CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Acronyms

Question 1

A network protocol used for secure file transfer over SSH is known as:

a. TFTP
b. SFTP
c. SCP
d. FTPS

Answer 1

Answer: SFTP

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a network protocol that uses Secure Shell (SSH) to securely transfer files between computers. SFTP is a key tool for data protection and cyber security, as it encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access.

Question 2

Which of the answers listed below refers to a virtualization platform for delivering virtual desktops to a community of users?

a. VDE
b. VNC
c. VDI
d. RDP

Answer 2

Answer: C

In cyber security, “VDI” stands for “Virtual Desktop Infrastructure,” which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop environment remotely from any device, essentially providing a secure way to access company data and applications from anywhere, without the need to physically be at their office workstation; this is often used for remote work scenarios and can enhance security by centralizing data storage and managing access to virtual desktops instead of individual physical machines.

Question 3

A solution that simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by allowing non-technical users to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network is called:

a. WPA
b. WPS
c. WEP
d. WAP

Answer 3

Answer: WPS

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a network security feature that allows users to connect devices to a secure wireless network. However, WPS can be vulnerable to brute-force attacks, which can allow unauthorized access to a network.

Question 4

Which of the following answers refers to a text-based command interpreter and scripting language for Unix-like operating systems?

a. CLI
b. JS
c. Bash
d. cmd.exe

Answer 4

Answer: Bash

Question 5

A networking hardware device connecting wireless devices to a wired network is referred to as:

a. WAF
b. AP
c.RAS
d. NIC

Answer 5

**Answer: AP **

In cybersecurity, AP stands for access point, a networking device that connects wireless devices to a wired network. Access points are also known as wireless access points (WAPs) or Wi-Fi routers

Question 6

Which of the answers listed below refers to a mobile device deployment model where organizations provide and own the devices while allowing their personal use?

a. BYOD
b. COPE
c. VDI
d. CYOD

Answer 6

Answer: COPE

COPE (corporate-owned personally enabled) is a business model in which an organization provides its employees with mobile computing devices and allows the employees to use them as if they were personally owned notebook computers, tablets, or smartphones.

Question 7

Which of the following answers refers to a non-cryptographic hash function often used for error-checking purposes?

a. MD5
b. CRC
c. SHA
d. RIPEMD

Answer 7

Answer: CRC

Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) is a technique used in cybersecurity to detect errors in data transmission. It’s a common method for ensuring that data has not been altered during transmission.

Question 8

What is the name of a network layer protocol that specifies the format of packets and addressing scheme in network communications?

a.UDP
b.IP
c. TCP
d. NetBIOS

Answer 8

Answer:IP

Question 9

The term “P2P” refers to a centralized network architecture in which each participant in the network can act both as a client and a server, enabling direct communication and file sharing between individual users without the need for a central server or intermediary.

a. True
b. False

Answer 9

** Answer: False **

Question 10

Which of the answers listed below refers to a set of standards and specifications that define various cryptographic techniques, including formats for public keys, private keys, digital signatures, and digital certificates?

a. ITIL
b. RFC
c. PKCS
d. ISO/IEC

Answer 10

** Answer: PKCS **

Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS) are a set of protocols that help secure the exchange of information online. They are used in cybersecurity to protect data from digital threats and attacks.

Question 11

Which of the following answers refers to a tunneling point-to-point protocol?

a. EAP
b. PPTP
c. MPLS
d. PPP

Answer 11

** Answer: PPTP **

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a network protocol that is no longer considered secure. It has many security vulnerabilities, including weak encryption and authentication, and is not recommended for use unless security is not a concern.

Question 12

Which of the answers listed below refers to a logical operation commonly used in the context of cybersecurity, particularly in encryption and obfuscation techniques?

a. AND
b. OR
c. NOT
d. XOR

Answer 12

** Answer: XOR **

XOR (eXclusive OR) is a Boolean logic operation used in cybersecurity to encrypt and decrypt data. It’s a fundamental technique in cryptographic algorithms that protects sensitive information from unauthorized access.

