CompTIA SYO-701 (ET) Test Flashcards
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
A. Hacktivist
B. Whistleblower
C. Organized crime
D. Unskilled attacker
C. Organized crime
In the context of CompTIA Security+, organized crime refers to structured groups that are engaged in illegal activities, typically for financial gain. These groups are often highly sophisticated, well-funded, and operate with a high degree of coordination.
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
A. Key stretching
B. Data masking
C. Steganography
D. Salting
D. Salting
In the context of CompTIA Security+, salting is a technique used to enhance the security of stored passwords. It involves adding a random value, known as a “salt,” to a password before hashing it. This process helps to prevent various types of attacks, such as rainbow table attacks and certain brute-force attacks.
An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The employee entered the log-in information but received a “page not found” error message. Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred?
A. Brand impersonation
B. Pretexting
C. Typosquatting
D. Phishing
D. Phishing
Phishing involves tricking individuals into providing sensitive information, such as login credentials, by pretending to be a legitimate entity. In this case, the employee was deceived into entering their login information on a fake website that impersonated a payment website.
A data administrator is configuring authentication for a SaaS application and would like to reduce the number of credentials employees need to maintain. The company prefers to use domain credentials to access new SaaS applications. Which of the following methods would allow this functionality?
A. SSO
B. LEAP
C. MFA
D. PEAP
A. SSO
Single Sign-On (SSO) enables users to authenticate once with their domain credentials and then access multiple applications without needing to re-enter their credentials each time. This aligns with the company’s preference to use domain credentials and reduces the burden of managing multiple sets of credentials for different applications.
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53
Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53
D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?
A. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field of the email.
B. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
D. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company’s email portal.
C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators’ workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
A. Jump server
B. RADIUS
C. HSM
D. Load balancer
A. Jump server
A jump server, also known as a jump host or bastion host, is a secure system used to bridge the gap between a secure network segment and a less secure one. It acts as a gateway, allowing authorized users to connect to servers in a restricted network segment securely.
An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
A. NGFW
B. WAF
C. TLS
D. SD-WAN
B. WAF (Web Application Firewall)
A WAF inspects incoming and outgoing web traffic to detect and block malicious payloads that may exploit application vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows.
Next-Generation Firewall
Transport Layer Security
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network)
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users’ passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Permissions assignment
C. Access management
D. Password complexity
A. Multifactor authentication
Multifactor authentication (MFA) requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access to a resource such as an application, online account, or VPN. This security measure significantly reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access because even if an attacker has the password, they would still need the additional verification factor(s), such as a code from a mobile device, a fingerprint, or a hardware token.
An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)
A. Typosquatting
B. Phishing
C. Impersonation
D. Vishing
E. Smishing
F. Misinformation
C. Impersonation
E. Smishing
Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
“I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email address.”
Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).
A. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
C. Issue a general email warning to the company.
D. Have the CEO change phone numbers.
E. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO’s phone.
F. Implement mobile device management.
B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
C. Issue a general email warning to the company.
A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?
A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
B. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
C. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
D. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
A penetration test would be checking the security practices of your supply chain to ensure they are not easily tampered with, but does not address the lack of reliability, & authenticity that would protect a company from the possible procurement of faulty supplies/hardware like an analysis would. An enforced acquisition policy would be a bad practice especially if the parts were faulty. A right to audit clause, & Statement of Work (SOW) is the first step to allowing an analysis, or penetration test of vendor services, & goods.
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
A. Rules of engagement
B. Supply chain analysis
C. Right to audit clause
D. Due diligence
A. Rules of engagement
Rules of engagement (RoE) outline the scope, objectives, limitations, and boundaries of the penetration test. This document ensures both parties understand what is allowed and expected during the testing process, including which systems can be tested, the methods to be used, the timing of the tests, and how the results will be reported and handled. Supply Chain Analysis involves assessing the risks associated with the supply chain and third-party vendors, not specifically the terms of a penetration test. Right to Audit Clause is a clause in a contract allows one party to audit the other, typically related to compliance and security practices, but does not detail the terms of a penetration test. Due Dilligence is the process of investigating and evaluating a business or person before signing a contract, but it doesn’t provide the specific terms of a penetration test.
A penetration tester begins an engagement by performing port and service scans against the client environment according to the rules of engagement. Which of the following reconnaissance types is the tester performing?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Defensive
D. Offensive
A. Active
Active reconnaissance involves actively probing and scanning the target environment to gather information. This typically includes activities such as port and service scans, vulnerability scans, and other direct interactions with the target systems to identify potential weaknesses or entry points. Passive reconnaissance, on the other hand, involves gathering information without directly interacting with the target systems, such as monitoring network traffic or analyzing publicly available information. defensive and offensive reconnaissance, respectively, are not standard reconnaissance types typically used in the context of penetration testing.
Which of the following is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure?
A. IRP
B. DRP
C. RPO
D. SDLC
B. DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)
A Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) is essential for managing the restore process in the event of system failure. It provides a detailed strategy for recovering data, systems, and applications, ensuring that business operations can resume as quickly as possible after a disaster. While an Incident Response Policy (IRP) handles immediate incident response, and Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Software Development LifeCycle (SDLC) are related to specific aspects of data recovery and system development, the DRP is specifically focused on comprehensive recovery and continuity planning.
Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository?
A. Jailbreaking
B. Memory injection
C. Resource reuse
D. Side loading
D. Side loading
**Side loading ** is the process of installing applications or files onto a device, such as a smartphone, tablet, or computer, without using the device’s official app store or authorized distribution channels. This method allows users to bypass the standard app store or marketplace and install software directly, often from an external source like a third-party website or local storage.
