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CompTIA A+ 220-901/902 REVIEW > CompTIA IT Fundamentals Flashcards > Flashcards

CompTIA IT Fundamentals Flashcards

End of Chapter Quiz

1
Q

What is the purpose of the motherboard?

A

Connect all components together

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the CPU?

A

To process data.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of RAM?

A

Temporary data storage; it makes the computer faster.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of HDDs (Hard Disk Drives) and SSDs (Solid State Drives)?

A

Long-term data storage.

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5
Q

What is the purpose of optical discs?

A

Data storage (that is removable.

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6
Q

What does the power supply do?

A

Converts AC power to DC power for system components.

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7
Q

What is a PSU?

A

Power Supply Unit

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8
Q

What is a GPU?

A

Graphics processing Unit

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9
Q

What are two types of communications expansion cards?

A

NICs (Network cards) and modems

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10
Q

Which expansion card communicates with other computers over telephone lines?

A

Modem

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11
Q

Which expansion card produces images?

A

Video card

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12
Q

Which expansion card might have its own GPU?

A

Video Card

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13
Q

Which expansion card would you plug speakers into?

A

Audio card (sound card)

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14
Q

What are two methods used to cool processors?

A

Air cooling and liquid cooling.

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15
Q

Air cooling for processors usually involves which two components?

A

Heat sink and a fan

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16
Q

Which has more capacity, a DVD SS DL or a DVD DS SL?

A

The DVD DS SL does, slightly.

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17
Q

Which optical disc stores the most data?

A

BD-ROM (Blu-ray)

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18
Q

How many megabytes are in a gigabyte?

A

1024 or a thousand

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19
Q

What are three advantages of SSD over HDD?

A

Faster startup, faster read times, less power consumption and heat, silent more reliable, less susceptible to shock damage, higher data density.

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20
Q

What is RAID 0?

A

Disk striping

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21
Q

What is RAID 1?

A

Disk mirroring

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22
Q

When a system runs out of RAM, what does it use next?

A

Virtual memory

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23
Q

What is a DDR3 DIMM?

A

A memory module (RAM)

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24
Q

What type of RAM chips do laptops use?

A

SODIMM (or MicroDIMM)

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25
Q

______ printers use a powdery plastic substance to create images.

A

Laser

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26
Q

Color inkjet printers use ink cartridges called ______.

A

CMYK

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27
Q

____________ printers use heat to burn images into the paper.

A

Thermal

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28
Q

The oldest computer display devices are ________.

A

CRTs

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29
Q

________ replaced CRTs as the most common type of display device.

A

Flat screens

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30
Q

Types of pointing devices include?

A

mouse, touchpad, joystick, stylus pen, trackball

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31
Q

Flash drives and NAS are examples of what?

A

External storage devices

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32
Q

The first commonly used digital video connector was what?

A

DVI

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33
Q

Which video connector has three plugs?

A

Component

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34
Q

What is the most common video connector, also used with televisions?

A

HDMI

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35
Q

Popular connectors for external hard drives are ______?

A

USB, FireWire, eSATA, Thunderbolt

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36
Q

The ________ port was also called the printer port.

A

parallel

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37
Q

The name of the round keyboard and mouse connector is _______?

A

PS/2

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38
Q

Twisted-pair netwwork cables have an ________ connector at the end.

A

RJ-45

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39
Q

Telephone cables have an _______ connector at the end.

A

RJ-11

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40
Q

Which two external connector types were developed by Apple?

A

FireWire and Thunderbolt

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41
Q

The most common connector used today for keyboards and mice is ___?

A

USB

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42
Q

A device that has multiple external hard drives and network capability is called what?

A

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

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43
Q

Another name for the serial port is _____?

A

RS-232

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44
Q

_______ are display devices that let you input as well.

A

Touchscreens

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45
Q

The central part of the operating system is called the ______.

A

Kernel

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46
Q

A program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands is what?

