CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Acronyms 2

Question 1

Which of the following acronyms refers to software or hardware-based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information?

a. IPS
b. DLP
c. IDS
d. DEP

Answer 1

** Answer: DLP **

Question 2

A rule-based access control mechanism implemented on routers, switches, and firewalls is referred to as:

a. ACL
b. CSR
c. MAC
d. AUP

Answer 2

** Answer: ACL **

Network Access Control List Meaning. A network access control list (ACL) is made up of rules that either allow access to a computer environment or deny it. In a way, an ACL is like a guest list at an exclusive club. Only those on the list are allowed in the doors.

Question 3

Which type of firmware performs initial hardware checks after the computer is powered on?

a. BIOS
b. POST
c. CMOS
d. PROM

Answer 3

** Answer: BIOS **

Question 4

Which of the answers listed below refers to a software technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management?

a. SDN
b. QoS
c. VDI
d. CDN

Answer 4

** Answer: SDN **

SDN (Software-Defined Networking) refers to a network architecture where the network infrastructure is controlled by a centralized software controller, enabling granular management of network traffic and security policies, providing enhanced visibility and the ability to react quickly to potential threats across the entire network, compared to traditional, hardware-based network management

Question 5

Which of the following is an MS Windows component that enables encryption of individual files?

a. EFS
b. NTFS
c. DFS
d. NFS

Answer 5

** Answer: EFS **

EFS is a user-based encryption control technique that enables users to control who can read the files on their system. The typical method of using EFS is to perform encryption at the folder level. This ensures that all files added to the encrypted folder are automatically encrypted.

Question 6

A system that uses public network (such as the Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is known as:

a. WWAN
b. VPN
c. PAN
d. VLAN

Answer 6

** Answer: VPN **

A virtual private network (VPN) is a security tool that encrypts data and masks IP addresses to protect users from cyber threats. VPNs are used to create secure connections between devices and networks, allowing users to access the internet and work remotely.

Question 7

Which of the answers listed below refers to a security standard introduced to address the vulnerabilities found in WEP?

a. TKIP
b. AES
c. WPA
d. CCMP

Answer 7

** Answer: WPA **

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a security protocol that protects wireless networks from unauthorized access. It uses encryption and authentication to ensure that only authorized users can access the network

Question 8

The term “KEK” refers to a type of cryptographic key often used in key management systems to add an additional layer of security when encrypting and decrypting other cryptographic keys.

True
False

Answer 8

** Answer: True **

Question 9

POP3 is used for:

a. Name resolution
b. Sending email messages
c. File exchange
d. Email retrieval

Answer 9

** Answer: Email retrieval **

In cybersecurity, POP3 (Post Office Protocol Version 3) refers to an email retrieval protocol that can be considered a security risk due to its inherent vulnerabilities, primarily because it often transmits data like usernames and passwords in plain text, making it susceptible to eavesdropping and interception by malicious actors if not properly secured with encryption like POP3S (POP3 over SSL/TLS).

Question 10

Which cloud service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?

a. XaaS
b. SaaS
c. PaaS
d. IaaS

Answer 10

** Answer: PaaS **

Platform as a Service (PaaS) security is the protection of applications, data, and infrastructure on a PaaS platform. It involves preventing unauthorized access, data breaches, and other cyber threats.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is a complete, scalable development and deployment environment that is sold as a subscription service.

Question 11

Which of the following answers refers to a cryptographic hash function that has been widely used in the past but is now considered deprecated for security-sensitive applications due to known vulnerabilities?

a. MD5
b. SHA
c. CRC
d. HMAC

Answer 11

** Answer: MD5 **

What is MD5? MD5 (message-digest algorithm) is a cryptographic protocol used for authenticating messages as well as content verification and digital signatures. MD5 is based on a hash function that verifies that a file you sent matches the file received by the person you sent it to.

Why MD5 is not recommended for security
- MD5 has been found to have many vulnerabilities
- MD5-hashed passwords are susceptible to cracking techniques
- Stronger hash functions like SHA-256 are available

Question 12

Which of the answers listed below refers to a suite of protocols and technologies providing encryption, authentication, and data integrity for network traffic?

a. TLS
b. SSH
c. IPsec
d. VPN

Answer 12

** Answer: IPsec **

IPSec is a set of communication rules or protocols for setting up secure connections over a network. Internet Protocol (IP) is the common standard that determines how data travels over the internet. IPSec adds encryption and authentication to make the protocol more secure.