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
[10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username administrator - password Sprinq2023
[10:00:01 AM] Login rejected - username jsmith - password Spring2023
[10:00:01 AM] Login rejected - username guest - password Spring2023
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
A. Password spraying
B. Account forgery
C. Pass-the-hash
D. Brute-force
A. Password spraying
Password spraying is a type of brute-force attack used to gain unauthorized access to user accounts by systematically attempting a small number of commonly used passwords against many user accounts. Unlike traditional brute-force attacks, which attempt many different passwords against a single user account, password spraying involves trying a few commonly used passwords against a large number of accounts. Pass the Hash Attack is hacking technique that allows the attacker to authenticate to a remote server or service by using the underlying hash of a user’s password instead of requiring the associated plaintext password.
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
A. Secured zones
B. Subject role
C. Adaptive identity
D. Threat scope reduction
B. Subject role
To achieve zero trust, we use the control and data planes.
Control Plane uses Adaptive identity, threat scope reduction, policy-driven access control, and secured zones.
Data Plan uses Subject/system, policy engine, policy administrator, and
establishing policy enforcement points
An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be the best solution?
A. RDP server
B. Jump server
C. Proxy server
D. Hypervisor
B. Jump server
A jump server (or jump box) acts as a controlled access point that administrators must go through to access internal resources. It creates an additional layer of security by acting as a secure intermediary, allowing only authorized users to access internal servers and systems. This reduces the attack surface by limiting direct access to sensitive resources and can be closely monitored and secured. A proxy server acts as intermediaries between clients and servers and provides content caching, requests filtering, and login management. A Hypervisor is used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Server is a protocol which provides a user with graphical interface to connect to another computer.
A company’s web filter is configured to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. Which of the following search strings should an analyst employ to prohibit access to non-encrypted websites?
A. encryption=off
B. http://
C. www.*.com
D. :443
B. http://
During a security incident, the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address: 10.1.4.9. A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization’s network. Which of the following fulfills this request?
A. access-list inbound deny ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
B. access-list inbound deny ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
C. access-list inbound permit ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
D. access-list inbound permit ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
B. access-list inbound deny ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
A company needs to provide administrative access to internal resources while minimizing the traffic allowed through the security boundary. Which of the following methods is most secure?
A. Implementing a bastion host
B. Deploying a perimeter network
C. Installing a WAF
D. Utilizing single sign-on
A. Implementing a bastion host
A **bastion host ** is a highly secured server located on a perimeter network (also known as a DMZ) that is designed to withstand attacks. It acts as a gateway between internal and external networks, allowing access only to specific services and applications. Users must authenticate themselves to the bastion host before accessing internal resources. This option provides a controlled entry point into the internal network, reducing the attack surface.
A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee’s corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?
A. Application
B. IPS/IDS
C. Network
D. Endpoint
D. Endpoint
Endpoint logs, also known as host logs, record events and activities that occur on individual endpoints (such as laptops, desktops, or servers). These logs can include information about processes, applications, system events, user logins, file accesses, and more. Endpoint logs are a valuable source of data for investigating security incidents on specific devices, including information about the executables running on the machine.
A cyber operations team informs a security analyst about a new tactic malicious actors are using to compromise networks.
SIEM alerts have not yet been configured. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst should do to identify this behavior?
A. Digital forensics
B. E-discovery
C. Incident response
D. Threat hunting
D. Threat hunting
**Threat hunting ** involves proactively searching for and identifying potential security threats or indicators of compromise (IOCs) within an organization’s network environment. It typically involves the use of advanced analytics, threat intelligence, and specialized tools to detect suspicious behavior or anomalies that may indicate the presence of a threat actor.
A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. Which of the following strategies does this represent?
A. Accept
B. Transfer
C. Mitigate
D. Avoid
B. Transfer
Transferring a risk involves shifting some or all of the risk to another party, such as an insurance provider, through contractual agreements or financial arrangements.
A security administrator would like to protect data on employees’ laptops. Which of the following encryption techniques should the security administrator use?
A. Partition
B. Asymmetric
C. Full disk
D. Database
C. Full disk
Fulldisk encryption, this encrypts the whole storage drive of the device, including OS, files, app data, etc. the reason its not the other options partition encryption - only encrypts the partition, meaning if there are multiple partitions then some of them could be left unencrypted and a threat actor could steal data in them. Asymmetric encryption - is an encryption technique using Public Key, private key methodology. Database encryption - is used to encrypt databases (schema) or data within the databases.
Which of the following security control types does an acceptable use policy best represent?
A. Detective
B. Compensating
C. Corrective
D. Preventive
D. Preventive
An acceptable use policy is designed to prevent security incidents by defining the acceptable and unacceptable behaviors and actions for users within an organization. By setting clear guidelines and expectations, it aims to prevent misuse and ensure that users adhere to security protocols, thereby reducing the risk of security breaches.
An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk software. Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up?
A. Hardening
B. Employee monitoring
C. Configuration enforcement
D. Least privilege
D. Least privilege
Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only be granted the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform their job functions. By restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only the IT manager and the help desk lead, the IT manager is adhering to the principle of least privilege, ensuring that only those individuals who require administrative access have it, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential misuse.
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?
A. Risk tolerance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk register
D. Risk analysis
C. Risk register
A risk register is a tool commonly used in risk management that records details of all identified risks, including descriptions, responsible parties, risk categories, likelihood and impact, mitigation measures, and thresholds for action. It serves as a central repository for all information about risks, making it easier to manage and track them.