Question 13

Which of the following answers refers to a public-key cryptosystem used for digital signatures, secure key exchange, and encryption?

a. DHE
b. RSA
c. AES
d. DSA

Answer 13

** Answer: RSA **

RSA is a popular and secure cryptographic algorithm that encrypts and decrypts data. It provides a secure method for transmitting sensitive data over the Internet. While RSA has some vulnerabilities, it is still utilized for various applications, like digital signatures to authenticate the source of a message.

Question 14

An authentication mechanism that generates one-time passwords based on the current time and a secret key is known as:

a. OAuth
b. TOTP
c. RADIUS
d. HOTP

Answer 14

** Answer: TOTP **

TOTP stands for Time-based One-Time Passwords and is a common form of two-factor authentication (2FA). Unique numeric passwords are generated with a standardized algorithm that uses the current time as an input.

Question 15

Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of maintaining the integrity of files and data?

a. DLP
b. SIEM
c. FIM
d. SHA

Answer 15

** Answer: FIM **

In cybersecurity, “FIM” stands for “File Integrity Monitoring,” which refers to a security process that continuously checks and verifies the integrity of critical system files, like operating system files, database files, and application files, to detect if they have been tampered with or corrupted, essentially identifying unauthorized changes by comparing them to a trusted baseline.

Question 16

Which of the following provides a countermeasure against SPOF?

a. HA
b. DLP
c. VM
d. AAA

Answer 16

** Answer: HA **

High Availability (HA) firewall clusters are designed to minimize downtime for critical systems through the use of redundant systems. HA firewalls can maximize the availability of critical services using various clustering modes, such as active/active vs. active/passive.

A single point of failure (SPOF) is a potential risk posed by a flaw in the design, implementation or configuration of a circuit or system. SPOF refers to one fault or malfunction that can cause an entire system to stop operating.

Question 17

Which of the answers listed below refers to a method that enables secure conversion of user passwords into cryptographic keys?

a. PBKDF2
b. PFS
c. RIPEMD
d. PKCS #7

Answer 17

** Answer: PBKDF2 **

Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2 (PBKDF2) is a cryptographic algorithm that strengthens the security of passwords. It’s used in many applications, including online services, mobile devices, and financial systems.

Question 18

In the AAA security architecture, the process of tracking accessed services as well as the amount of consumed resources is called:

a. Auditing
b. Authentication
c. Authorization
d. Accounting

Answer 18

** Answer: Accounting **

Accounting cybersecurity is the use of systems and risk management plans to protect financial data and accounting firms from cyberattacks and data breaches. It’s a critical part of financial management and risk mitigation.

Question 19

Which of the following solutions provides passive network security breach response on an individual computer system?

a. HIDS
b. NIPS
c. HIPS
d. NIDS

Answer 19

** Answer: HIDS **

A Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) is a security tool that monitors a device for suspicious activity. HIDS can detect unauthorized access and malicious activity on a device, such as a server, workstation, or mobile device.

Question 20

A limit on the maximum amount of data that can be transmitted over a network without fragmentation is referred to as:

a. DSU
b. CSU
c. FPS
d.MTU

Answer 20

** Answer: MTU **

In cybersecurity, MTU stands for “Maximum Transmission Unit,” which refers to the largest data packet size that a network device can accept and transmit without fragmentation, essentially defining the maximum size of a data packet that can be sent across a network connection, including all headers and payload data; it’s a crucial consideration when managing network traffic and mitigating potential security risks associated with packet fragmentation.

Question 20

Which of the following answers refers to a deprecated (largely replaced by AES) symmetric-key block cipher encryption algorithm?

a. ECDSA
b. RSA
c. IDEA
d. DSA

Answer 20

** Answer: IDEA **

International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) is a form of symmetric key block cipher encryption. IDEA uses a 128-bit key and operates on 64-bit blocks. Essentially, it encrypts a 64-bit block of plaintext into a 64-bit block of ciphertext.

• IDEA was intended to replace the Data Encryption Standard (DES)
• It was used in some versions of Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

Question 21

Which of the answers listed below refers to a system that identifies, defines, and catalogs publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities?

a. TAXII
b. CVE
c. STIX
d. CVSS

Answer 21

** Answer: CVE **

TAXII, short for Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, defines how cyber threat information can be shared via services and message exchanges. It is designed specifically to support STIX information, which it does by defining an API that aligns with common sharing models.