Question 13

A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses is called:

a. DNS
b. SNMP
c. NAT
d. DHCP

Answer 13

** Answer: DHCP **

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network. It’s a fundamental part of network administration and is used in most modern networks.

Question 14

Which of the following regulations protects the privacy and personal data of the EU citizens?

a. PHI
b. HIPAA
c. PCI DSS
d. GDPR

Answer 14

** Answer: GDPR **

In cybersecurity, GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) refers to a strict European Union law that mandates organizations to implement robust security measures to protect the personal data of individuals within the EU, requiring them to handle data responsibly and with appropriate technical and organizational controls to prevent breaches and unauthorized access, essentially setting a high standard for data privacy protection within the cybersecurity landscape; non-compliance can result in significant fines.

Question 15

Which of the answers listed below refers to a mechanical data storage medium type that relies on magnetic plates and moving parts for data storage and retrieval?

a. RAM
b. HDD
c. NVMe
d. SSD

Answer 15

** Answer: HDD **

In cybersecurity, “HDD” stands for “Hard Disk Drive,” which refers to the physical storage device within a computer where sensitive data is stored, and in the context of security, the primary concern is protecting that data through encryption methods like “full disk encryption” to prevent unauthorized access if the device is compromised by a hacker.

Question 16

Which of the following terms refers to an environmental control system?

a. SCADA
b. HIPS
c. TEMPEST
d. HVAC

Answer 16

** Answer: HVAC **

HVAC cybersecurity protects HVAC systems from cyber threats by implementing security measures to prevent unauthorized access. This is important because HVAC systems are often connected to critical infrastructure and can be used as an entry point for hackers.

Question 17

A type of network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is referred to as:

a. PAN
b. LAN
c. MAN
d. WAN

Answer 17

** Answer: LAN **

Local Area Network (LAN) security is a set of practices and technologies that protect a network’s data, systems, and resources from cyber threats. LAN security aims to prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, and other digital threats.

Question 18

Which of the solutions listed below hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?

a. QoS
b. DHCP
c. NAT
d. DNS

Answer 18

** Answer: NAT **

In cyber security, “NAT” stands for “Network Address Translation,” which is a technology that allows multiple devices on a private network to access the internet using a single public IP address, essentially hiding the internal network from the outside world and providing an added layer of security by masking internal IP addresses.

Question 19

Which of the following answers refers to a shared secret authentication method used in WPA, WPA2, and EAP?

a. PSK
b. 802.1X
c. SAE
d. TKIP

Answer 19

** Answer: PSK **

A Pre-Shared Key (PSK) is a secret password or code that is shared between two or more parties before communication. It’s used in cybersecurity to secure wireless networks and other communication channels.

WPA2-PSK (Pre-Shared Key) is a specific authentication method used within the WPA2 framework. It utilizes a pre-shared key, also known as a passphrase or password, that is shared among the network administrator and the users of the network.

Question 20

Copies of lost private encryption keys can be retrieved from a key escrow by RAs (i.e., individuals with access to key database and permission level allowing them to extract keys from escrow).

True
False

Answer 20

** Answer: True **

Question 21

Which type of unsolicited messaging relies on text-based communication?

a. VAM
b. SPIM
c. JMS
d. SPIT

Answer 21

** Answer: SPIM **

SPIM stands for Spam over Instant Messaging and is a type of cyber security threat that involves sending unwanted messages through instant messaging apps. SPIM messages are often intrusive and may contain spyware or viruses.

Question 22

Which of the answers listed below refers to a secure replacement for Telnet?

a. CHAP
b. FTP
c. SNMP
d. SSH

Answer 22

** Answer: SSH **

Question 23

Which of the following answers refers to a family of cryptographic hash functions used in a variety of security applications, including digital signatures, password storage, secure communications, and data integrity verification?

a. RSA
b. IDEA
c. AES
d. SHA

Answer 23

** Answer: SHA **

SHA stands for Secure Hash Algorithm, which is a family of cryptographic functions that are used to hash data and certificate files. SHA is a key tool in cybersecurity, helping to ensure data integrity and the security of digital communication.