A

Shell

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47
Q

The five basic functions of an OS are:

A

Interface between the user and hardware, coordinate hardware components, provide the environment for software to run, monitor system health, and display file and directory structure

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48
Q

The identity that you are known by when you log in is your ________.

A

User account

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49
Q

In order to run a 64-bit OS, you need a ______ CPU.

A

64-bit

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50
Q

To monitor system health in Windows, you would use ______.

A

Performance Monitor

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51
Q

________ is an open-source workstation OS.

A

Linux

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52
Q

A ______ is a version of Linux.

A

Distrobution

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53
Q

The current Macintosh OS is called ________.

A

Mac OS X

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54
Q

Which operating system is named after big cats or California locations?

A

Mac OS X

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55
Q

Microsoft’s workstation OS is called _______.

A

Windows

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56
Q

Google’s workstation OS is called ______.

A

Chrome OS

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57
Q

A _______ is a netbook with Chrome installed on it.

A

Chromebook

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58
Q

The default OS on an iPad or iPhone is _______.

A

iOS

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59
Q

Google’s mobile OS is called ______.

A

Android

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60
Q

Versions of the _____ OS are named after sweet treats.

A

Android

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61
Q

The OS commonly associated with smartphones with hardware keyboards is _____.

A

BlackBerry

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62
Q

BlackBerry devices are known for having _______ keyboards.

A

Physical

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63
Q

The first step to storing files on a hard drive is to ______ the hard drive.

A

Partition

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64
Q

The _____ determines how files are stored on a hard drive.

A

File system

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65
Q

The two file systems typically associated with Windows are what?

A

FAT and NTFS

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66
Q

The file system typically used by Mac OS X is what?

A

HFS

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67
Q

The three common Linux file systems are what?

A

ext3, ext4 and XFS

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68
Q

Which command creates a duplicate file in a new location on the hard drive?

A

Copy

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69
Q

A _______ is a pointer to a file, designed to make it easy to open.

A

Shortcut

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70
Q

File size and name are examples of what?

A

File metadata

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71
Q

The hotkey to copy a file in Windows is what?

A

CTRL+C

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72
Q

______ allow you to customize a computer for a user with disabilities

A

Accessibility options

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73
Q

To take a picture of a window on your screen, you need to take a _______.

A

Screen capture

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74
Q

Word processing and spreadsheet programs are considered _____ software.

A

productivity

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75
Q

Videoconferencing and instant messaging are considered _____ software.

A

Collaboration

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76
Q

If you want to protect your computer against bad software, you should install _____ software.

A

Antimalware

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77
Q

To make a file smaller in size, or to package multiple files together in one archive, use _____ software.

A

compression

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78
Q

The three hardware platforms for software to operate on are _____. _____, and _____.

A

mobile, desktop, web-based

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79
Q

When assessing software compatibility, check what two things?

A

Make sure it runs on your OS, and make sure you meet minimum hardware requirements.

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80
Q

The .txt and .rtf extensions indicate what types of files?

A

Documents

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81
Q

The .doc, .xls, and .ppt file extensions indicate what types of files?

A

Documents (document, spreadsheet, and presentation)

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82
Q

the .mp3, .wav, .flac, .aac, and .m4a file extensions are for what format?

A

Audio files

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83
Q

The .jpg, gif, .tiff, .png, and .bmp file extensions indicate what type of file?

A

image files

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84
Q

The .mpg, .mp4, .flv, .wmv, and .avi file extensions indicate what type of file?

A

video

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85
Q

The .exe, .msi, .app, .bat, and .scexe file extensions indicate what type of file?

A

executables

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86
Q

The .rar, .tar, .zip, .dmg, .iso, .7z, and .sz file extensions indicate what type of file?

A

compressed

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87
Q

Name three types of document file extensions.

A

.txt, .rft, ..doc/.docx, .xls/.xlsx, .ppt/.pptx, .pdf

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88
Q

Name three types of audio file extensions.

A

.mp3, .wav, .flac, .aac, and .m4a

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89
Q

Name three types of video file extensions.

A

.mpg, .mp4, .flv, .wmv, and .avi

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90
Q

Name three types of image file extensions.

