CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Acronyms 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a concept that provides insights into methods and tools that cybercriminals use to carry out attacks?

a. TTP
b. CVE
c. ATT&CK
d. CVSS

A

** Answer: TTP **

TTPs stands for tactics, techniques, and procedures. This is the term used by cybersecurity professionals to describe the behaviors, processes, actions, and strategies used by a threat actor to develop threats and engage in cyberattacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A dedicated security solution that filters, monitors, and blocks HTTP/HTTPS traffic between a web application and the Internet is referred to as:

a. UTM
b. NGFW
c. UEM
d. WAF

A

** Answer: WAF **

“Web Application Firewall,” which is a security tool designed to protect web applications by monitoring and filtering HTTP traffic, blocking malicious requests that could exploit vulnerabilities in the application, and safeguarding against attacks like SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other common web application threats; essentially acting as a protective layer between the web application and the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following solutions provides active network security breach response on an individual computer system?

a. NIDS
b. HIDS
c. NIPS
d. HIPS

A

** Answer: HIPS **

A host intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an approach to security that relies on third-party software tools to identify and prevent malicious activities. Host-based intrusion prevention systems are typically used to protect endpoint devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a risk assessment formula defining probable financial loss due to a risk over a one-year period?

a. ARO
b. SLE
c. ALE
d. SLA

A

** Answer: ALE **

Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE), which is the total loss we can expect from a risk in a one-year timeframe, and is calculated by multiplying SLE by ARO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A software technology designed to provide confidentiality for an entire data storage device is known as:

a. TPM
b. FDE
c. EFS
d. HSM

A

** Answer: FDE **

Full-disk encryption (FDE) is a security method for protecting sensitive data at the hardware level by encrypting all data on a disk drive. FDE automatically encrypts data and operating systems (OSes) to prevent unauthorized access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A high MTBF value indicates that a component or system provides low reliability and is more likely to fail.

True
False

A

** Answer: False **

Mean time between failures (MTBF) is a metric used in cybersecurity to measure how long a system can run before it fails. It’s a key indicator of a system’s reliability and availability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which part of the AAA security architecture deals with the verification of the identity of a person or process?

a. Accounting
b. Authentication
c. Auditing
d. Authorization

A

** Answer: Authentication **

In cybersecurity, “authentication” refers to the process of verifying a user’s identity before granting access to a system or network, essentially confirming “who you are” by requiring them to provide credentials like a password, biometric data, or a security token, thus acting as the first step in the security process to prevent unauthorized access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a routing protocol used in computer networks to determine the best path for routing data packets from one network node to another?

a. BGP
b. EIGRP
c. RIP
d. OSPF

A

** Answer: OSPF **

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol that can be used to secure networks from cyber attacks. OSPF Authentication is a security protocol that can be used with OSPF to protect communication between routers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to an industry standard for assessing and scoring the severity of computer system security vulnerabilities?

a. SIEM
b. CVSS
c. OSINT
d. SOAR

A

** Answer: CVSS **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a hardware or software solution providing secure remote access to networks and resources?

a. NAC
b. RDP
c. SSH
d. RAS

A

** Answer: RAS **

RAS can refer to resource access security or remote access servers in cybersecurity.

Resource access security (RAS)
- Prevents unauthorized access to resources by applications running in dependent regions
- Does not limit the scheduling of application programs
Remote access server (RAS)
- A combination of hardware and software that allows users to access a network or computer system remotely
- A central hub that connects remote users to a local area network (LAN)
- Allows users to access files, applications, and system resources remotely
- Used by IT administrators, managed service providers, and network admins to perform cybersecurity and network management tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the wireless technologies listed below are deprecated and should not be used due to their known vulnerabilities? (Select 2 answers)

a. WPS
b. WAP
c. WPA2
d. WAF
e. WEP

A

** Answer: WPS, WEP **

WEP:
- Outdated: Considered one of the first wireless encryption methods, WEP is now widely considered obsolete due to easily exploitable vulnerabilities in its encryption algorithm.
- Static Key Issue: Uses a single static key for all devices on the network, making it easy for hackers to crack once they intercept a few packets.
- Do not use: Cybersecurity experts strongly advise against using WEP on any network.

