COMPLICATIONS OF MATERNITY Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Miscarriage (Spontaneous abortion):
1. 2 S/S:
• _____ and _______
______ is common during pregnancy but the combination of __________and
______________ is more indicative of a miscarriage.

Answer

A

S/S:
Spotting and cramping
Spotting is common during pregnancy but the combination of ____spotting_and
______cramping_ and complaining of back ache_ is more indicative of a miscarriage.

Question 2

Q

Tx for miscarriage

Tx:

a. Measures hCG levels- we worry when levels __________________
b. Bedrest and __________ rest (abstinence from sex)
c. If miscarriage imminent→IV,Blood,D&C(dilatation&;curettage)

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Measures hCG levels- we worry when levels _DROP
b. Bedrest and _______ PELVIC___ rest (abstinence from sex)
c. If miscarriage imminent → IV, Blood, D &C (dilatation & curettage)— this is where they go ahead and remove the remaining product that Are left during conception

Question 3

Q

B. Hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy):

Patho:
3 characteristic

Answer

A

Patho:

a. Benign neoplasm, can turn malignant
b. Grape-like clusters of vesicles
c. May/may not have a fetus involved (for NCLEX purpose no fetus is involve

Question 4

Q

How does Hydatidiform mole pregnancy start?

Starts off as a normal pregnancy but
• Uterus enlarges too _____

Question 5

Q

Hydatidiform mole 2 s/s

Answer

A

S/S:

a. Absence of FHTs
b. Bleeding (sometimes will have vesicles) in discharge

Question 6

Q

Dx: for Hydatidiform mole

• Confirmed with ________

Answer

A

Dx:

Confirmed with _____ Ultrasound_

Question 7

Q

5 tx for Hydatidiform mole

Tx:
a. Small mole → D&;;C (have to empty the uterus)
b. Do not get _______________________during follow up time; follow-up is very important
c. Ifitbecomesmalignantitiscalledchoriocarcinoma.
d. Will do ____________ ________________ to determine metastasis.
e. Will measure hCGs_____until normal;recheckedq2-4weeks;then every 1-2 months for 6 months to a yearlong r.

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Small mole → D&;C (have to empty the uterus)
b. Do not get ______________pregenant___during follow up time; follow-up is very pimportant
c. If it becomes malignant it is called choriocarcinoma.
d. Will do _________chest X-rays ___ to determine metastasis.
e. Will measure hCGs _________weekly____ until normal; rechecked q 2-4 weeks; then
every 1-2 months for 6 months to a year.

Question 8

Q

Patient has told not to get pregnant during follow up time because

Answer

A

Patient is pregnant HCG levels normally go up but if metastasis or malignancy is present the doctor won’t be able to determine if is the pregnancy that causes the rise in a hCG levels of is it the malignancy

Question 9

Q

Ectopic Pregnancy: 1. Definition:

a. This is a gestation outside of the ______________________.
b. Where does it usually occur? ________.
c. Confirmed with an____________________

Answer

A

Ectopic Pregnancy:

Definition:
a. This is a gestation outside of the __ uterus __.
b. Where does it usually occur? Fallopian tube.
c. Confirmed with an ____________ultrasound

Question 10

Q

: Ectopic Pregnancy:
a. First sign?
b. Client will usually exhibit the usual
S/S of ________________ … then pain, spotting or may be bleeding into the peritoneum.
• If the fallopian tube ruptures, vaginal bleeding may be present.

c. If a client has had 1 ectopic pregnancy she is at risk for another.

Answer

A

S/S:
a. First sign? Pain
b. Client will usually exhibit the usual S/S of ________prgenancy__ … then pain,
spotting or may be bleeding into the peritoneum.
If the fallopian tube ruptures, vaginal bleeding may be present.

Question 11

Q

Ectopic Pregnancy: tx

:the goal is to ____ save the tube
a. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex®/Trexall®) is given to Mom to _____ the growth of the
embryo to _____ the tube.

b. If the Methotrexate (Rheumatrex®/Trexall®) does not work, a _____ incision will be made into the tube and the ______ will be removed.