Structured Threat Information Expression (STIX) is a language for sharing cyber threat intelligence (CTI). It’s a free, open-source standard that allows users to describe cyber threats consistently.

Question 22

Which of the answers listed below refers to a standardized method employed by the U.S. federal government to authenticate the identities of employees and contractors via smart card-based credentials?

a. PIV
b. MFA
c. SAE
d. PKI

Answer 22

** Answer: PIV **

Personal Identity Verification (PIV) is a federal government credential that uses a computer chip to verify identity and encrypt data. PIV cards are used to access secure facilities and information systems.

Question 23

Which of the following answers refers to an organized approach to managing and mitigating security incidents?

a. XDR
b. IR
c. SOAR
d. IRP

Answer 23

** Answer: IR **

In cybersecurity, “IR” stands for “Incident Response,” which refers to the planned and coordinated actions an organization takes to detect, contain, investigate, and recover from a security breach or cyberattack, aiming to minimize damage and restore normal operations as quickly as possible.

Question 24

Which type of technology enables contactless payment transactions?

a. NFC
b. IR
c. PED
d. WAP

Answer 24

** Answer: NFC **

In cybersecurity, NFC (Near Field Communication) refers to a short-range wireless technology that enables data transfer between devices in close proximity, often used for contactless payments, but also presents security concerns due to the potential for eavesdropping, data modification, and “man-in-the-middle” attacks if not properly secured with encryption and authentication protocols; essentially, malicious actors could intercept sensitive information transmitted between NFC-enabled devices if not adequately protected

Question 25

Which of the answers listed below refers to a cybersecurity approach that focuses on recognizing and addressing potential threats originating from multiple sources?

a. XDR
b. WAF
c. EDR
d. SWG

Answer 25

** Answer: XDR **

Extended Detection and Response (XDR) is a cybersecurity platform that collects and analyzes security data to detect and respond to threats. XDR uses AI and automation to help organizations protect against cyberattacks.

Question 25

An agreement between a service provider and users defining the nature, availability, quality, and scope of the service to be provided is known as:

a. SOW
b. MSA
c. SLA
d. MOU

Answer 25

** Answer: SLA **

In cybersecurity, an SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract between a service provider and a client that outlines the expected level of cybersecurity service, defining the responsibilities, performance standards, and response times for managing security risks, including details like vulnerability remediation timelines, data confidentiality requirements, and incident response procedures, essentially setting clear expectations for both parties involved.

Question 26

Which of the following acronyms refers to a client authentication method used in WPA3?

a. SAE
b. IKE
c. PSK
d. AES

Answer 26

** Answer: SAE **

SAE stands for Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, a password-based authentication protocol used in cybersecurity to improve security against attacks. SAE is part of the WPA3 security standard

Question 27

Which of the following answers refers to a security solution that provides control over elevated (i.e., administrative type) accounts?

a. MFA
b.IAM
c. SSO
d. PAM

Answer 27

** Answer: PAM **

In cybersecurity, “PAM” stands for “Privileged Access Management,” which refers to a strategy and set of technologies used to control, monitor, and secure accounts with elevated permissions (privileged accounts) that allow access to critical systems and sensitive data within an organization; essentially, it focuses on protecting against unauthorized access by limiting who can use privileged accounts and how they can use them

Question 27

Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution used for authentication, authorization, and user identity management?

a. ICS
b. AAA
c. CIA
d. IAM

Answer 27

** Answer: IAM **

Identity and Access Management (IAM) is a framework of policies, processes, and technologies that enable organizations to manage digital identities and control user access to critical corporate information.

Question 28

A device designed to provide emergency power during an unexpected main power source outage is called:

a. UPS
b. PoE
c. SVC
d. PSU

Answer 28

** Answer: UPS **

Question 29

Which of the answers listed below refers to an authentication method that enables the signing of an outbound email message with a digital signature?

a. SPF
b. DKIM
c. SRV
d. DMARC

Answer 29

** Answer: DKIM **

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) is a method for authenticating emails using public key cryptography. It’s a part of the Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) protocol.