A

.jpg, .gif, .tiff, .png, and .bmp

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91
Q

Name three types of executable file extensions.

A

.exe, .msi, .app, .bat and.scexe

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92
Q

Name three types of compressed file extensions.

A

.rara, .tar, .zip, .dmg, .iso, .7z, and .sz

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93
Q

In order to install or run a purchased application, you need a _____.

A

product key

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94
Q

______ is the process of letting you use the software by linking it to your computer.

A

activation

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95
Q

______ is the process by which you provide your name and contact information to the software

A

registration

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96
Q

In Windows, the best way to uninstall applications is through ______.

A

Control Panel

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97
Q

If you want your Mac OS to be continually updated, what do you need to configure?

A

Software Update

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98
Q

If you want your Windows OS to be continually updated, what do you need to configure?

A

Windows Update

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99
Q

In order to make your hardware work, what type of software do you need?

A

A driver (or device driver)

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100
Q

Who should you contact to get updated device drivers?

A

The hardware manufacturer

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101
Q

In order to use purchased software, you need a ______, which stipulates the conditions of use.

A

Software license

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102
Q

How often should you update your security software?

A

At least once per week

103
Q

What are two locations from which you might receive an installation file?

A

A CD-ROM from the manufacturer or download from the Internet?

104
Q

In order to ensure that your OS gets the most important security updates, even if you don’t know they were released, you should enable _______.

A

Automatic updates (or Windows Update or Software Update)

105
Q

Games can be installed or uninstalled as part of ______.

A

OS features

106
Q

What are the two most popular broadband connection types?

A

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) and Cable Modem

107
Q

Which is most secure: wired, wireless, or cellular?

A

Wired

108
Q

Which gives the greatest mobility: wired, wireless, or cellular?

A

Cellular

109
Q

What two TCP/IP configuration parameters are required to communicate on a network?

A

IP address and subnet mask

110
Q

If your TCP/IP client wants to get on the Internet, which optional configuration parameter is required?

A

Default gateway

111
Q

Which TCP/IP service automatically configures clients with an IP address?

A

DHCP

112
Q

Which TCP/IP service resolves host names to IP addresses?

A

DNS

113
Q

The _____ service lets computers with private IP addresses get on the Internet.

A

NAT

114
Q

Which gives the greatest data throughput: wired, wireless, or cellular?

A

Wired

115
Q

Which has the highest delay: wired, wireless, or cellular?

A

Cellular

116
Q

Which gives the greatest reliability: wired, wireless, or cellular?

A

Wired

117
Q

Which wireless security protocol is the most secure?

A

WPA2

118
Q

Other than enabling WPA2, WPA, or WEP, what two wireless network security options can you use?

A

Disable SSID broadcasts and enable MAC filtering

119
Q

To configure a wireless router, you should change the ______ and ______ passwords.

A

Nework (wireless) and admin

120
Q

When configuring a wireless router, what should you do to the SSID?

A

Change it from the default

121
Q

When configuring a wireless router, what should you upgrade at the end of the process?

A

The router’s firmware

122
Q

_____ is the feature that configures your computer with an IP address in the 169.254 range if it can’t find a DHCP

A

APIPA

123
Q

The current fastest Wi-Fi standard is _____.

A

802.11ac

124
Q

______ IP addresses cannot participate on the Internet.

A

Private

125
Q

The unique hardware address assigned to your network adapter is called the ______.

A

MAC address

126
Q

The four types of _____ area networks are what?

A

Local (LAN), wide (WAN), personal (PAN), and metropolitan (MAN)

127
Q

A _____ is a network located in one location, such as an office.

A

LAN

128
Q

A _____ is a network that spans geographical locations.

A

WAN

129
Q

A network with no servers and eight workstations is referred to as a _____ network.

A

peer-to-peer

130
Q

A network with dedicated servers follows the ______ security model.

A

Client-server (or domain)

131
Q

A DAS is a hard drive attached where?