WPS:
- Easy Connection: Aims to simplify connecting devices to a network by allowing users to press a button on the router or enter a PIN.
- Vulnerability to Brute Force Attacks: The PIN-based authentication method can be easily cracked using brute force attacks, making it a security risk.
- Disable if possible: Most security professionals recommend disabling WPS on routers if the feature is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following answers refer(s) to SSDs? (Select all that apply)

a. Low performance
b. Relatively high device cost
c. Lower capacity in comparison to magnetic drives
d. High performance
e. Relatively low device cost
f. Higher capacity in comparison to magnetic drives
g. Lack of moving parts (takes advantage of memory chips instead of magnetic platters)

A

** Answer: b,c, g **

Solid-state drives (SSDs) can be vulnerable to cyber-attacks, but they can also be used to enhance data security

Security features
- Self-encrypting drives (SEDs): SSDs with SEDs have built-in hardware encryption capabilities.
- Sanitization features: SSDs can have features that allow users to sanitize data so it can’t be decrypted.
- Wear-leveling technology: SSDs use wear-leveling technology to make it difficult to recover deleted data.
- Access controls: SSDs can have access controls and authentication methods like password protection or biometric access.
- Self-defending SSDs: SSDs with self-defending capabilities can detect and respond to attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An SWG is a software component, or a hardware device designed to prevent unauthorized traffic from entering an internal network of an organization. An SWG implementation may include various security services, such as packet filtering, URL/content filtering, malware inspection, application controls, AUP enforcement, or DLP.

True
False

A

** Answer: True **

“Secure Web Gateway,” which is a security solution that monitors and filters internet traffic to protect users from malicious websites, malware, and other web-based threats by acting as a checkpoint between users and the internet, ensuring only safe content is accessed according to defined policies; essentially, it’s a key tool for enforcing corporate internet usage guidelines and safeguarding against online risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A type of forensic evidence that can be used to detect unauthorized access attempts or other malicious activities is called:

a. CVE
b. IoC
c. AIS
d. OSINT

A

** Answer: IoC **

Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are information about a specific security breach that can help security teams determine if an attack has taken place. This data can include details about the attack, such as the type of malware used, the IP addresses involved, and other technical details.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a remote access authentication protocol that periodically re-authenticates client at random intervals to prevent session hijacking?

a. EAP
b. CHAP
c. PAP
d. PEAP

A

** Answer: IoC **

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is a challenge-response identity authentication protocol. It depends on a combination of CHAP security credentials and a “shared secret” between the requestor (client) and the authenticator (server), and it does not expose a password.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A type of surveillance system comprising video cameras and monitors that enable continuous monitoring and recording of specific areas is commonly referred to as CCTV.

True
False

A

** Answer: True **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following answers refers to an ECC-based method for creating and verifying digital signatures?

a. DHE
b. ECDSA
c. HMAC
d.ECDHE

A

** Answer: ECDSA **

The Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA) is a Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) that uses keys derived from elliptic curve cryptography (ECC). It is a particularly efficient equation based on public key cryptography (PKC).

Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA) is a cryptographic method that creates digital signatures to verify the authenticity of digital messages. It’s a public key cryptography algorithm that’s used in blockchain technology and other applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the actions listed below can be taken by an IDS? (Select 2 answers)

a. Firewall reconfiguration
b. Closing down connection
c. Logging
d. Terminating process
e. Sending an alert

A

** Answer: c, e **

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported or collected centrally using a security information and event management system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FTPS is an extension to the SSH protocol and runs by default on port number 22.

a. True
b. False

A

** Answer: False **

In cyber security, the port typically associated with FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure) is port 990 when using an “implicit” connection, while for an “explicit” connection, it can use the standard FTP port 21, where the client explicitly requests to switch to a secure connection during the initial handshake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a dedicated transport mechanism for cyber threat information?

a. STIX
b. CVE
c. TAXII
d. CVSS

A

** Answer: TAXII **

Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII) is a protocol that allows organizations to share cyber threat information. TAXII is a community effort that uses a RESTful API to enable the exchange of information across organizations and products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a legacy symmetric-key block cipher encryption algorithm?

a. RC4
b. DES
c. RSA
d. DSA

A

** Answer: DES **

The DES (Data Encryption Standard) algorithm is a symmetric-key block cipher created in the early 1970s by an IBM team and adopted by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with a graphical interface for connecting to another networked host is known as:

a. VDI
b. RDP
c. SSH
d. VNC

A

** Answer: DES **

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft protocol that allows users to remotely access and control computers. It’s a useful tool for businesses, but it can also be a target for cyberattacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following acronyms refers to a comprehensive strategy and set of procedures designed to ensure that an organization can continue its critical operations and functions during and after a disruptive event?