Question 30

The term “VLAN” refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to function as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location.

a. True
b. False

Answer 30

** Answer: True **

Question 31

Which of the following answers refers to a method that binds a combination of private IP address and port number with a corresponding public IP address and port information?

a. PAT
b. NAC
c. DNS
d. ARP

Answer 31

** Answer: PAT **

Port address translation (PAT) is a network address translation (NAT) that maps a network’s private internal IPv4 addresses to a single public IP address. NAT is a process that routers use to translate internal, nonregistered IP addresses to external, registered IP addresses.

Question 32

A file system format used in Windows OSs that offers improved performance, security, and file management is referred to as:

a. ext4
b. EFS
c. NTFS
d. HFS+

Answer 32

** Answer: NTFS **

New Technology File System (NTFS) is a file system that uses access control lists and encryption to secure user data. It’s the default file system for Windows operating systems, and it’s also used on Linux-based systems.

Question 33

A type of user identification mechanism used as a countermeasure against automated software (such as network bots) is known as:

a. MFA
b. CAPTCHA
c. ACL
d. NIPS

Answer 33

** Answer: CAPCHA **

A CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart) is a security measure that helps to protect websites from spam and bots. CAPTCHAs are a type of challenge-response authentication that require users to complete a task to prove they are human.

Question 34

Which of the following is the recommended replacement for DES?

a. DSA
b. RSA
c. RC4
d. AES

Answer 34

** Answer: AES **

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric block cipher chosen by the U.S. government to protect classified information. AES is implemented in software and hardware throughout the world to encrypt sensitive data.

AES allows you to choose a 128-bit, 192-bit or 256-bit key, making it exponentially stronger than the 56-bit key of DES

Question 35

Which of the terms listed below refers to the process of creating and maintaining computer applications?

a. RAD
b. SDLC
c. OOP
d. SaaS

Answer 35

** Answer: SDLC **

SDLC in cyber security stands for Software Development Life Cycle, and it’s the process of integrating security into software development. The goal is to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.

Question 36

A type of firmware interface designed as a replacement for BIOS is called:

a. UEFI
b. GPT
c. ACPI
d. PXE

Answer 36

** Answer: UEFI **

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) is a software standard that acts as an interface between hardware and operating systems. It’s a critical component of modern computing.

Question 37

Which of the following answers refers to a network security solution providing a single point of protection against various types of threats?

a. IDP
b. AV
c. UTM
d. NGFW

Answer 37

** Answer: UTM **

In cybersecurity, “UTM” stands for “Unified Threat Management,” which refers to a single security solution that combines multiple security features like firewalls, intrusion detection, antivirus, content filtering, and anti-spam into one device, allowing administrators to manage network security from a single point of control.

Question 38

A WAP is a specific type of AP that is used to create WLANs.

a. True
b. False

Answer 38

** Answer: True **

WAP (Wireless Access Point) is a specific type of AP (Access Point)

Question 39

Which of the answers listed below refers to a language used for creating and organizing the content of web pages?

a. HTML
b. CSS
c. JS
d. HTTP

Answer 39

** Answer: HTML **

Question 40

Which network protocol enables retrieving contents of an Internet page from a web server?

a. SNMP
b. HTTP
c. SMTP
d. IMAP

Answer 40

** Answer: HTTP **

Question 41

What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption?

a. SFTP
b. HTTPS
c. FTPS
d. SHTTP

Answer 41

** Answer: HTTPS **

Question 41

The purpose of PCI DSS is to provide protection for:

a. Credit cardholder data
b. Licensed Software
c. User Passwords
d. Personal Health Information

Answer 41

** Answer: Credit cardholder data**

“PCI DSS” in cybersecurity stands for “Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard,” which is a set of security standards designed to protect cardholder data by ensuring that businesses handling credit card information implement robust security measures to prevent fraud and data breaches; it covers areas like secure network systems, access control, data encryption, and vulnerability management.

Question 42

Which term describes the predicted loss of value to an asset based on a single security incident?

a. SLE
b. ARO
c. ALE
d. SLA

Answer 42

** Answer: SLE **

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) tells us what kind of monetary loss we can expect if an asset is compromised because of a risk. Calculating SLE requires knowledge of the asset value (AV) and the range of loss that can be expected if a risk is exploited, which is known as the exposure factor (EF).