Which of the following should a security administrator adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules?
A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Incident response procedure
C. Business continuity plan
D. Change management procedure
D. Change management procedure
Implementing new firewall rules is a significant change to the network security infrastructure. Adhering to change management procedures ensures these changes are made systematically, reducing the risk of errors and enhancing the security posture.
A company is expanding its threat surface program and allowing individuals to security test the company’s internet-facing application. The company will compensate researchers based on the vulnerabilities discovered. Which of the following best describes the program the company is setting up?
A. Open-source intelligence
B. Bug bounty
C. Red team
D. Penetration testing
B. Bug bounty
A bug bounty program incentivizes external security researchers to find and report vulnerabilities in a company’s applications or systems. Researchers are compensated based on the severity and impact of the vulnerabilities they uncover, helping the company to improve its security posture by leveraging a wide range of expertise. Offensive Penetration Testing is also known as Red Team. Penetration Testing Actively seeks vulnerabilities and attempts to exploit them, like a real cyber attack, also Helps uncover and report vulnerabilities to improve security,
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?
A. Insider
B. Unskilled attacker
C. Nation-state
D. Hacktivist
C. Nation-state
Nation-state actors are government-backed groups or organizations that engage in cyber activities as part of national interests. They have significant financial and technical resources and often target critical infrastructure, defense systems, and other high-value targets in foreign countries. The nation-state is the most likely threat actor to use vast financial resources for international cyber attacks, aligning with the scenario’s description of attacking critical systems across borders.
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Side loading
C. Buffer overflow
D. SQL injection
D. SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that involves inserting malicious SQL statements into an input field. These statements can then be executed by the database, allowing the attacker to view or manipulate the data. This can lead to unauthorized access to the database, data leakage, or even the modification and deletion of data. Cross-Site Scripting involves injecting malicious scripts into webpages viewed by other users, but it does not specifically involve running commands that directly view or manipulate data in a database. Side Loading typically refers to installing applications from unofficial sources, not related to input fields and running commands. Buffer Overflow involves exploiting a program by writing more data to a buffer than it can hold, potentially allowing the execution of arbitrary code, but it does not specifically use input fields to run commands on data.
Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?
A. Encrypted
B. Intellectual property
C. Critical
D. Data in transit
B. Intellectual property
Research and development teams typically handle sensitive information related to new inventions, designs, processes, and technologies. This type of data is considered intellectual property (IP) and is crucial for maintaining a competitive edge in the market. Protecting this data from unauthorized access, theft, or misuse is a primary concern, hence the extensive training provided to these employees.
A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following is the best option?
A. Send out periodic security reminders.
B. Update the content of new hire documentation.
C. Modify the content of recurring training.
D. Implement a phishing campaign.
C. Modify the content of recurring training.
To improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work, the best option is: C. Modify the content of recurring training. Modifying the content of recurring training to include specific topics relevant to the transition from remote to in-office work will ensure that users are aware of the new security protocols and potential threats they might face in the office environment. This approach provides a structured and comprehensive way to address the unique aspects of both environments and helps reinforce best practices.
A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?
A. Packet captures
B. Vulnerability scans
C. Metadata
D. Dashboard
D. Dashboard
Dashboards offer a clear and intuitive way to present complex data, making it easier for board members to grasp the overall security posture and trends over time.
A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool:
The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed.
The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months. Which of the following most likely occurred?
A. The end user changed the file permissions.
B. A cryptographic collision was detected.
C. A snapshot of the file system was taken.
D. A rootkit was deployed.
D. A rootkit was deployed.
A change in the hash of a critical system file like cmd.exe, without any corresponding patches or updates being applied, is a strong indicator of potential malicious activity. A rootkit is a type of malware that can modify system files and hide its presence to maintain persistent and privileged access to a system. If a rootkit has altered cmd.exe, it could be an attempt to replace the legitimate command prompt with a malicious version, or to modify its behavior for nefarious purposes. This is a serious security concern and should be investigated immediately.
Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company’s database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment?
A. Client
B. Third-party vendor
C. Cloud provider
D. DBA
A. Client
The client is the one who is utilizing the data, & would be responsible in the handling, & security of database within the infrastructure provided by the Cloud Provider, or Third-Party Vendor.
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. Which of the following documents should the company provide to the client?
A. MSA
B. SLA
C. BPA
D. SOW
D. SOW
The company should provide the client with a Statement of Work (SOW). A Statement of Work is a document that outlines the details of a project, including the scope, deliverables, timeline, and cost. It is used to ensure that both the client and the service provider have a clear understanding of the project’s requirements and expectations. - MSA (Master Service Agreement) An overarching contract that defines the terms and conditions under which services will be provided. - SLA (Service Level Agreement) A contract that defines the level of service expected from the service provider. - BPA (Business Partnership Agreement) An agreement that defines the relationship and responsibilities between business partners.
A security team is reviewing the findings in a report that was delivered after a third party performed a penetration test. One of the findings indicated that a web application form field is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. Which of the following application security techniques should the security analyst recommend the developer implement to prevent this vulnerability?
A. Secure cookies
B. Version control
C. Input validation
D. Code signing
C. Input validation
Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two).
A. Ease of recovery
B. Ability to patch
C. Physical isolation
D. Responsiveness
E. Attack surface
F. Extensible authentication
A. Ease of recovery
D. Responsiveness
Ease of recovery. This is essential for high availability because the network must be able to recover quickly from failures to minimize downtime. -
Responsiveness. Ensuring that the network can handle high traffic loads and respond quickly to user requests is crucial for maintaining high availability.