A

To a local computer (internal or external)

132
Q

A storage solution connected to the network, with its own file management software, is called what?

A

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

133
Q

The two best ways to physically link PCs together are what?

A

A crossover cable and a USB direct link cable

134
Q

Which technology creates ad hoc networks for file transfers?

A

Bluetooth

135
Q

Which operating systems can participate in a workgroup?

A

Many different ones, including older Microsoft versions, Mac OS X, and Linux

136
Q

Which operating systems can participate in a homegroup?

A

Microsoft Windows 7 and newer

137
Q

Which network sharing method requires a password to join?

A

Homegroup

138
Q

Which peer-to-peer network-sharing method does not require user accounts for all users on all computers?

A

Homegroup

139
Q

What is the limit to the number of computers on a homegroup?

A

unlimited

140
Q

What is the limit to the number of computers in a workgroup?

A

20 (10 from a practical standpoint)

141
Q

The two ways to connect a printer to share are what?

A

Local (USB and Network)

142
Q

Cloud computing uses which technology to enable several servers to reside on the same server hardware?

A

virtualization

143
Q

HTTP and HTTPS use ports ____ and ____.

A

80 and 443

144
Q

HTTPS uses what to secure the connection?

A

SSL and TLS

145
Q

Three protocols used to transfer files on the Internet are what?

A

FTP, FTPS, and SFTP

146
Q

Three common gesture-based interactions for mobile devices are what?

A

Tap, swipe, and pinch

147
Q

To scroll down or change a page on a mobile device, which action do you use?

A

swipe

148
Q

To zoom in or out in a map on a mobile device, which action do you use?

A

Pinch

149
Q

What is the name of the sensor that allows the screen to rotate when you rotate a mobile device?

A

Gyroscope

150
Q

What is the name of the sensor that allows a mobile device to act as a compass?

A

magnetometer

151
Q

What type of biometric sensor is on newer mobile devices?

A

Fingerprint scanner

152
Q

When rebooting a mobile device with biometric security enabled, what must you do to unlock the device?

A

Enter the passcode

153
Q

When setting up a wireless connection on a mobile device, what is the first step?

A

Verify wireless capabilities

154
Q

When setting up a wireless connection on a mobile device, what is the step after verifying wireless capabilities?

A

Turn on Wi-Fi

155
Q

When setting up a wireless connection on a mobile device, what is the step after turning on Wi-Fi?

A

Locate the SSID

156
Q

When setting up a wireless connection on a mobile device, what is the step after locating the SSID?

A

Enter the wireless password.

157
Q

When setting up a wireless connection on a mobile device, what is the step after entering the wireless password?

A

Verify Internet connectivity

158
Q

Which two protocols are used to receive email?

A

POP3 and IMAP

159
Q

Which protocol is used to send email?

A

SMTP

160
Q

What port number does POP3 use?

A

110

161
Q

What port number does IMAP use?

A

143

162
Q

What port number does SMTP use?

A

25

163
Q

The process of connecting two Bluetooth devices together for communication is called what?

A

pairing

164
Q

Which two options can be used to back up an iPhone or iPad?

A

iTunes or iCloud

165
Q

What is the name of the mode that immediately disables all wireless connections on a mobile device?

A

Airplane mode

166
Q

What does Airplane mode do on a wireless device?

A

Immediately disables all wireless connections

167
Q

The name of the app store for iOS is called?

A

iTunes

168
Q

The name of the app store for Android is called?

A

Google Play

169
Q

Theft of hardware or software is an example of what type of security threat?

A

Physical

170
Q

When someone goes through the trash to obtain sensitive information, that is called _____.

A

Dumpster diving

171
Q

Asking users to reveal sensitive or personal information over the phone is referred to as _______.

A

Social Engineering

172
Q

Trying to obtain sensitive information by using a legitimate-looking email is called what?

A

Phishing

173
Q

Looking at someone’s computer to see sensitive information they type in or display is called what?

A

Shoulder surfing

174
Q

A problem in the coding of software that is used by an attacker is called what?