Question 43

Which of the following acronyms refers to a software that provides the functionality of a physical computer?

a. SDN
b.SaaS
c. VM
d. SoC

Answer 43

** Answer: VM **

In cybersecurity, a VM (virtual machine) is a software simulation of a physical computer that can be used to isolate potentially harmful activities. VMs are a vital tool for developers and IT professionals to create secure environments for testing software and analyzing security vulnerabilities.

Question 44

What is the common term for a group of protocols used to carry voice data over a packet-switched network?

a. ISDN
b. PBX
c. VoIP
d. PSTN

Answer 44

** Answer: VoIP **

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) security is important because it protects voice and data from being intercepted by hackers or other unauthorized individuals. VoIP security can help prevent the exposure of sensitive information like health records, payment card data, and account information.

Question 45

Which of the terms listed below refers to a formal contract between business partners outlining the rights, responsibilities, and obligations of each partner regarding the management, operation, and decision-making processes within the business?

a. MSA
b. SLA
c. BPA
d. MOA

Answer 45

** Answer: BPA **

Business partnership agreements (BPA) are legal agreements between partners. This is a legal agreement that outlines the terms, conditions, and expectations between the partners. A service level agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties that outlines expectations of service.

Question 46

Which of the following file transfer protocols does not provide encryption?

a. SCP
b. FTPS
c. FTP
d. SFTP

Answer 46

** Answer: FTP **

Question 47

The US Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides privacy protection for: (Select best answer)

a. PII
b. ESN
c. PHI
d. PIV

Answer 47

** Answer: PHI **

Protected health information (PHI) is any information that must be secured to safeguard a patient’s healthcare privacy. Regulations require that covered entities — people or organizations that provide healthcare — protect information related to a patient’s past, present, or future physical or mental health.

Question 48

Which of the answers listed below refers to a hierarchical system for the creation, management, storage, distribution, and revocation of digital certificates?

a. PKI
b. RA
c. PKCS
d. CA

Answer 48

** Answer: PKI **

Public key infrastructure (PKI) governs the issuance of digital certificates to protect sensitive data, provide unique digital identities for users, devices, and applications, and secure end-to-end communications.

Question 49

Which of the following acronyms refers to any type of information pertaining to an individual that can be used to uniquely identify that person?

a. PHI
b. PIV
c. PII
d. PKI

Answer 49

** Answer: PII **

In cybersecurity, “PII” stands for “Personally Identifiable Information,” which refers to any data that can be used to identify a specific individual, like their name, address, phone number, social security number, or email address; essentially, any information that could be used to directly contact or locate a person, making it a critical piece of data to protect from unauthorized access or disclosure.

Question 50

Which of the cryptographic algorithms listed below is the least vulnerable to attacks?

a. AES
b. DES
c. RC4
d. 3DES

Answer 50

** Answer: AES **

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric block cipher chosen by the U.S. government to protect classified information. AES is implemented in software and hardware throughout the world to encrypt sensitive data.

Question 51

An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login on only one of the components is referred to as:

a. NAC
b. SSO
c. AAA
d. MFA

Answer 51

** Answer: SSO **

In cyber security, “SSO” stands for “Single Sign-On,” which is a system that allows users to access multiple applications and websites using just one set of login credentials, essentially eliminating the need to remember and manage separate passwords for each service they use; it simplifies user access while improving security by encouraging stronger password practices and centralizing authentication management.

Question 52

Which of the following answers illustrates the difference between passive and active network security breach response?

a. HIPS vs NIPS
b. UTM vs Firewall
c. NIPS vs UTM
d. IDS vs IPS

Answer 52

** Answer: IDS vs IPS **

The firewall, IPS, and IDS differ in that the firewall acts as a filter for traffic based on security rules, the IPS actively blocks threats, and the IDS monitors and alerts on potential security breaches. A firewall sets the boundaries for network traffic, blocking or allowing data based on predetermined protocols.