Other factors like physical isolation, ability to patch, attack surface, and extensible authentication are important for security and maintenance but are not primary considerations for high availability.
A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be taken first?
A. Air gap the system.
B. Move the system to a different network segment.
C. Create a change control request.
D. Apply the patch to the system.
C. Create a change control request.
Change Control is the process that management uses to identify, document and authorize changes to an IT environment. It minimizes the likelihood of disruptions, unauthorized alterations and errors. The change control procedures should be designed with the size and complexity of the environment in mind.
Which of the following describes the reason root cause analysis should be conducted as part of incident response?
A. To gather IoCs for the investigation
B. To discover which systems have been affected
C. To eradicate any trace of malware on the network
D. To prevent future incidents of the same nature
D. To prevent future incidents of the same nature
Root cause analysis is fundamental to preventing future incidents by addressing the underlying issues rather than merely treating the symptoms. This approach helps build a more resilient security infrastructure. Also, Conducting RCA contributes to continuous improvement in security practices, policies, and technologies, enhancing the organization’s overall security posture.
Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?
A. Fines
B. Audit findings
C. Sanctions
D. Reputation damage
A. Fines
A company is developing a business continuity strategy and needs to determine how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption. Which of the following best describes this step?
A. Capacity planning
B. Redundancy
C. Geographic dispersion
D. Tabletop exercise
A. Capacity planning
Capacity planning involves determining the staffing levels needed to sustain business operations during a disruption. This ensures that the organization has sufficient human resources to maintain essential functions and minimize downtime.
A company’s legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
A. Data masking
B. Encryption
C. Geolocation policy
D. Data sovereignty regulation
C. Geolocation policy
Implementing a geolocation policy allows the company to configure the SaaS application to block access from IP addresses originating in high-risk countries. This is accomplished by using IP geolocation data to determine where a connection attempt is coming from. Geolocation policies are effective for preventing unauthorized access based on geographic location, ensuring that sensitive documents remain secure from individuals in regions identified as high-risk.
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
A. Firmware version
B. Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
A. Firmware version
the firmware version (option A) is directly related to the hardware and represents a potential point of vulnerability that attackers could exploit. Firmware is the software that controls the basic functionality of hardware devices, and vulnerabilities in firmware can lead to security breaches. Options B, C, and D (buffer overflow, SQL injection, and cross-site scripting) are software vulnerabilities and are not inherently tied to hardware components.
While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a “deny any” policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.
Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?
A. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
B. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the “deny any” policy prior to enabling the new policy
D. Including an “allow any” policy above the “deny any” policy
B. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
By testing the policy in a non-production environment, the technician can identify potential issues, such as legitimate traffic being blocked, before applying the changes to the production network. This approach allows for adjustments and troubleshooting in a safe setting, minimizing the risk of disruption to business operations.
An organization is building a new backup data center with cost-benefit as the primary requirement and RTO and RPO values around two days. Which of the following types of sites is the best for this scenario?
A. Real-time recovery
B. Hot
C. Cold
D. Warm
D. Warm
The primary difference between a hot site and cold site is the readiness to be up and running. With a recent backup of data and all IT systems operating, a hot site provides redundancy and is essentially a second data center that will result in minimal to no downtime. To get a cold site up and running means planning for setup time and resources.
A company requires hard drives to be securely wiped before sending decommissioned systems to recycling. Which of the following best describes this policy?
A. Enumeration
B. Sanitization
C. Destruction
D. Inventory
B. Sanitization
Sanitization involves securely erasing data from hard drives to ensure that it cannot be recovered or accessed by unauthorized individuals. This process is essential before decommissioned systems are sent to recycling to protect sensitive information. Enumeration, destruction, and inventory do not specifically refer to the secure erasure of data from hard drives.
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?
A. Private
B. Critical
C. Sensitive
D. Public
C. Sensitive
A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider consider first?
A. Local data protection regulations
B. Risks from hackers residing in other countries
C. Impacts to existing contractual obligations
D. Time zone differences in log correlation
A. Local data protection regulations
When a U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider is considering expanding its data centers to new international locations, the first thing they should consider is local data protection regulations. These regulations govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries have different regulations, such as the GDPR in the EU or PIPEDA in Canada. Compliance with these regulations is crucial to avoid legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage
Which of the following would be the best way to block unknown programs from executing?
A. Access control list
B. Application allow list
C. Host-based firewall
D. DLP solution
B. Application allow list
A company hired a consultant to perform an offensive security assessment covering penetration testing and social engineering.
Which of the following teams will conduct this assessment activity?
A. White
B. Purple
C. Blue
D. Red
D. Red
Offensive Penetration Testing , Known as “red teaming” Actively seeks vulnerabilities and attempts to exploit them, like a real cyber attack. Helps uncover and report vulnerabilities to improve security, & Can simulate real-world attacks and gain support for cybersecurity investments
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
A. Testing input validation on the user input fields
B. Performing code signing on company-developed software
C. Performing static code analysis on the software
D. Ensuring secure cookies are use
B. Performing code signing on company-developed software
Code signing involves applying a digital signature to software, verifying the identity of the developer and ensuring that the code has not been altered or tampered with since it was signed. This process provides assurance of the authenticity and integrity of the software. Testing input validation, performing static code analysis, and ensuring secure cookies are important security practices but do not specifically address the need to verify the authenticity of the code.