Question 24

In the AAA security architecture, the process of granting or denying access to resources is known as:

a. Auditing
b. Authentication
c. Authorization
d. Accounting

Answer 24

** Answer: Authorization **

In cybersecurity, “authorization” refers to the process of determining whether a verified user (after authentication) has the permission to access a specific resource or perform a particular action within a system, essentially deciding what a user can do once their identity is confirmed; it’s about granting or denying access based on their assigned privileges

Question 25

Which of the terms listed below applies to the authentication process?

a. MFA
b. MMC
c. MDM
d. MFD

Answer 25

** Answer: MFA **

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a multi-step account login process that requires users to enter more information than just a password. For example, along with the password, users might be asked to enter a code sent to their email, answer a secret question, or scan a fingerprint.

Question 26

Which of the following answers refer to NIPS? (Select 3 answers)

a. Takes proactive measures to block or mitigate intrusion attempts.
b. Generates alerts and notifies security personnel or administrators when suspicious activity is detected.
c. Operates in an inline mode, actively intercepting and inspecting network traffic.
d. Monitors network traffic without direct involvement in traffic routing or packet modification.
e. Does not take direct action to block or prevent attacks.
f. It can drop or reject network packets, terminate connections, or take other actions to stop the attack.

Answer 26

** Answer: a, b, c, f **

A network intrusion protection system (NIPS) is an umbrella term for a combination of hardware and software systems that protect computer networks from unauthorized access and malicious activity.

• Takes proactive measures to block or mitigate intrusion attempts.
• Generates alerts and notifies security personnel or administrators when suspicious activity is detected
• Operates in an inline mode, actively intercepting and inspecting network traffic
• It can drop or reject network packets, terminate connections, or take other actions to stop the attack

Question 27

Which of the terms listed below refers to threat intelligence gathered from publicly available sources?

a. IoC
b. OSINT
c. RFC
d. CVE/NVD

Answer 27

** Answer: OSINT **

Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT) is a cyber security technique that involves gathering and analyzing publicly available information to help with security assessments and threat analysis. OSINT can be used to: Prevent cyber attacks, Disrupt criminal activities, Apprehend offenders, and Protect the public.

OSINT can be used by cyber defenders, law enforcement, and federal investigators.

Question 28

Which of the following answers refers to a common PnP interface that allows a PC to communicate with peripherals and other devices?

a. IDE
b. PCIe
c. USB
d. eSATA

Answer 28

** Answer: USB **

In cybersecurity, “USB” refers to a Universal Serial Bus, which is a common connection point on computers that can be exploited by hackers to spread malware through removable drives like flash drives, making them a significant security concern due to the ease of transferring malicious code when a user plugs in an infected USB stick without caution; essentially acting as a vector for cyberattacks.

Question 29

Which of the solutions listed below allows to check whether a digital certificate has been revoked?

a. OCR
b. CRL
c. CSR
d. OSPF

Answer 29

** Answer: CRL **

CRL stands for Certificate Revocation List, which is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked by a Certificate Authority (CA). CRLs are used in cybersecurity to indicate which certificates are no longer valid and should not be trusted.

Question 30

A type of computer security solution that allows to define and enforce network access policies is called:

a. NAT
b. ACL
c. NAC
d. DLP

Answer 30

** Answer: CRL **

Network access control (NAC) solutions enable an organization to restrict unauthorized or non-compliant devices and users from accessing the corporate network. This helps to ensure that all devices connected to the corporate network are compliant with corporate security policies.

Question 31

Which of the following solutions alleviates the problem of depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address?

a. DNS
b. APIPA
c. NAT
d. DHCP

Answer 31

** Answer: NAT **

NAT stands for network address translation. It’s a way to map multiple private addresses inside a local network to a public IP address before transferring the information onto the internet. Organizations that want multiple devices to employ a single IP address use NAT, as do most home routers.

