is the vestibular system composed of? What do they perceive? What are these parts of the ear stimulated by?

A
  • the semicircular canals, the utricle, and saccule
  • perceives motion and detects acceleration.
  • These parts of the inner ear are stimulated by the rotation of the head.
284
Q

The auditory nerve is composed of a bundle of fibers made up of:

A

Both bipolar and unipolar cells: The human cochlear (i.e. auditory) nerve is comprised of about 30,000 nerve fibers, most of which are bipolar (2 neurite branches) but there are also unipolar (1 neurite) cells present in the cochlear ganglia.

285
Q

What are the difference between unipolar and bipolar cells?

A

Unipolar neurons have one axon. Bipolar neurons have an axon and one dendrite extending from the cell body toward opposite poles.

286
Q

For the measurement of the Lorentz force by an MRI machine, neurons need to be? Why?

A
  • Straight bc a straight neuron produces a current capable of interacting with the magnetic field generated by the MRI machine.
  • A twisted neuron could not do this since the direction of the resulting force would be constantly changing as the direction of the current changes and the detector would be unable to reliably measure this.
287
Q

Equipotential lines will ____________ a positive ion

A

Encircle

288
Q

Electric field lines show the direction of what?

A

the direction a test charge (which is positive) will move within the given electric field.

289
Q

A test charge is normally what? In what direction to electric field lines always go?

A
  • Positive

- Move out of positive charges toward negative ones

290
Q

Electric field lines will always point

A

Away from a positive ion

291
Q

How does isoelectric focusing separate proteins? To do this, what must be established?

A

isoelectric focusing separates proteins based on isoelectric point. To do this, a stable pH gradient must be established in the gel.

292
Q

What is the Kd of an enzyme? How does this relate to affinity?

A
  • Its dissociation constant

- Higher affinity corresponds to a lower Kd

293
Q

Are peptide hormones hydrophilic or hydrophobic? What does this tell us about their solubility?

A

peptide hormones are hydrophilic and soluble in blood so they do not require proteins to remain soluble in the blood

294
Q

Are steroid hormones hydrophilic or hydrophobic? What does this tell us about their solubility?

A

they are hydrophobic or lipophilic so they are not soluble in the blood and must must bind to transport proteins

295
Q

Why is the human blind spot present?

A

The human blind spot is present because the optic disc, which leads to the optic nerve, contains no photoreceptors.

296
Q

All Gestalt principles are governed by the “law of Prägnanz.” To what does this refer?

A

The underlying principle that, in organizing perceived objects, we will always seek to make things as precise, simple, symmetrical, and meaningful as we can

297
Q

If a titration curve shows 2 equivalence points, the acid titrated is most likely:

A

Diprotic: Each proton that can be released from an acid is represented by its own equivalence point and pKa.Two equivalence points means that two protons were originally present.

298
Q

In order for a human’s second-order visual perception to work, the object must be:

A

Moving: Second-order motion perception occurs through examining the changes in an object’s position over time through feature tracking in the retina.

299
Q

The two-point threshold defines

A

the minimum distance between two regions that allows them to be perceived as distinct touch stimuli when simultaneously stimulated.

300
Q

Physiological zero refers to

A

the normal temperature of skin.

301
Q

Smell is intensely linked to emotion because

A

it is processed directly by the limbic system.

302
Q

Are taste buds grouped tg based on the taste sensation?

A

Taste buds are not grouped based on the taste sensation that they are able to detect. All taste buds respond to all five of the currently known tastes.

303
Q

How does top down processing works?

A

an individual uses background knowledge to influence perception.

304
Q

What does bottom up processing refer to?

A

Bottom-up processing refers to perception that is not influenced by preconceived notions or ideas. In other words, it’s entirely data-driven and is generally used for unfamiliar objects.

305
Q

Unipolar neurons are found where?

A

Rare in humans but common in some insects

306
Q

Where are bipolar neurons found?

A

these cells are common in special sensory organs, and are most commonly remembered as components of the retina.

307
Q

Pseudounipolar neurons typically transmit what kind of info where?

A

Pseudounipolar neurons typically transmit sensory information from the periphery to the central nervous system.

308
Q

What kinds of neurons dominant the CNS and cerebrum, frontal lobe/cortex, etc? Why?

A

Multipolar neurons bc their many dendrites allow them to integrate into a complex neural network capable of complicated responses.

309
Q

What do gap junctions do?