C.• The entire tube may have to be removed.

A ____ is done if the tube has ruptured or if ectopic pregnancy is advanced.
• If the tube does rupture what are you worried about? __________

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex®/Trexall®) is given to Mom to stop the growth of the Embryo to save the tube.

b. If the Methotrexate (Rheumatrex®/Trexall®) does not work, a laparoscopic
incision will be made into the tube and the embryo will be removed.
The entire tube may have to be removed.

c. A laparotomy is done if the tube has ruptured or if ectopic pregnancy is advanced.
If the tube does rupture what are you worried about? __they may hemorrhage and need a blood transfusion

Question 12

Q

Placenta Previa:

Patho:
a. Most common cause of ___________________ in the later months (usually the ___th)
b. The placenta has ______ wrong.
c. An___________________________will be done to confirm placental location

Answer

A

Placenta Previa:
1. Patho:
a. Most common cause of _________bleeding in the later months (usually the
7th)
b. The placenta has implanted wrong.
c. An ____________ultrasound___ will be done to confirm placental location

Question 13

Q

How does this happen? Placenta previa
a. The placenta begins to prematurely separate when the cervix begins to dilate and efface →____________ doesn’t get oxygen

b. Normally, the placenta should be attached where in the uterus? _____________
• The placenta may be on the side of the uterus (low lying placenta), halfway covering the cervix (partial previa), or completely covering the cervix (complete previa).
• The problem is, what is coming out first? _______________________

Answer

A

How does this happen?
a. The placenta begins to prematurely separate when the cervix begins to dilate and
efface →________baby__ doesn’t get oxygen
b. Normally, the placenta should be attached where in the uterus? ____up high in the uterus___
The placenta may be on the side of the uterus (low lying placenta),
halfway covering the cervix (partial previa), or completely covering the
cervix (complete previa).

No matter the location
The problem is, what is coming out first? __the placentas And this is not going to be a normal delivery

Question 14

Q

S/s of placenta previa

Answer

A

S/S:

Painless bleeding in 2 nd half of pregnancy (may be spotting or may be profuse)

Question 15

Q

7 Tx for placenta previa

Complete previa usually requires hospitalization (from as early as 32 weeks until birth) to prevent blood loss and fetal ______________ if client goes into labor

If there’s not much bleeding→ _______________ and watch very close.

Rule out other sources of bleeding like abruption.
_______ counts

The Monitor blood count and monitor _____________ closely.

Monitor for contractions → call MD (not going to be a normal delivery) Delivery method of choice? __________ _____________
Do not perform ___________________________ exam

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Complete previa usually requires hospitalization (from as early as 32 weeks until
birth) to prevent blood loss and fetal ___ hypoxia__ if client goes into labor
b. If there’s not much bleeding→ ____bedrest and watch very close.
c. Rule out other sources of bleeding like abruption.
d. _____pad__ counts
e. Monitor blood count and monitor ______baby_ closely.
f. Monitor for contractions → call MD (not going to be a normal delivery)
g. Delivery method of choice? c section

Question 16

Q

4 Fetal Complications:

Answer

A

Fetal Complications:

a. Preterm delivery
b. Intrauterine growth retardation
c. Fetal distress
d. Anemia

Question 17

Q

Maternal Complications:

Answer

A

Maternal Complications:

a. Hemorrhage
b. Potential DIC risk

Question 18

Q

Abruptio Placenta:

Patho:
a. Is the placenta implanted normally? _______
b. May be partial or _________________
c. It separates prematurely→bleeds(external or concealed)
• Concealed means bleeding into the _________________. d.

Seen in ___ _____ of pregnancy
e. _________________to confirm the diagnosis
• May be partial or complete
• Severity is based on a scale of 1-3 with 3 being the worst.