Question 32

Which of the answers listed below refers to an individual or role responsible for overseeing and ensuring compliance with data protection laws and policies within an organization?

a. CTO
b. DPO
c. CIO
d. CSO

Answer 32

** Answer: DPO **

Data protection officers (DPOs) are independent data protection experts who are responsible for monitoring an organization’s compliance, informing it of and advising on its data protection obligations, and acting as a contact point for data subjects and the relevant supervisory authority.

Question 33

Which of the following terms refers to an agreement that specifies performance requirements for a vendor?

a. MSA
b. SLA
c. MOU
d. SOW

Answer 33

** Answer: SLA **

Service level agreements (SLAs) are contractual provisions that detail the duties of service providers and establish precise expectations concerning cybersecurity, including vulnerability management and data confidentiality requirements.

SLA stands for service level agreement. It refers to a document that outlines a commitment between a service provider and a client, including details of the service, the standards the provider must adhere to, and the metrics to measure the performance. Typically, it is IT companies that use service-level agreements.

Question 34

A legal contract between the holder of confidential information and another person to whom that information is disclosed restricting that other person from disclosing the confidential information to any other party is referred to as:

a. ISA
b. NDA
c. BPA
d. SLA

Answer 34

** Answer: NDA **

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legal contract that protects sensitive information from being disclosed to third parties in the context of cyber security. NDAs are commonly used to protect business information, personal data, and production processes.

Question 35

Which of the answers listed below refers to a protocol designed to secure data transmitted over WLANs?

a. SCP
b. IPsec
c. SSH
d. WTLS

Answer 35

** Answer: WTLS **

Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) is a security level for the Wireless Application Protocol (WAP), specifically for the applications that use WAP. It is based on Transport Layer Security (TLS) v1.

Question 36

A less formal document outlining mutual goals and cooperation established between two or more parties is referred to as:

a. MOA
b. SOW
c. MOU
d. MSA

Answer 36

** Answer: MOU **

In cybersecurity, an “MOU” (Memorandum of Understanding) is a non-binding document outlining general areas of cooperation and shared goals between parties, while an “MOA” (Memorandum of Agreement) is a more detailed, legally binding agreement that specifies specific responsibilities and actions each party must take to achieve those goals, often including details like timelines and deliverables; essentially, an MOU is a preliminary agreement to collaborate, while an MOA formalizes the terms of that collaboration.

Question 37

Which of the following answers refers to a global standard development organization composed of different national standards bodies?

a. NIST
b. ISO
c. IEEE
d. ANSI

Answer 37

** Answer: ISO **

ISO stands for International Organization for Standardization, which is a global organization that creates standards for cybersecurity and information security. The ISO/IEC 27001 standard is one of the most well-known standards for information security management systems (ISMS).

Question 38

The term “SD-WAN” refers to a network technology that uses software to manage and optimize network connections that extend over large geographic areas.

True
False

Answer 38

** Answer: True **

Software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN) security is a set of protocols and measures that protect the data and integrity of an SD-WAN network. SD-WAN security is important because it helps organizations adapt to changing business demands and protect their data from cyber threats.

Question 39

Which of the answers listed below refers to a dedicated programming language used in database management?

a. PHP
b. C
c. SQL
d. JS

Answer 39

** Answer: SQL **

Question 40

Which of the following devices fall(s) into the category of PEDs? (Select all that apply)

a. Smartphone
b. Tablet
c. Desktop
d. Mainframe

Answer 40

** Answer: Smartphone, Tablet**

In cybersecurity, “PEDs” stands for “Portable Electronic Devices,” referring to any electronic device that can be easily carried around and used on-the-go, like smartphones, laptops, tablets, and smartwatches, which can pose security risks due to their potential to access sensitive data and connect to networks while being highly portable and often less strictly managed than traditional desktop computers; therefore, managing and securing PEDs is a crucial aspect of cybersecurity strategy.

Question 41

Which of the terms listed below is used to describe an average time required to repair a failed component or device?

a. MTTF
b. RPO
c. MTTR
d. MTBF

Answer 41

** Answer: MTTR **

In cybersecurity, MTTR stands for “Mean Time to Resolve,” which refers to the average amount of time it takes for a security team to detect and fully resolve a cyber security incident, including the time spent diagnosing the issue and implementing remediation steps; essentially measuring the efficiency of an organization’s incident response process.