A

Connect cells and allow them to share cytoplasm and metabolites

310
Q

Brain cells that analyze incoming sensory information into lines, angles, shading, and movement are called:

A

Feature detectors: The ability to detect certain types of stimuli, like movements, shape, and angles, requires specialized cells in the brain called feature detectors.

311
Q

What is the Nernst equation?

A

Vm = 2.3026 [(RT / zF) * (log (Pc[Co+] + PA[Ai-]) / (Pc[Ci+] + PA[Ao-])], where R is the gas constant, T is temperature, z is the effective charge of the ions involved (usually 1), F is Faraday’s constant, and P is the permeability of the relevant type of ion. -> Note also that [Co+] represents the concentration of various cation species outside the cell, while [Ai-] denotes the concentration of anions inside.

312
Q

What does Mead state about the socially- acceptable projection of self and the true unfettering self?

A

characterizes the socially-acceptable projection of self as the “me” and the true unfettered self as the “I.”

313
Q

Goffman’s focus on interaction uses what approach?

A

Goffman focuses on interactions using the dramaturgical approach, using the metaphor of actors and roles to explain social interaction.

314
Q

What does pluralism refer to?

A

diverse cultures remaining discrete but equal.

315
Q

What does accommodation refer to?

A

ccording to Jean Piaget, accommodation is the process by which new information results in a reshaping of one’s intellectual framework for viewing the world

316
Q

According to Howard Gardner, which of the multiple intelligences are most valued by Western culture?

A

Western cultures value logical-mathematical and linguistic intelligences over the other five intelligences.

317
Q

Lev Vygotsky’s Theory of Cognitive Development states that

A

a child’s internalizing of their culture’s values and attitudes is important for cognitive development. I

318
Q

What is internalization in accordance with Lev Vygotsky’s Theory of Cognitive Development

A

Internalization is the process of learning in which the values are embedded and become part of the individual’s moral behavior.

319
Q

In the stereotype content model, admiration results from

A

high warmth towards the person and perceiving the person to have high competence.

320
Q

In the stereotype content model, contemptuous prejudice results from

A

low warmth towards the person and perceiving the person to have low competence.

321
Q

In the stereotype content model, envious prejudice results from

A

low warmth towards the person and perceiving the person to have high competence.

322
Q

In the stereotype content model, a paternalistic stereotype results from

A

high warmth towards the person and perceiving the person to have low competence.

323
Q

Remembering past personal events, such as state of residence in childhood and residential history since birth, requires retrieval of what kind of memory?

A

Episodic

324
Q

What does statistical adjustment refer to?

A

controlling for variables that could affect the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable.

325
Q

What is the sensitive or critical period?

A

identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life.

326
Q

The incentive theory of motivation calls what to attention?

A

how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior.

327
Q

Ethnocentrism involves

A

relying too heavily on one’s own cultural standards to judge those from another culture.

328
Q

What does cultural relativism do?

A

raises awareness of the fact that cultures have different standards and biases.

329
Q

What is ascribed status?

A

one that is fixed for an individual at birth, like sex, race, and socioeconomic background or is involuntarily given later in life

330
Q

Cultural capital refers to

A

knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status

331
Q

Social cognitive theory (originally referred to as social learning theory) suggests that

A

behaviors are learned through observing others and modeling their actions.

332
Q

Intersectionality calls attention to how

A

identity categories like age, gender, or sexual orientation intersect in systems of social stratification.

333
Q

Symbolic interactionism examines

A

small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups.

334
Q

looking-glass self suggests

A

that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us AKA its like a mirror of how others view us that we end up internalizing

335
Q

Population pyramids illustrate

A

the age and sex distribution of a population.

336
Q

If a population pyramid shows an aging population, (the size of the population increases with age until you get to the age groups at the top of the figure, where mortality rates are highest), what is most likely happening to the size of the population? What will the population pyramid look like?Because of the “inverse” pyramid shape represented in the figure, with the older age groups being larger than the younger age groups,

A

with the older age groups being larger than the younger age groups, we’d see an “inverse” pyramid shape, likely indicating that the population is decreasing or is likely to decrease over time

337
Q

What does the demographic transition theory address? What is it process is it specifically related to? What is the typical pattern associated with it? When was this pattern seen?

A
  • Demographic transition theory addresses changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development
  • Specifically, related to industrialization
  • The typical pattern begins with a drop in the death rate, leading to population growth, followed by a drop in the birth rate, leading to population stabilization.
  • This demographic pattern was seen in the United States and several European countries during the 19th century, with many other countries following this pattern during the 20th century.

MCAT (6 decks)

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