Question 53

An SELinux kernel security feature for implementing stricter access controls and policies is known as:

a. DAC
b. RBAC
c. MAC
d. ABAC

Answer 53

** Answer: MAC **

“Message Authentication Code,” which is a cryptographic technique used to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message by generating a unique code that can be checked by the recipient to ensure the message hasn’t been tampered with during transmission and originated from the intended sender; essentially acting as a digital signature for data.

Question 54

Which wireless security protocol has been deprecated in favor of newer standards due to known vulnerabilities resulting from implementation flaws?

a. EAP
b. AES
c. WPA2
d. WEP

Answer 54

** Answer: WEP **

Wired equivalent privacy is meant to protect Wi-Fi transmissions by encrypting the data so outsiders who are not inside the encrypted network will not be able to read the messages or data contained within. WEP is better than no security at all, and it is still used on older devices that do not support WPA or WPA2

Question 55

Which access control model allows for defining granular rules that consider user roles, time constraints, and network access restrictions?

a. ABAC
b. MAC
c. RuBAC
d. DAC
e. RBAC

Answer 55

** Answer: RuBAC **

Rule-based access control (RuBAC) is a security system that uses rules to control user access to network resources. RuBAC systems compare user credentials to rules in a database to determine if access is granted.

Question 56

Which type of control access model connects user permissions to their specific responsibilities?

a. DAC
b. RBAC
c. MAC
d. ABAC

Answer 56

** Answer: RBAC **

What is RBAC. Role-based access control (RBAC), also known as role-based security, is a mechanism that restricts system access. It involves setting permissions and privileges to enable access to authorized users.

Question 57

The term “CIA triad” is used to describe the basic principles of information security.

True
False

Answer 57

True

Question 58

A type of document stipulating rules of behavior to be followed by users of computers, networks, and associated resources is called:

a. SLA
b. EULA
c. AUP
d. BPA

Answer 58

** Answer: AUP **

In cyber security, “AUP” stands for “Acceptable Use Policy,” which is a document that outlines the rules and guidelines for employees or users when accessing and using an organization’s IT systems, including the internet, company email, and company-issued devices, essentially defining what is considered acceptable and unacceptable behavior when using these resources to protect the company’s data and network security.

Question 59

LDAP is an example of:

a. Data encryption protocol
b. Address resolution protocol
c. Directory access protocol
d. File exchange protocol

Answer 59

** Answer: Directory access protocol **

Question 60

Which of the answers listed below refers to a suite of protocols used for connecting hosts on the Internet?

a. NetBIOS
b. IPv4
c. TCP/IP
d. IPv6

Answer 60

** Answer: TCP/IP **

Question 61

The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers)

a. Sending email messages between mail servers
b. Name resolution services
c. Serving of web pages
d. Retrieving email messages from mail servers
e. Sending email messages from a client device

Answer 61

** Answer: A, E **

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending and receiving emails over the internet. It is a key component of email services, but it can be vulnerable to cyber attacks.

Question 62

Which of the following answers refers to a data storage device equipped with hardware-level encryption functionality?

a. HSM
b. TPM
c. EFS
d. SED

Answer 62

** Answer: SED **

Self-Encrypting Drives (SED) are storage devices that automatically encrypt all data written to the drive and decrypt it when read, using hardware-based encryption mechanisms.

Question 63

A documented plan outlining the steps that should be taken in each phase of a cybersecurity incident is referred to as:

a. DRP
b. BCP
c. IRP
d. ERP

Answer 63

** Answer: IRP **

In cybersecurity, “IRP” stands for “Incident Response Plan,” which is a documented strategy outlining the steps an organization should take when facing a cyber security incident, such as a data breach or malware attack, including how to detect, respond to, contain, and recover from the incident; essentially providing a structured approach to manage a security crisis effectively.

Question 64

As opposed to simple DoS attacks that usually are performed from a single system, a DDoS attack uses multiple compromised computer systems to perform the attack against its target. The intermediary systems that are used as platform for the attack (often referred to as zombies, and collectively as a botnet) are the secondary victims of the DDoS attack.

True
False

Answer 64

** Answer: True **

Question 65

A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is known as:

a. RDP
b. SSH
c. Telnet
d. SCP

Answer 65

** Answer: SSH **