Question 42

Which of the following answers refers to a firewall type that improves upon first- and second-generation firewalls by offering additional features, such as more in-depth inspection of network traffic and application-level inspection?

a. IDS
b. Packet filter
c. NGFW
d. Stateful firewall

Answer 42

** Answer: NGFW **

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a security appliance that processes network traffic and applies rules to block potentially dangerous traffic. NGFWs evolve and expand upon the capabilities of traditional firewalls. They do all that firewalls do, but more powerfully and with additional features.

Question 43

Which protocol enables secure, real-time delivery of audio and video over an IP network?

a. S/MIME
b. RTP
c. SIP
d. SRTP

Answer 43

** Answer: SRTP **

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a cybersecurity protocol that protects real-time communication by encrypting audio and video data. SRTP is an extension of the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) and is primarily used for Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) communications

Question 44

Which of the answers listed below refers to a network security technology designed to monitor, detect, and mitigate unauthorized access, security threats, and suspicious activities in WLANs?

a. WIPS
b. NIDS
c. NIPS
d. WIDS

Answer 44

** Answer: WIPS **

A Wireless Intrusion Detection System (WIDS) is a security tool that monitors wireless networks for suspicious activity. WIDS systems use sensors and a central controller to detect and identify potential security breaches.

Question 45

Which of the following answers refers to a method for creating and verifying digital signatures?

a. DHE
b. AES
c. DSA
d. SHA

Answer 45

** Answer: DSA **

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) is a public-key cryptography algorithm used to create and verify digital signatures. It’s a Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS).

The Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) is a FIPS (Federal Information Processing Standard) and public-key cryptosystem that’s used for digital signatures. It utilizes the modular exponentiation and the discrete logarithm problem to generate 2 digital signatures.

Question 46

A type of legally binding contract that establishes the foundational terms and conditions governing future agreements between two parties is known as:

a. MOU
b. SLA
c. MSA
d. SOW

Answer 46

** Answer: MSA **

In cybersecurity, “MSA” stands for “Master Service Agreement,” which is a legal contract that outlines the terms and conditions between a service provider and a client, specifically regarding cybersecurity requirements like data protection, incident response procedures, and risk assessments, ensuring both parties understand their security responsibilities within the agreement.

Question 47

Which part of IPsec provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality?

a. SPD
b. PFS
c. AH
d. ESP

Answer 47

** Answer: ESP **

The Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol provides data confidentiality, and also optionally provides data origin authentication, data integrity checking, and replay protection.

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a protocol that encrypts and authenticates data packets to protect them from unauthorized access. It’s part of the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) suite of protocols.

Question 48

Which of the answers listed below refers to a multi-protocol authentication framework frequently used in 802.11 networks and point-to-point connections?

a. PAP
b. MS-CHAP
c. EAP
d. CHAP

Answer 48

** Answer: EAP **

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a framework that provides secure network access by allowing for a variety of authentication methods. It’s a common standard in cybersecurity that helps prevent unauthorized access to networks.

The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework that allows for the use of different authentication methods for secure network access technologies

Question 49

Which of the following acronyms represents evidence that helps cybersecurity professionals detect potential security incidents?

a. APT
b. IoC
c. ATT&CK
d. EDR

Answer 49

** Answer: IoC **

In cybersecurity, “IOC” stands for “Indicator of Compromise,” which refers to any piece of data or behavior that suggests a system or network has been breached or compromised by a cyber attack, essentially acting as a clue that malicious activity has occurred; examples include unusual network traffic, suspicious IP addresses, modified file hashes, or abnormal user logins from unexpected locations.

During a cybersecurity incident, indicators of compromise (IoC) are clues and evidence of a data breach. These digital breadcrumbs can reveal not just that an attack has occurred, but often, what tools were used in the attack and who’s behind them.

Question 50

For a wireless client to be able to connect to a network, the security type (e.g., WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3) and encryption type (e.g., TKIP or AES) settings on the connecting host must match the corresponding wireless security settings on a WAP.