Which of the following can be used to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers?
A. Honeypot
B. Video surveillance
C. Zero Trust
D. Geofencing
A. Honeypot
Honeypot - a network-attached system set up as a decoy to lure cyber attackers and detect, deflect and study hacking attempts on systems.
Geofencing - Virtual boundaries to restrict data access based on location
**Zero Trust **- demands verification for every device, user, and transaction within the network, regardless of its origin
During an investigation, an incident response team attempts to understand the source of an incident. Which of the following incident response activities describes this process?
A. Analysis
B. Lessons learned
C. Detection
D. Containment
A. Analysis
During an investigation, the incident response team engages in the process of understanding the source of an incident through analysis. This involves examining the data and evidence collected to determine how the incident occurred, its origin, and its impact.
A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company’s network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates. Which of the following should be done next?
A. Conduct an audit.
B. Initiate a penetration test.
C. Rescan the network.
D. Submit a report.
C. Rescan the network.
Rescanning the network is essential to verify that the previously identified vulnerabilities have been successfully remediated and to ensure that no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. This step confirms the effectiveness of the remediation efforts before moving on to further actions such as audits, penetration tests, or reporting.
An administrator was notified that a user logged in remotely after hours and copied large amounts of data to a personal device. Which of the following best describes the user’s activity?
A. Penetration testing
B. Phishing campaign
C. External audit
D. Insider threat
D. Insider threat
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?
A. Adaptive identity
B. Non-repudiation
C. Authentication
D. Access logs
B. Non-repudiation
Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?
A. Automation
B. Compliance checklist
C. Attestation
D. Manual audit
A. Automation
Automation involves using tools and scripts to regularly check and report on the security settings of servers. This method ensures consistent, real-time monitoring and can quickly detect any unauthorized changes. It is more reliable and efficient compared to manual methods, compliance checklists, or periodic attestations, which may not capture changes as promptly or consistently.
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII?
A. SCAP
B. NetFlow
C. Antivirus
D. DLP
D. DLP
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions monitor, detect, and block sensitive data from being sent outside an organization through email, file transfers, and other communication methods. DLP can be configured to detect specific data patterns, such as social security numbers, credit card information, or other forms of PII.
An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?
A. Identify embedded keys
B. Code debugging
C. Input validation
D. Static code analysis
C. Input validation
Input validation is the process of analyzing inputs and disallowing those which are considered unsuitable. Ie: Only allowing accepted inputs based on specific criteria
A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following should the analyst do?
A. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
B. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered.
C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
D. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
Implementing EDR policy updates directly addresses the risk posed by phishing attacks by stopping malicious code from executing, thereby reducing the potential impact of users clicking on phishing links.
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) focuses on identifying and addressing security threats at the endpoint level, such as laptops, desktops, and mobile devices
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
A. Compensating control
B. Network segmentation
C. Transfer of risk
D. SNMP traps
A. Compensating control
A compensating control is a security measure that is put in place to satisfy the requirements of a security policy or standard when the primary control cannot be implemented. In this case, the host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allowing connections from only specific internal IP addresses serves as a compensating control to protect the system by limiting access to trusted sources.
The management team notices that new accounts that are set up manually do not always have correct access or permissions.
Which of the following automation techniques should a systems administrator use to streamline account creation?
A. Guard rail script
B. Ticketing workflow
C. Escalation script
D. User provisioning script
D. User provisioning script
A user provisioning script automates the process of creating user accounts, ensuring that each new account is set up with the correct access and permissions consistently. This helps prevent errors that can occur with manual account creation.
A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis. Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up?
A. Corrective
B. Preventive
C. Detective
D. Deterrent
C. Detective
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is primarily used to detect security incidents by collecting and analyzing logs from various sources.The setup of a SIEM system and regular log reviews is focused on identifying incidents, making it a classic example of a detective control, which is intended to uncover issues rather than prevent them.
A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based. Which of the following meets these requirements?
A. Serverless framework
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. SD-WAN
D. SDN
A. Serverless framework
A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that allows developers to build and run applications without managing the underlying infrastructure. It is typically a low-cost option because it charges based on the actual usage of the resources rather than requiring the provisioning of dedicated servers.
A security operations center determines that the malicious activity detected on a server is normal. Which of the following activities describes the act of ignoring detected activity in the future?
A. Tuning
B. Aggregating
C. Quarantining
D. Archiving
A. Tuning
Tuning refers to the process of adjusting the configuration of a system, in this case, the security operations center’s detection systems, to reduce or eliminate the number of false positives. In this context, if the so-called “malicious activity” is determined to be normal and is expected to recur, the system can be tuned to ignore this activity in the future, preventing unnecessary alerts.
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
USerID ismith, password authentication: succeeded, MA: failed (invalid code)
UserlD jsmith, password authentication: succeeded, MFA: failed (invalid code) UserID jsmith, password authentication: succeeded, MA: failed (invalid code)
Which of the following is the best explanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
A. The user ismith’s account has been locked out.
B. A kevloager is installed on ismith’s workstation.
C. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith’s account.
D. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
C. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith’s account.
The log entries show multiple successful password authentications followed by multiple failed MA (Multi-Factor Authentication) attempts due tc invalid codes. This pattern suggests that the user’s password has been correctly entered multiple times, but the MrA codes are consistently fallin
The best explanation Tor what the security analyst nas discovered Is.
C. An attacker is attempting to brute force smith’s account
The repeated successtul password authentications followed by tailed MA attempts indicate that an attacker may have obtained the user’s password and is now tring to bypass the second laver of security, the MFA, by attempting multiple invalid codes
A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime. Which of the following should the company consider?