a. DRP
b. CP
c. BCP
d. COOP

A

** Answer: BCP **

“Business Continuity Plan,” which refers to a set of strategies and procedures an organization develops to maintain critical operations even during a cyber attack or other significant disruption, allowing them to recover quickly and minimize damage to their business functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which type of Trojan enables unauthorized remote access to a compromised system?

a. APT
b. RAT
c. MaaS
d. PUP

A

** Answer: RAT **

A RAT, or Remote Access Trojan, is a type of malware that allows a hacker to remotely access and control a computer or server. RATs are a subcategory of Trojan malware.

Some RATs are specifically designed malware, but many legitimate network administration tools intended for legitimate network operations can also be used as RATs as they offer remote system control capabilities. RATs are a subcategory of Trojan malware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The term “AI” refers to computer systems and algorithms that can perform tasks typically requiring human intelligence, such as problem-solving, learning, and decision-making.

True
False

A

** Answer: True **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the algorithms listed below does not fall into the category of asymmetric encryption?

a. RSA
b. GPG
c. DSA
d. AES
e. DHE
f. ECDHE
g. PGP

A

** Answer: AES **

Advanced Encryption Standard,” which is a widely used, robust symmetric block cipher algorithm that encrypts data using a secret key, is considered a highly secure method for protecting sensitive information across various digital systems; essentially, it transforms data into an unintelligible format that can only be decrypted with the correct key, making it a crucial component in data security practices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A type of cyberattack focused on making a website, service, or network unavailable to users by overloading it with traffic or malicious requests is called:

a. SQLi
b. XSS
c. CSRF
d. DoS

A

** Answer: DoS **

A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is a cyberattack on devices, information systems, or other network resources that prevents legitimate users from accessing expected services and resources. This is usually accomplished by flooding the targeted host or network with traffic until the target can’t respond or crashes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In quantitative risk assessment, this term is used for estimating the likelihood of occurrence of a future threat.

a. ALE
b. SLA
c. ARO
d. SLE

A

** Answer: DoS **

“Annual Rate of Occurrence,” which is a metric used to estimate how often a specific security threat or risk is likely to happen within a given year, essentially representing the probability of an incident occurring based on historical data or expert judgment; it is a key component in calculating the overall risk level when combined with the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) to determine the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE).

29
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a cryptographic file generated by an entity requesting a digital certificate from a CA?

a. OID
b. CSR
c. DN
d. CRL

A

** Answer: CSR **

A CSR (Certificate Signing Request) is a specially formatted encrypted message sent from a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) digital certificate applicant to a certificate authority (CA). The CSR validates the information the CA requires to issue a certificate.

30
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a broad term that encompasses various control and automation systems used in industrial settings to control and monitor physical processes and machinery?

a. ICS
b. PLC
c. SCADA
d. HMI

A

** Answer: ICS **

“Industrial Control System,” refers to a specialized branch of security focused on protecting critical systems that monitor and control industrial processes, like those found in power plants, manufacturing facilities, and critical infrastructure, from cyber threats; essentially, safeguarding the operational technology (OT) used to run these systems.

31
Q

ACL, FACL, DAC, MAC, and RBAC are all access control mechanisms that can be used to manage user permissions and protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.

True
False

A

** Answer: True **

32
Q

A type of access control model that grants object owners the authority to determine access permissions is referred to as:

a. ACL
b. RBAC
c. DAC
d. MAC

A

** Answer: DAC **

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is a cybersecurity policy that gives the owner of a resource control over who can access it and what they can do with it. DAC is a flexible method that allows owners to grant or revoke permissions as needed.

33
Q

Which wireless technology enables the identification and tracking of tags attached to objects?

a. WTLS
b. GPS
c. RFID
d. NFC

A

** Answer: RFID **

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a technology that uses electromagnetic fields to identify objects. While RFID has many benefits, it can also be vulnerable to cyber attacks.

34
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a tunneling protocol that is often used in combination with IPsec to secure VPN connections?

a. GRE
b. L2TP
c. BGP
d. SSL

A

** Answer: L2TP **

Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by internet service providers (ISPs) to enable virtual private networks (VPNs). To ensure security and privacy, L2TP must rely on an encryption protocol to pass within the tunnel.