True
False

Answer 50

** Answer: True **

Question 51

Which of the answers listed below refers to an obsolete authentication protocol that sends passwords in cleartext?

a. PAP
b. CHAP
c. EAP
d. MS-CHAP

Answer 51

** Answer: PAP **

PAP stands for Password Authentication Protocol, which is a simple, password-based authentication method used in cybersecurity. It’s an internet standard that’s often used in older systems or conjunction with other security measures.

Question 52

Which of the following answers refers to an internal telephone exchange or switching system implemented in a business or office?

a. POTS
b. VoIP
c. PBX
d. PSTN

Answer 52

** Answer: PBX **

“PBX” stands for “Private Branch Exchange,” referring to a business telephone system that manages internal and external calls, but when not properly secured, can be a vulnerable point for cyberattacks, particularly susceptible to toll fraud where hackers can route calls to expensive numbers, resulting in significant financial losses for the business; therefore, securing a PBX system is crucial to protect sensitive communication data and prevent unauthorized access.

Question 53

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a maximum tolerable period of time required for restoring business functions after a failure or disaster?

a. SLA
b. RTO
c. AUP
d. RPO

Answer 53

** Answer: RTO **

In cybersecurity, as well as in other IT disaster recovery situations, Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is that maximum acceptable period a critical system or important business service can be down after a cyber attack such as ransomware. It’s essentially a time target for getting things back up and running

Question 54

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city is called:

a. PAN
b. SAN
c. MAN
d. CAN

Answer 54

** Answer: MAN **

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that connects computers within a metropolitan area, which could be a single large city, multiple cities and towns, or any given large area with multiple buildings. A MAN is larger than a local area network (LAN) but smaller than a wide area network (WAN).

Question 55

Which cryptographic protocol is designed to provide secure communications over a computer network and is the successor to SSL?

a. WEP
b. CCMP
c. TLS
d. AES

Answer 55

** Answer: TLS **

Question 56

Which of the following answers refers to an embedded microcontroller used for secure boot, disk encryption, and system integrity verification?

a. TPM
b. SoC
c. UEFI
d. HSM

Answer 56

** Answer: TPM **

TPM (Trusted Platform Module) is a computer chip (microcontroller) that can securely store artifacts used to authenticate the platform (your PC or laptop). These artifacts can include passwords, certificates, or encryption keys.

A “TPM” stands for “Trusted Platform Module,” which is a specialized chip embedded within a computer’s motherboard designed to securely store cryptographic keys used for encryption and decryption, essentially enhancing system security by ensuring the authenticity of the operating system and firmware and protecting against unauthorized access to data by storing encryption keys in a tamper-resistant manner.

Question 57

Which of the answers listed below refer to IMAP? (Select 2 answers)

a. Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3
b. Serves the same function as POP3
c. Enables sending email messages from client devices
d. Offers less functions than POP3
e. Enables email exchange between mail servers

Answer 57

** Answer: a, b **

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a protocol that allows users to access and manage their email messages on a mail server. IMAP can be vulnerable to cyber security attacks if it’s not configured properly.

• Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3
• Serves the same function as POP3

Question 58

Which cryptographic solution would be best suited for low-power devices, such as IoT devices, embedded systems, and mobile devices?

a. ECC
b. DES
c. RSA
d. AES

Answer 58

** Answer: ECC **

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) is a key-based technique for encrypting data. ECC focuses on pairs of public and private keys for decryption and web traffic encryption.

Question 59

The term “ASLR” refers to a technique used in modern OSs to enhance:

a. Data redundancy
b. System security
c. Performance
d. Storage capacity

Answer 59

** Answer: System security **

Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR) is a security technique that randomizes the memory addresses of programs and libraries. This makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities in memory.

Question 60

Which of the following solutions provide the AAA functionality? (Select 2 answers)

a. CHAP
b. TACACS+
c. PAP
d. RADIUS
e. MS-CHAP

Answer 60

** Answer: TACACS+ , RADIUS **

TACACS, which stands for Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System, is a network protocol that was developed by Cisco. TACACS+ is an improved version of the original TACACS protocol, which is now popularly used in the industry for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) in network security

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that authorizes and authenticates users who access a remote network. A protocol is a collection of rules that control how something communicates or operates

Question 61

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object?

a. CRL
b. NAT
c. BCP
d. ACL

Answer 61

** Answer: ACL **

Network Access Control List Meaning. A network access control list (ACL) is made up of rules that either allow access to a computer environment or deny it. In a way, an ACL is like a guest list at an exclusive club. Only those on the list are allowed in the doors.