A

An exploit

175
Q

Malware that attaches itself to an executable program and does damage to your computer is called what?

A

Virus

176
Q

Malware that self-replicates and carries a payload of other malware is called what?

A

worm

177
Q

A program that appears to be beneficial but is actually malware is called what?

A

Trojan horse

178
Q

Malware that tracks your Internet activity and sells that information to marketers is called what?

A

Spyware

179
Q

Malware that extorts those infected to pay a fee to remove the malware is called what?

A

Ransomware

180
Q

What is excessive, unwanted email referred to as?

A

Spam

181
Q

If you forget a password, what type of software can help you recover it?

A

Password cracker

182
Q

A virus that changes its form is called what?

A

Polymorphic

183
Q

A virus that can affect multiple parts of your computer is called what?

A

Multipartite

184
Q

Viruses that attack the antivirus software directly are called what?

A

Retrovirus

185
Q

To harden a device, you can disable communications features such as ____ and ____.

A

Bluetooth, NFC

186
Q

The key combination of _______ lets a user lock their computer when they leave.

A

Ctrl+Alt+Delete

187
Q

_____ is the process of scrambling the data in user files so others cannot read them.

A

encryption

188
Q

To protect a computer against viruses and spyware, install _______.

A

antimalware

189
Q

The three types of accounts on a computer are what?

A

Administrator, user, and guest

190
Q

The _____ user account should be disabled for security purposes unless it is being used.

A

guest

191
Q

Passwords should not be ____ between different websites.

A

reused

192
Q

Many companies will have passwords _____ periodically as part of a security policy.

A

expiire

193
Q

The process of providing proper credentials to access a computer resource is called ______.

A

authentication

194
Q

Needing to provide a password and present a smart card to log in is an example of _____ ______.

A

multifactor authentication

195
Q

The three types of information used in multifactor authentication are what?

A

Something you know, something you have, and something you are

196
Q

The ability to enter login information once and have it transfer to other systems is called what?

A

Single sign-on

197
Q

Risks of using public workstations include what three things?

A

Shoulder surfing, keyloggers (or other malware), and unsecured wireless networks

198
Q

_____ Wi-Fi networks are unsecure and should not be used.

A

open

199
Q

What should be true about a web browser’s version before you use it?

A

It should be the most current version.

200
Q

What is the name of the feature that completes your name and address for you in web pages?

A

autofill

201
Q

What is the name of a file a website downloads to your computer to identify you?

A

cookie

202
Q

What are two ways to identify a secure website?

A

Starts with HTTPS:// and has a lock symbol in the address bar

203
Q

What are three symptoms of adware?

A

Constant popups, home page (or browser) redirection, and search engine redirection

204
Q

To protect your security, you should limit the use of ______ on the Internet.

A

Personally identifiable information (PII)

205
Q

What should you not do if you receive a hyperlink or attachment in a suspicious email?

A

Click on it.

206
Q

The first step in the basic workstation setup process is what?

A

Plug in cables.

207
Q

After plugging in cables, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Power on the computer.

208
Q

After powering on the computer, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Follow the initial operating system setup wizard.

209
Q

After completing the OS setup wizard, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Install security software.

210
Q

After installing security software, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Configure peripherals

211
Q

After configuring peripherals, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Uninstall unneeded software.

212
Q

After uninstalling unneeded software, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Configure and verify the internet connection.

213
Q

After configuring and verifying the Internet connection, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Install additional software.

214
Q

After installing additional software, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Run software and security updates

215
Q

After running software and security updates, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Create other user accounts.

216
Q

After creating other user accounts, what is the next step in the basic workstation setup process?

A

Perform basic cable management

217
Q

When do you configure localization settings during the basic workstation setup process?

A

During the initial operating system set up wizard

218
Q

The first place to check when you have a device failure or question is where?

A

The manufacturer’s documentation or website

219
Q

Which three external issues should you check for when troubleshooting a computer? (The easy stuff.)

A

Loose cables or connectors, power, and physical damage

220
Q

In addition to manufacturer documentation and websites, what are two external resources to check for technical help?