35
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing service model in which clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software?

a. SaaS
b. DaaS
c. PaaS
d. IaaS

A

** Answer: IaaS **

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing model that can be used to improve cybersecurity. IaaS can help organizations secure their digital cloud environment.

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis.

36
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a mobile device’s built-in functionality enabling the usage of locator applications?

a. WPS
b. GSM
c. SIM
d. GPS

A

** Answer: GPS **

GPS (Global Positioning System) is vulnerable to cyberattacks such as jamming and spoofing, which can have serious consequences.

How GPS vulnerabilities are a threat
– Transportation: GPS spoofing can disrupt flight paths, maritime navigation, and logistics operations.
– Financial services: GPS spoofing can disrupt network synchronization and timing, which can lead to errors and delays in data transmission.
– Military operations: GPS spoofing can mislead aircraft and ships.

How to mitigate GPS vulnerabilities
– Develop a Conformance Framework for GPS Receivers
– Support the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) as they develop PNT profiles
– Partner with equipment manufacturers, end users, and other federal agencies
– Develop a common lexicon that defines security expectations for the industry

37
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a unique 48-bit address assigned to every network adapter?

a. PIN
b. SSID
c. IP
d. MAC

A

** Answer: MAC **

Message Authentication Code (MAC)
– Verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message
– Ensures that a message is from the correct sender and has not been modified during transmission
– Uses a secret key and a cryptographic algorithm to produce a fixed-size output, also known as a tag or checksum
– Are commonly used to access the financial account

38
Q

In older, non-UEFI based PCs, the first sector of a storage drive containing information about partitions and a piece of executable code used to load the installed OS is called:

a. MBR
b. GPT
c. PXE
d. GUID

A

** Answer: MBR **

The master boot record (MBR) contains the information your computer needs about how your disk is organized, which area of your drive contains the operating system you want to use, and how to load that operating system. Some malware is designed to infect the MBR before your operating system and your antivirus software.

39
Q

In cloud computing, users on an on-premises network take advantage of a transit gateway to connect to:

a. WAN
b. VPC
c. SAN
d. VLAN

A

** Answer: VPC **

A virtual private cloud (VPC) is a secure, isolated private cloud hosted within a public cloud. VPC customers can run code, store data, host websites, and do anything else they could do in an ordinary private cloud, but the private cloud is hosted remotely by a public cloud provider.

40
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to DSA? (Select 3 answers)

a. Asymmetric algorithm
b. Used for the key exchange process
c. Symmetric algorithm
d. Provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation
e. Specifically designed for creating and verifying digital signatures
f. Used for encryption

A

** Answer: a, d, e **

  • Asymmetric algorithm
  • Provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation
  • Specifically designed for creating and verifying digital signatures
41
Q

Which of the following acronyms refer to office equipment that combines the functionality of multiple devices? (Select 2 answers)

a. MFD
b. IoT
c. MFP
d. PED
e. MFA

A

** Answer: a, c **

Multifunction devices (MFDs) can pose a security risk if they are not properly configured and secured. MFDs can store sensitive data like scanned documents and user credentials, making them a target for hackers.

MFP can refer to Multifunction Printer or Management Frame Protection, both of which can be relevant in cybersecurity.
- MFP is a security feature that protects unencrypted broadcast frames and management messages between wireless devices.

42
Q

Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the characteristics of ECDSA? (Select all that apply)

a. Provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation
b. Based on elliptic curve cryptography
c. Designed for data encryption
d. Specifically designed for creating and verifying digital signatures
e. More computationally efficient than other signature algorithms
f. Enables the key exchange process

A

** Answer: a, b, d, e **

  • Provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation
  • Based on elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)
  • Specifically designed for creating and verifying digital signatures
  • More computationally efficient than other signature algorithms
43
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a deprecated stream cipher used in some legacy applications, such as WEP?

a. RSA
b. DES
c. SSL
d. RC4

A

** Answer: RC4 **

Why it’s no longer used:
- RC4 has been found to have many vulnerabilities, making it insecure
- The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) recommends using more secure algorithms instead
- RC4 has been used in protocols that have led to data breaches and exposure of sensitive information

44
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a wireless network authentication protocol that enhances security by encapsulating the authentication process within an encrypted TLS tunnel?

a. PEAP
b. EAP
c. LEAP
d. RADIUS

A

** Answer: PEAP **

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP) is a security protocol commonly used to protect wireless networks.