Question 62

A network admin can ping a remote host by its IP address, but not by its domain name. Which of the following is the most probable source of this problem?

a. ICMP
b. DNS
c. HTTP
d. DHCP

Answer 62

** Answer: DNS **

Question 63

The role of a RA in PKI is to: (Select 2 answers)

a. Accept requests for digital certificates
b. Validate digital certificates
c. Authenticate the entity making the request
d. Provide backup source for cryptographic keys
e. Issue digital certificates

Answer 63

** Answer: a, c **

• Accept requests for digital certificates
• Authenticate the entity making the request

Risk Assessment (RA)
- A formal process for identifying and quantifying risks
- Involves assessing the likelihood of events, the consequences of those events, and the potential losses
- Can apply to natural events, hardware failures, software failures, and human error

Question 64

Which of the answers listed below refers to a generic term used to identify any resource?

• OUI
• URI
• OID
• URL

Answer 64

** Answer: URI **

“Uniform Resource Identifier,” which is essentially a unique string of characters used to identify a resource on the internet, like a webpage, file, or other online content; it acts as a kind of address to access that resource, with the most common type of URI being a URL (Uniform Resource Locator) which specifies the location of a web page on the internet.

Question 65

Which of the following answers refers to a framework widely used for enabling secure third-party access to user accounts?

a. SSO
b. OAuth
c. MFA
d. SAML

Answer 65

** Answer: OAuth **

OAuth, or open authorization, is a widely adopted authorization framework that allows you to consent to an application interacting with another on your behalf without having to reveal your password.

OAuth is a technological standard that allows you to authorize one app or service to sign in to another without divulging private information, such as passwords. If you’ve ever received a message such as, “Sign in with Facebook?” or “Allow this application to access your account?” you’ve seen OAuth in action.

Question 66

An IV is a random or pseudorandom value used in cryptography to ensure that the same plaintext input does not produce the same ciphertext output, even when the same encryption key is used. The IV is typically used with encryption algorithms in block cipher modes to enhance security by introducing randomness to the encryption process.

True
False

Answer 66

** Answer: True **

In cybersecurity, IV stands for initialization vector, which is a binary vector that’s used to start the encryption of a plaintext block sequence. IVs are used to make data more resistant to hacking and to increase security.

Question 67

Which of the answers listed below refers to a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to inject malicious code into input fields, such as search bars or login forms, to execute unauthorized commands on a database?

a. RCE
b. SQLi
c. XSS
d. CSRF

Answer 67

** Answer: SQLi **

SQL injection, also known as SQLI, is a common attack vector that uses malicious SQL code for backend database manipulation to access information that was not intended to be displayed. This information may include any number of items, including sensitive company data, user lists, or private customer details.

Question 68

What is the name of a mobile device deployment model in which employees select devices for work-related tasks from a company-approved device list?

a. VDI
b. CYOD
c. BYOD
d. COPE

Answer 68

** Answer: CYOD **

CYOD (choose your own device) is an employee provisioning model in which an organization allows people to select the mobile devices they would like to use, typically from a limited number of options.

Question 69

Which of the following terms is used to describe sophisticated and prolonged cyberattacks often carried out by well-funded and organized groups, such as nation-states?

a. MitM
b. APT
c. XSRF
d. DDoS

Answer 69

** Answer: APT **

An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a broad term used to describe an attack campaign in which an intruder, or team of intruders, establishes an illicit, long-term presence on a network to mine highly sensitive data.

Question 70

What is STIX?

a. Vulnerability database
b. Common language for describing cyber threat information
c. US government initiative for real-time sharing of cyber threat indicators
d. Transport mechanism for cyber threat information

Answer 70

** Answer: Common language for describing cyber threat information **

STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized language used to describe cyber threat information. It helps to share, store, and analyze threat information consistently.