A. Blustering servers
B. Geographic dispersion
C. Load balancers
D. Ott-site backups
B. Geographic dispersion
Geographic dispersion involves placing critical infrastructure in multiple, geographically distant locations. This strategy ensures that even if one si
Is attected by a weather event, operations can continue at another site, minImizing downtime and maintaining avallability.
Which of the following is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD program?
A. End of Life
B. Buffer overflow
C. VM escape
D. Jailbreaking
D. Jailbreaking
Jailbreaking is the correct answer because it directly affects the security of personal devices used in a BYOD program. Jalibreaking removes bullt-in security controls, making devices vulnerable to various threats and is a primary concern for companies allowing personal devices to access corporate networks and data.
A company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks. Which of the following analysis elements did the company most likely use in making this decision?
A. MTTR
B. RIO
C. ARO
D. MTBF
C. ARO
MTTR = mean time to repair
RTO = recovery time objective
ARO = annualized rate of occurance
MTBF = mean time between failures.
*
Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
A. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activIties
B. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
C. VerifyIng Information when moditying wire transfer data
D. Performing social engineering as part or third-party penetration testing
A. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activIties
76 & 77 are pictures
Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?
A. Preparation
B. Recovery
C. Lessons Learned
D. Analysis
A. Preparation
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network. Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
A Console access
B. Routing protocols
C. VLANs
D. Web-based administration
D. Web-based administration
Web-based administration, also known as remote management or HTTP/HTTPS access, is a common feature in routers that allows administrators to manage the device remotely using a web browser. However, this feature also introduces a potential vulnerability, as it opens up the router to potential web-based attacks. Disabling web-based administration would reduce the attack surface and prevent potential exploits, making the router more secure
Console access (A) is necessary for local management, routing protocols (B) are essential for network operation, and **VLANs (C) **are used fol network segmentation and securit. Disabling web-based administration (D) is the most appropriate option to harden the router.
A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks to track any changes. Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?
A SPF
B. GPO
C. NAC
D. FIM
D. FIM (File Integrity Monitoring)
File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a security technology that monitors and detects changes in files. FIM solutions can track modifications, access, deletions of files and notity administrators of any changes, thus ensuring data integrity and security.
Group Policy Objects (GPOs) let system admins control and implement cybersecurity measures from a single location
Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email authentication method designed to detect and prevent email spoofing
Network access control (NAC) is a security solution that enforces policy on devices that access networks to increase network visibility and reduce risk.
A security engineer is implementing FDE for all laptops in an organization. Which of the following are the most important for the engineer to consider as part of the planning process? Choose two.)
A. Key Escrow
B. ТРМ presence
C. Digital signatures
D. Data tokenization
E. Public key management
F. Certificate authority linking
A. Key Escrow
B. ТРМ presence
Key escrow This is important to ensure that encryption keys can be recovered in case they are lost or forgotten. It is a crucial consideratior for Full Disk Encryption (FDE) to maintain access to data even if issues arise with the primary encryption keys.
TPM presence: Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature that can store encryption keys securely. Ensuring the presence of TPM on laptops enhances the security of FDE by protecting the encryption keys being accessed or tampered with.
A security analyst scans a company’s public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
C. Using a proxy for connections from the remote desktop server
D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password lengtn
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall is the most secure approach because it reduces the attack surface and ensures only authorized users can access the remote desktop service. This solution addresses the primary security concern ot protecting sensitive production systems by ensuring that only verified users can gain access, thus minimizing the attack surface and potential vulnerabilities.
An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks?
A. ACL
B. DLP
C. IDS
D. IPS
D. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)
A. ACL (Access control List: ACLS are used to control the flow of trattic based on rules, but they are not dynamic enough to monitor or block signature-based attacks effectively.
B. DLP (Data Loss Prevention): DLP systems are focused on preventing data breaches by detecting and blocking potential data leaks/exfiltration not on monitoring or blocking attacks per se.
C. IDS (Intrusion Detection Svstem): While an IDS can detect known sianature-based attacks. it does not block them: it only alerts the system administrators of the potential threat.
D. IPS Intrusion Prevention System): As mentioned, an IPS actively monitors and blocks attacks, making it the most suitable option for the scenario described
Security controls in a data center are being reviewed to ensure data is properly protected and that human life considerations are included. Which of the following best describes how the controls should be set up?
A. Remote access points should fail closed
B. Logging controls should fall open.
C. Safety controls should fail open.
D. Logical security controls should fail closed
C. Safety controls should fail open.
satety controls falling open is a critical design principle that ensures human life is prioritized in the event ot a failure. This principle applies to situations where failing open provides an immediate satety benefit, such as allowing exit doors to unlock automatically during a fire.
Fail Close: Locks controls such as access to the perimeter. & devices to protect from exfiltration
Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
A. RTOS
B. Containers
C. Embedded systems
D. SCADA
B. Containers
Containers is the correct answer because they are specifically designed to provide flexibility and scalabity in constantly changing environments. containers allow for rapid deployment and scaling. making them ideal for dynamic applications that need to adapt to frequent changes and updates. furthermore containers are particularly well-suited for microservices architectures, continuos integration continuous deplovment (CI/CD) pipelines, and environments that need to rapidly adapt to change.
RTOS = Real Time Operating System
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)
Which of the following incident response activities ensures evidence is properly handled?