A

Technical community groups, Internet search, and technical support

221
Q

In order to preserve your data in the case of hardware failure, you should _______ your data.

A

Back up

222
Q

To make sure you run consistent software backups, be sure to ______ them.

A

Schedule

223
Q

If you have important data that changes often, you should run backups more _______.

A

Frequently

224
Q

What are three options for backup storage locations?

A

Locally attached storage, network attached storage, offsite/cloud

225
Q

Which backup storage location option is the fastest, local, network, or cloud?

A

Local

226
Q

After backing up data, what is the first thing you should do?

A

Test and verify that the backup works.

227
Q

What is the name of the directive that restricts the use of six hazardous materials in the manufacture of various types of electronic equipment?

A

Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS)

228
Q

What is the proper disposal method for CRT monitors?

A

Recycle them.

229
Q

What is the proper disposal method for batteries?

A

Recycle them

230
Q

Which component in laser printers contains a carcinogen and should be recycled?

A

Toner (toner cartridge)

231
Q

Computer parts that have low-energy usage modes are called what?

A

Energy-efficient devices

232
Q

The common standard for energy efficient devices is what?

A

Energy Star

233
Q

Which power mode turns the power off to all devices except the memory, which it keeps active?

A

Sleep

234
Q

Which power mode turns off power to all devices and places contents of memory into a file on the hard drive for retrieval upon powering back up?

A

Hibernation

235
Q

Which power device allows you to plug in multiple components but offers no power surge protection?

A

Power strip

236
Q

Which power device allows you to plug in multiple components and offers power surge protection?

A

Surge protector

237
Q

Which power device acts as a surge protector and a battery backup for a computer?

A

Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)

238
Q

`Where is the switch located that sets what level of power the computer is expecting from the wall outlet?

A

On the power supply

239
Q

For device placement __________ airflow is better. (Higher or lower)

A

higher

240
Q

What is the optimal level of humidity for a computer?

A

Around 50 percent

241
Q

What is the optimal room temperature for a computer?

A

A little colder than room temperature, or a little colder than what people prefer

242
Q

What is the name of interference caused on copper cables by other signals?

A

Electromagnetic interference (EMI)

243
Q

What devices can cause EMI? Name three.

A

Unshielded cables, high-voltage power lines, radio transmitters, motors (even those on refrigerator compressors), microwave ovens, cordless phones, and fluorescent lights

244
Q

What is ESD?

A

Electrostatic discharge, or static electricity

245
Q

Computer components can be damaged by ____ volts of ESD, whereas people can feel ____ volts.

A

300 and 3,000

246
Q

Proper mouse and keyboard placement is where, according to ergonomics?

A

At or slighly below the level of the user’s elbows

247
Q

When placing a keyboard or mouse for a user, according to proper ergonomics, how should the user’s wrists be?

A

Not bent, or only slightly bent

248
Q

When placing a monitor for proper ergonomics, what is the guideline for how high the monitor should be?

A

The top of the screen should be at or slightly below eye level.

249
Q

When placing a monitor for proper ergonomics, how far away from the user’s eyes should it be?

A

At least 18 inches. Ideal is from 18 inches to approximately arm’s length away.

250
Q

Name three features of proper ergonomic sitting position.

A

Sit straight up or slightly reclined (90–120 degree angle between your upper body and thighs). Feet should be flat on the floor or on a footrest. Thighs should be parallel to the floor or hips can be slightly above the knees. Support the lower back (lumbar) area. Distribute the pressure on your seat evenly, make sure the area behind your knee is not touching the chair.

251
Q

Whose guidelines should you follow for proper safety?

A

Manufacturer’s

252
Q

When working with computer components, what are three items that can help prevent ESD?

A

Antistatic wrist strap, antistatic mat, and antistatic bags

253
Q

When do you configure the screen resolution during the basic workstation setup process?

A

During the initial operating system setup wizard

CompTIA A+ 220-901/902 REVIEW (24 decks)

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