Comprehensive Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are adverse reactions of Pyridostigmine?

A

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the generic name for Ritalin?

A

Methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can high protein drugs lead to?

A

some type of toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some adverse reactions of epinephrine?

A

Palpitation, hypertension, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What adverse reactions are associated with gentamicin sulfate?

A

Oliguria, urticaria, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, liver damage , thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ibuprofen adverse reactions include:

A

GI bleeding, nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is metronidazole used as a prophylactic?

A

perioperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define duration of action

A

the length of time the drug has a pharmacologic effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When should you assess pain level and location when administering morphine sulfate?

A

Before and after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Rivastigmine used for?

A

Help improve memory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you assess pain on a patient?

A

Ask the patient to rate their pain on a scale of 0-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the preferred drug to treat ADHD?

A

Ritalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Salicylate: Aspirin is used for?

A

Pain and inflammatory symptoms, decrease temperature, inhibit platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What angle is an IM injection given?

A

90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What vitals should be monitored for a patient who is on a medication for conscious sedation?

A

Blood pressure and respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are adverse reactions for Ritalin?

A

Tachycardia, growth suppression, palpitations, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the adverse reactions associated with fluoxetine?

A

Seizures, hyponatremia, dehydration, osteopenia, suicical ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drug class is Albuterol?

A

beta2-adrenergic agonsit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rivastigmine side effects?

A

Peripheral edema, dry mouth, restless leg syndrome, nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some adverse reactions for Albuterol?

A

Palpitations, tachycardia, hallucinations, Stephens-Johnson, hyperglycemia, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Albuterol used for?

A

Asthma attack or brochospasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define onset of action

A

the time the drug takes for the minimum effective concentration (MEC) after the drug is administered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the brand name for Celecoxib?

A

Celebrex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens when a patient is taking celebrex with an ACE inhibitor?