A. E-discovery
B. Chain of custody
C. Legal hold
D. Preservation
B. Chain of custody
Chain of custody is the process that ensures evidence is properly handled and documented throughout its lifecycle.
An accounting clerk sent money to an attacker’s bank account after receiving fraudulent instructions to use a new account. Which of the following would most likely prevent this activity in the future?
A. standardizing security incident reporting
B. Executing regular phishing campaigns
C. Implementing insider threat detection measures
D. updating processes for sending wire transfers
D. updating processes for sending wire transfers
Updating the processes for sending wire transfers would most likely prevent this type of activity in the future. This could include implementing additional verification steps, such as requiring multiple levels of approval, verifying new payment instructions through a separate communication channel, or implementing
a callback procedure to contirm the authenticity of the instructions.
A systems administrator is creating a script that would save time and prevent human error when performing account creation for a large number of end users. Which of the following would be a good use case for this task?
A. Off-the-shelf software
B. Orchestration
C. Baseline
D. Policy enforcement
B. Orchestration
Orchestration provides a comprehensive approach to automating complex workflows, making it an excellent choice for efficiently managing account creation processes in large-scale environments.Orchestration is ideal for automating the creation of user accounts, as it can handle the sequence of tasks required to set up accounts, such as creating usernames, assigning permissIons, contIgurIng email, and setting up directory
A company’s marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest. Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
A. Processor
B. Custodian
C. Subject
D. Owner
C. Subject
In this scenario, the customers are the data subjects because the sensitive information collected, modified, and stored by the marketing department pertains to them. The customers are the individuals whose data is being processed
Which of the following describes the maximum allowance of accepted risk?
A. Risk Indicator
B. Risk level
C. Risk score
D. Risk Threshold
D. Risk Threshold
A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Which of the following is most likely occurring?
A. A Worm is propagating across the network
B. Data is being exfiltrated.
C. A logic bomb is deleting data
D. Ransomware is encrypting files
B. Data is being exfiltrated.
The scenario describes an internal system sending unusual and large amounts of DNS queries to external systems, especially during non-busines hours. This behavior Is indicative ot data exfiltration, where an attacker tries to move data out ot the network covertly.
A technician is opening ports on a firewall for a new system being deployed and supported by a SaaS provider. Which of the following is a risk in the new system?
A. Default credentials
B. Non-segmented network
C. Supply chain vendor
D. Vulnerable software
D. Vulnerable software
Vulnerable software is the correct answer because:
* Direct Risk Connection: Opening firewall ports directly exposes the system’s software to external threats. If the software has vulnerabilities, thes can be exploited by attackers, especially when exposed to the internet or external networks.
* Exploitation Potential Known Vulnerabilities in software can be easIiy targeted by attackers using automated tooIs to scan an exploit open ports.
*Immediate security concern: The primary concern with opening ports is exposing internal systems to external attacks, making any vulnerabilities in the software a direct threat.
Which of the following involves an attempt to take advantage of database misconfigurations?
A Butter overflow
B. SQL injection
C. VM escape
D. Memory injection
B. SQL injection
SQL injection is an attack that targets vulnerabilities in a database by injecting malicious SQL code into input fields. It takes advantage of misconfigured or improperly secured databases that do not validate or sanitize user input.
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
A. OCSP
B. CSR
C. CA
D. CRC
A. OCSP
OCSP (Online Certification Status Protocol), is the protocol that checks a certificate for validitiy and if its been revoked by CA (Certificate Authroity).
One of a company’s vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update. Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
A. Virtualization
B. Firmware
C. Application
D. Operating system
B. Firmware
BIOS update addresses vulnerabilities at the firmware level. The BIOS is an essential component of the system’s firmware, and updates to it are intended to fix security vulnerabilities, improve compatibility, and enhance overall system stability.
Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?
A. CVE
B. CVSS
C. CIA
D. CERT
B. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System)
CVSS is specitically designed to quantitatively measure the criticality ot a vulnerability.
CVE (Common Vulnerabilities & Exposures) is a dictionary of known threats
CIA (Confidentiality, Integritv & Availability) is a security concept.
CERT (Computer Emergency Response Team) - the title speaks for itself!
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
A. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
B. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
C. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
D. Install endpoint management software on a systems
D. Install endpoint management software on a systems
Install endpoint management software on all systems is the correct answer because it offers a comprehensive solution for monitoring and managing workstations and servers. Endpoint management software provides visibility into unauthorized changes, detects unapproved software installations, and enforces security policies, making it the most effective choice for ensuring system integrity and compliance.
An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location. Which of the following is the VPN protecting?
A. Data in use
B. Data in transit
C. Geographic restrictions
D. Data sovereignty
B. Data in transit
Data in transit is the correct answer because a VPN is specifically designed to protect data as it moves between two locations.
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business-critical legacy system. Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
A.Exception
B. Segmentation
C. Risk transter
D. Compensating controls
D. Compensating controls
compensating controls are security measures that are implemented to mitigate risk when the primary controls are not feasible or sufficient. In this case, since the legacy system might have inherent vulnerabilities that cannot be fully addressed, the organization has implemented additional controls to reduce the risk.
Which of the following should a systems administrator use to ensure an easy deployment of resources within the cloud provider?
A. Software as a servIce
B. Infrastructure as code (IaC)
C. Internet of ThIngs
D. Software-defined networking
B. Infrastructure as code (IaC)
Infrastructure as Code (laC) is the correct answer because it provides the necessary tools and practices for automating and simplifving the deplovment of infrastructure resources in a cloud environment. laC enables efficient and repeatable resource provisioning. making it the most effective solution for the systems administrator’s needs.