PEAP can be vulnerable to attacks like denial of service, remote code execution, and information disclosure
Malicious actors can use specialized software to create a fraudulent access point and hijack network traffic

Alternatives EAP-TTLS/PAP, EAP-TLS, and EAP-SIM.

45
Q

A type of metric used to evaluate the profitability of an investment by comparing the return generated from the investment relative to its cost is referred to as:

a. ROA
b. ROI
c. ROS
d. ROC

A

** Answer: ROI **

A comprehensive ROI analysis considers factors such as the total cost of implementation, anticipated risk reduction, and the impact on operational efficiency. This evaluation process enables CISOs, IT Managers, and security teams to prioritize security solutions based on their expected return on investment.

Return on investment (ROI) in cybersecurity is a metric that measures the financial benefits of cybersecurity investments against their costs. It’s a way to evaluate the effectiveness of cybersecurity measures.

46
Q

Which of the following facilitates the enforcement of mobile device policies and procedures?

a. MFA
b. MMC
c. MDM
d. MFD

A

** Answer: MDM **

“Mobile Device Management,” which refers to a software solution that allows organizations to monitor, manage, and enforce security policies on employees’ mobile devices like smartphones, tablets, and laptops, essentially protecting corporate networks by securing the devices that access them; it enables companies to remotely control and secure employee devices, even if they are using their personal devices for work (Bring Your Own Device - BYOD).

47
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to an identifier used for objects in a PKI, such as CAs, digital certificates, and public key algorithms?

a. OID
b. DN
c. SAN
d. GUID

A

** Answer: OID **

Object Identifiers (OIDs) are unique identifiers used in cyber security to identify objects, processes, and protocols. OIDs are used in public key infrastructure (PKI) and networking.

How OIDs are structured
– OIDs are standardized and follow a hierarchical structure.
– OIDs are represented as a series of numbers separated by dots.
– OIDs are specified using an “x,y” naming convention, where “x” is a numeric value and “y” is a human-readable name.

48
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a solution designed to strengthen the security of session keys?

a. ECB
b. PFS
c. EFS
d. PFX

A

** Answer: PFS**

Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is a cryptographic technique that protects sensitive information by changing encryption keys frequently. It’s also known as forward secrecy (FS).

Benefits of PFS
– Limits data breaches: PFS reduces the risk of a severe data breach.
– Protects user privacy: PFS prevents sensitive information from being decrypted retroactively.
– Makes servers less attractive: PFS makes servers less attractive targets for attackers.

49
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a twisted-pair copper cabling type not surrounded by any shielding that would provide the protection against interference from outside sources?

a. STP
b. Coax
c. UTP
d. Twinax

A

** Answer: UTP**

“Unified Threat Protection,” which refers to a comprehensive security solution that combines multiple layers of protection like firewalls, intrusion detection/prevention systems, antivirus software, and content filtering to safeguard a network against a wide range of cyber threats, essentially acting as a single umbrella for security measures across a system.

50
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a technology that enables real-time audio and video communication between individuals or groups?

a. VPC
b. VTC
c. VoIP
d. VDI

A

** Answer: VTC**

“Video Teleconferencing,” refers to the practice of holding live, visual meetings remotely through software applications, and the potential security risks associated with transmitting sensitive information during these virtual meetings, which can be exploited by cyber attackers if not properly secured; essentially, it highlights the need to protect data shared during video calls from unauthorized access or interception.

51
Q

A dedicated data storage solution that combines multiple disk drive components into a single logical unit to increase volume size, performance, or reliability is known as:

a. SAN
b. RAID
c. NAS
d. JBOD

A

** Answer: RAID**

RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a data storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to improve performance, data protection, and fault tolerance. It’s used in cyber security to protect data and ensure high availability for critical systems.

52
Q

Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe XSRF? (Select 3 answers)

a. Exploits the trust a website has in the user’s web browser

b. A user is tricked by an attacker into submitting unauthorized web requests

c. Website executes attacker’s requests

d. Exploits the trust a user’s web browser has in a website

e. A malicious script is injected into a trusted website

f. User’s browser executes attacker’s script

A

** Answer: a, b, c**

“Cross-Site Request Forgery”, which is a web application vulnerability that allows attackers to trick a logged-in user into performing unintended actions on a trusted website without their knowledge, essentially hijacking their authenticated session to execute malicious commands on their behalf.

Prevention methods:
CSRF tokens: Implementing unique tokens in each form submission that are validated by the server to ensure the request originated from the expected source.
Same-Site cookie attribute: Setting the “SameSite” attribute on cookies to restrict their transmission to prevent cross-site requests.
User input validation: Carefully validating user input to detect potentially malicious requests.