A

the effect of the ace inhibitor is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the signs and symptoms of NMS
Muscle rigidity, sudden high fever, altered mental status, blood pressure fluctuations, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, seizures, rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, respiratory failure, coma.
26
What are two trade names for Albuterol?
Proventil and Ventolin
27
What are some side effects to Albuterol?
dizziness, tremor, nasal congestion, blurred vision, sweating, headache
28
What is the brand name for Phenytoin?
Dilantin
29
What is Pyridostigmine used for?
muscle strength in patients who have myasthenia gravis
30
What is fluoxetine used for?
Treat depression
31
What are the medication rights?
Medcation, documentation, route, time, patient, dosage
32
What drug class is gentamicin sulfate?
antibacterial--aminoglycosides
33
What vitals should be monitored for a patient on Albuterol?
Lung sounds, heart rate, and blood pressure. ** important to assess before and after!
34
What are adverse reactions of alprazolam?
Depression, impaired coordination
35
True/False: Versed (midazolam) is used in pre-op.
TRUE!
36
What is the brand name for pyridostigmine?
Mestinon
37
What drug class is Phenytoin?
Anticonvulsant: hydantoin
38
What are side effects of alprazolam?
Lethargy, constipation, memory impairment, blurred vision, increased appetite.
39
What are adverse reactions for phenytoin
gingival hyperplasia (bleeding is associated so thrombocytopenia is also possible)
40
True/False: Geriatrics- The elderly people are more sensitive to drugs.
TRUE!
41
What are characteristics of Akathisia
Restless Paces the floor Feet in constant motion
42
What type of anti-inflammatory is ibuprofen?
1st generation NSAID
43
What are side effects of Ritalin?
anorexia, euphoria, blurred vision, anemia
44
What are Adrenergic blockers used for?
MI’s, tachycardia, High blood pressure and prevent MI's
45
What drink decreases alprazolam effects?
Green tea
46
What is the process for administering eye drops?
Always wash hands first. Gently press tear duct. Wait 1-2 minutes in between administering two different medications. Keep eye closed to help with absorption.
47
What vitals need to be monitored while a patient is taking morphine sulfate?
Respiratory rate and pain level
48
True/False: Propofol is the only drug used for conscious sedation.
FALSE!
49
Isoniazid adverse reaction:
hepatotoxicity (important to watch liver enzymes)
50
What age group should be considered before administering gentamicin sulfate?
elderlys
51
What is the brand name for metronidazole?
Flagyl
52
Ibuprofen is contraindicated in what type of patients?
Renal or hepativ disease, peptic ulcers, bleeding disorders
53
Rivastigmine adverse reactions?
Seizures, orthostatic hypotension, catartacts, MI, heart failure
54
What actions must be taken if the nurse administers the wrong medication?
Report it to the charge nurse Call the doctor Assess the patient
55
Salicylate: Aspirin is what type of anti-inflammatory?
1st generation NSAID
56
What is nephrotoxicity
Damage to kidneys
57
What labs are monitored with patients on gentamicin sulfate?
I's and O's, BUN, creatinine
58
What are characteristics of acute dystonia
Facial grimacing Involuntary upward eye movement Muscle spasms of the tongue, face, neck and back Laryngeal spasms
59
What type of drug is pilocarpine (Pilocar)
Cholinergic
60
What is Ibuprofen therapeutic response?
Decrease in pain, and in swollen joints and an increase in mobility
61
What is pilocarpine (Pilocar) used for?
Glaucoma -- constrics --> squeezes --> drains!
62
What is the brand name for fluoxetine?
Prozac
63
What are some side effects to epinephrine?
Tremors, anorexia
64
What are side effects associated with Phenytoin?
pink-red brown urine, slurred speech, confusion, dizziness
65
When a patient is taking Pyridostigmine , what must you assess the patient for?
Difficulty breathing and difficulty swallowing
66
True/False: You must take erythromycin on an empty stomach.
FALSE
67
Can patients with renal disease be given gentamicin sulfate?
be cautious!
68
What are brand names of ibuprofen?
motrin, advil
69
What is phenytoin used for?
to treat seizures!
70
What is important to remember with patients taking bactrim?
Avoid sunlight as much as possible but when in the sunlight be sure to wear sunscreen!
71
What drug class is Rivastigmine?
Anticholinergic
72
True/False: Rivastigmine PO: Food decreases absorption rate.
TRUE!
73
What lab values need to be monitored for Isoniazid?
Liver enzymes
74
What lab values are associated with nephrotoxicity?
BUN and creatiine
75
What do you need to educate the patient on when they are taking an anti-cholinergic?
Drink plenty of water, rise slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension, be aware of dry mouth. Avoid sunlight and avoid alcohol. Stay hydrated!
76
What are characteristics of tardive dyskinesia
``` Protrusion and rolling of the tongue Sucking and smacking lips Chewing motion Facial dyskinesia Involuntary movement ```
77
What is the antidote for morphine sulfate?
Narcan
78
What is erythromycin?
antibacterial--macrolides
79
What are the four type of extrapyramidal syndrome?
pseudoparkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, tardive dyskinesia
80
What is epinephrine used for?
Stimulate HR & blood pressure, allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and #1 drug for cardiac arrest
81
What type of antidepressant is Fluoxetine?
SSRI
82
What food increases alprazolam levels ?
grapfruit
83
Rivastigmine is contraindicated in what type of patients?
Liver and kidney disease
84
What is alprazolam used as?
anti-anxiety
85
What is Isoniazid used for?
treat tuberculosis and a prophylactic measure against tuberculosis
86
What are some different Adrenergenic blockers?
Atenolol, Propranolol, and Metoprolol
87
What is the brand name for alprazolam
Xanax
88
What are characteristics of pseudoparkinsonism
``` stooped posture shuffling gait rigidity bradykinesia tremors pill-rolling motion of the hand ```
89
What other drug class is used for conscious sedation?
Benzos!
90
What is a side effect of metronidazole?
dark orangish rusty looking urine.
91
What angle is a sub Q injection given?
45 degree angle OR 90 degrees if the patient is obese
92
Ibuprofen side effects include:
purpura, tinnitus, light headedness, fluid rention with edema
93
Define peak action
when the drug reaches its highest blood or plasma concentration