A security consultant needs secure. remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access.
A. EAP
B. DHCP
C. IPSec
D. NAT
C. IPSec
IPsec Is Ideal for establishing a secure connection between a security consultant’s devIce and a clients network, ensuring contidentiality, integrity and authenticity of data transmitted over the connection.
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
NAT ( Network Address Translation)
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice. Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training?
A. Insider threat
B. Email phishing
C. Social engineering
D. Executive whaling
C. Social engineering
SocIal engineerIng Is a manipulation technique that exploits human error to gain private intormation, access, or valuables.
Executive Whaling is a type of phishing attack that specifically targets high-profile executives (also known as “whales”) to steal sensitive information.
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. Which of the following should the administrator do first?
A. Block access to cloud storage websites
B. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments
C. Apply classifications to the data.
D. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server
C. Apply classifications to the data.
Apply classitications to the data is the correct first step because it establishes a foundational understanding of what data is sensitive and needs protection. By classifying the data, the security administrator can ensure that subsequent DLP policies are effectively tailored to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data, while minimizing unnecessary restrictions on non-sensitive aata
An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period. Which of the following data policies is the administrator carrying out?
A Compromise
B. Retention
C. Analysis
D. Transter
E. Inventory
B. Retention
The administrator is tasked with ensuring that transaction data Is archived for the appropriate duration. This task involves adhering to retention schedules that dictate how long such data must be kept to meet compliance obligations.
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test. Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
A. SOW
В. ВРА
C. SLA
D. NDA
A. SOW
SOW: statement of work
BPA: business partnership agreement
SLA: service level agreement
NDA: no disclosure agreement
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team. Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO’s report?
A. Insider Threat
B. Hacktivist
C. Nation-state
D. Organized crime
D. Organized crime
Ransomware Is blackmailing for monetary gain which Is a CRIME. It also does not fit the criteria for any other threat actor listed.
Which of the following practices would be best to prevent an insider from introducing malicious code into a company’s development process?
A. Code scanning for vulnerabilities
B. Open-source component usage
C. Quality assurance testing
D. Peer review and approval
D. Peer review and approval
Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process.
Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
A Host-Based Firewall
B. System isolation
C. Least privilege
D. Application allow list
D. Application allow list
Ву using an application allow lIst, employees cannot inadvertently install or run unauthorized software, including malware, because only approved applications are permiiied to execute.
A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?
A. Gross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Jailbreaking
D. Side loading
C. Jailbreaking
Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Choose two.)
A. Fencing
B. Video surveillance
C. Badge access
D. Access Control Vestibule
E. Sign-in sheet
F. Sensor
C. Badge Access
D. Access Control Vestibule
An organization would like to store customer data on a separate part of the network that is not accessible to users on the main corporate network. Which of the following should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Segmentation
B. Isolation
C. Patching
D. Encryption
A. Segmentation
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into subnets to control access and traffic flow.
Which of the following is the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network?
A. Bastion Host
B. Unsecured Bluetooth
C. Unpatched OS
D. Removable devices
D. Removable devices
In an air-gapped network. which is physically Isolated from other networks. the most common data loss path would typicallv be through removable devices
Malware spread across a company’s network after an employee visited a compromised industry blog. Which of the following best describes this type of attack?
A. Impersonation
B. DisInformation
C. Watering-hole
D. Smishing
C. Watering-hole
A Watering-hole attack targets a specific group of people by compromising a website they frequently visit.
An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuit due to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution that will allow it to reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel access to the data center and monitoring of remote employee internet traffic. Which of the following will help achieve these objectives?
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees
B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet
C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic
D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees
SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) is a comprehensive networking and security approach that combines wide-area networking (WAN) capabilities with security features. It provides secure access to applications and data, including encrypted tunnel access to the data center while also offering monitoring capabilities for remote employee internet traffic. By implementing a SASE solution, the organization can reduce trattic on the VPN and internet circuit by routing trattic intelligently through the cloud, closer to the users. This approach helps optimize pertormance and security, addressing the scaling issues effectivelv.
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
A. Regulatory requirement
B. Organizational change
C. Self-assessment requirement
D. Service-level requirement
A. Regulatory requirement
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Confidentiality
D. Non-repudiation
C. Confidentiality
The primary goal of applying least privilege to HR files is to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access, aligning directly with the confidentiality aspect ot intormation security.
Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. The devIce has been moved trom a production environment to a test environment
B. The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
C. The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network
D. The device is moved to a ditTerent location in the enterprise
E. The device’s encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
F. The device is unable to receive authorized updates
E. The device’s encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
F. The device is unable to receive authorized updates
Encryption Level: If a device’s encryption level cannot meet the organization’s standards, it poses a significant security risk and should be decommissioned
Authorized Updates: If a device is unable to receive authorized updates, it becomes vulnerable to known exploits and cannot be maintained securely, thus it should also be decommissioned.
A company is required to perform a risk assessment on an annual basis. Which of the following types of risk assessments does this requirement describe?
A Continuous
B. Ad hoc
C. Recurring
D. One time
C. Recurring
Recurring risk assessments are those that are scheduled to take place at regular intervals, such as annually, semi-annually, or quarterly.
After a recent ransomware attack on a company’s system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
A. Compensating
B. Detective
C. Preventive
D. Corrective
B. Detective
Detective is the correct answer because reviewing log files after a ransomware attack is an example of a detective control. It is used to identify analvze, and understand security incidents post-occurrence, providing valuable information for future prevention and response strategies