53
Q

Which of the following answers can be used to describe the characteristics of an XSS attack? (Select 3 answers)

a. Exploits the trust a user’s web browser has in a website

b. A malicious script is injected into a trusted website

c. User’s browser executes attacker’s script

d. Exploits the trust a website has in the user’s web browser

e. A user is tricked by an attacker into submitting unauthorized web requests

f. Website executes attacker’s requests

A

** Answer: a, b, c**

A Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack in cyber security is a vulnerability in a web application that allows an attacker to inject malicious code (typically JavaScript) into a trusted website, which then gets executed in the victim user’s browser when they visit the site, potentially enabling the attacker to steal sensitive data like cookies, session tokens, or even manipulate the webpage content itself.

54
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to an encoding method (and a file format) for storing cryptographic objects such as X.509 certificates, CRLs, and private keys?

a. ECB
b. PEM
c. FIM
d. PFS

A

** Answer: PEM **

PEM can refer to Preemptive Exposure Management, Privileged Entitlements Management, or Privacy Enhanced Mail, which are all cybersecurity-related terms.

Privacy Enhanced Mail (PEM) files are a type of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) file used for keys and certificates.

55
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a centralized server that is used to distribute cryptographic keys and authenticate users and services within a computer network?

a. PKI
b. RAS
c. KDC
d. NAS

A

** Answer: KDC **

A key distribution center (KDC) is a network component that manages cryptographic keys and tickets to control user access and secure communication. KDCs are a vital part of network security and are used in many systems, including corporate networks, educational institutions, and cloud services.

56
Q

An AI feature that enables it to accomplish tasks based on training data without explicit human instructions is called:

a. AGI
b. ML
c. NN
d. LLM

A

** Answer: ML **

Machine learning (ML) is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that uses algorithms to analyze data and learn how to identify patterns. In cybersecurity, ML can help detect and respond to threats by analyzing data from network traffic, user behavior, and past security incidents.

57
Q

Which data packet type is specifically used to detect and prevent network loops in Ethernet networks?

a. MTU
b. Jumbo frame
c. BPDU
d. Magic packet

A

** Answer: BPDU **

Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) Guard is a network security feature that protects networks from malicious devices by blocking unauthorized BPDUs. BPDUs are data blocks used by the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to map and monitor a network’s topology.

58
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to a key exchange protocol that generates temporary keys for each session, providing forward secrecy to protect past and future communications?

a. PFS
b. SHA
c. PGP
d.DHE

A

** Answer: DHE **

Diffie-Hellman key exchange’s goal is to securely establish a channel to create and share a key for symmetric key algorithms. Generally, it’s used for encryption, password-authenticated key agreement, and forward security. Password-authenticated key agreements are used to prevent man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks.

59
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a method for managing infrastructure resources through scripts and templates?

a. IaaS
b. ML
c. IaC
d. SDN

A

** Answer: IaC **

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) security is a method for managing security risks when using code to manage cloud resources, applications, and other resources. IaC security is a key part of cybersecurity for organizations that use modern infrastructure management.

60
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of NIDS? (Select 3 answers)

a. Takes proactive measures to block or mitigate intrusion attempts

b. Does not take direct action to block or prevent attacks

c. Generates alerts and notifies security personnel or administrators when suspicious activity is detected

d. Monitors network traffic without direct involvement in traffic routing or packet modification

e. Can drop or reject network packets, terminate connections, or take other actions to stop the attack

f. Operates in an inline mode, actively intercepting and inspecting network traffic

A
61
Q

A process used by organizations to assess and evaluate the potential impact of disruptive incidents or disasters on their critical business functions and operations is referred to as:
BPA
BIA ( Missed)
SLE
BCP ( Your answer)

A
61
Q

Which of the following answers refers to a cybersecurity framework that combines network and security functions into a single cloud-based service?
SASE ( Missed)
SIEM
SWG ( Your answer)
SOAR

A
62
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to one of the last stages in SDLC?
UCD
QA
UAT ( Your answer)
AUT

A
63
Q

Which cipher mode transforms a block cipher into a stream cipher enabling the encryption of individual bits or bytes of data?
CFB ( Missed)
CBC ( Your answer)
GCM
ECB

A
64
Q
A
65
Q
A
66
Q
A
67
Q
A