Answer

A

Patho:
a. Is the placenta implanted normally? _yes
b. May be partial or __complete__
c. It separates prematurely→ bleeds (external or concealed)
Concealed means bleeding into the _________uterus___.
d. Seen in last half of pregnancy
e. _______________ultrasound__ to confirm the diagnosis
May be partial or complete
Severity is based on a scale of 1-3 with 3 being the worst.

Question 19

Q

5 Causes of Abruptio Placenta:

a. MVC= motor vehicle crash
b. Domestic violence
c. Previous Cesarean Section
d. Rapid decompression of the uterus (membranes rupture)
e. Associated with _____, PIH, ; _________

Answer

A

Causes:
a. MVC= motor vehicle crash
b. Domestic violence
c. Previous Cesarean Section
d. Rapid decompression of the uterus (membranes rupture)
e. Associated with _______cocaine___, PIH, &_______smoking___

Question 20

Q

S/S of Abruptio Placenta:

Answer

A

S/S:
a. Abdominal _____pain______ and increased uterine tone.
b. Rigid board-like abdomen, with or without vaginal bleeding.
c. Difficult to palpate fetus.

Question 21

Q

Tx for Abruptio Placenta:

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Method of delivery? CS
RULE: Do not do vaginal exams in the presence of unexplained
vaginal bleeding

Question 22

Q

Incompetent Cervix:

Patho:
a. This is when the cervix _________________________ prematurely.
b. Occurs in the ________________ month of pregnancy
c. This client will have a history of repeated,painless,______________trimester
miscarriages.

Answer

A

Patho:
a. This is when the cervix ________ dilates prematurely.
b. Occurs in the ________4th_ month of pregnancy
c. This client will have a history of repeated, painless, _____second___ trimester
miscarriages.

Question 23

Q

Cause of Incompetent Cervix:

Answer

A

The weight of the baby causes pressure on the cervix causing it to prematurely dilate

Question 24

Q

Incompetent Cervix 3 TX

A Purse-String suture (cerclage) at 14-18 weeks – reinforces the ___________
May have a c-section to preserve the suture
Some physicians clip the suture so the client can deliver vaginally
80-90% chance of carrying the baby to __________ after cerclage.

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Purse-String suture (cerclage) at 14-18 weeks – reinforces the cervixs
b. May have a c-section to preserve the suture
Some physicians clip the suture so the client can deliver vaginally
c. 80-90% chance of carrying the baby to ___term_ after cerclage.

Question 25

Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum. Patho

a. Starts like regular morning __________________
b. Excessive vomiting→ dehydration→ starvation→ ________________

Answer

A

a. Starts like regular morning ______sickness___

b. Excessive vomiting→ dehydration→ starvation→ ______death related to high levels of estrogen and Hgc_

Question 26

Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

Causes:
• R/T high levels of estrogen &;; ____________________

Answer

A

Causes:

R/T high levels of estrogen & ________hgc_

Question 27

Q

S/S: Hyperemesis Gravidarum
a. What happens to the:
BP________ H/H________ UO ________ K+_______ Weight________
b. What will they have in their urine? _____________
• Why is there acetone (ketones) in the urine?

Answer

A

S/S:
a. What happens to the:
BP__down__ H/H_up UO ____down__ K+__down Weight_______down_
b. What will they have in their urine? ___kentones
Why is there acetone (ketones) in the urine
Because breakdown body fat

Question 28

Q

11 for Tx for Hyperemesis Gravidarum

a. NPO for ________________________
b. IVFs __________________ml for 1st 24 hours
c. Antiemetic
d. Vitamins
e. Environment?_________________________
f. Oral hygiene
g. Is it okay to talk about food? ___________________
h. Why should the emesis basin be kept out of sight? ______________________
i. 6-8 small, dry feedings followed by ________________ ________________
j. Foods/liquids should be ________________ or ______________
k. Well-ventilated room

Answer

A

Tx:
a. NPO for ________________48hrs_
b. IVFs _______________3000 ccc___ml for 1st 24 hours
c. Antiemetic
d. Vitamins
e. Environment? ___________quiet_
f. Oral hygiene
g. Is it okay to talk about food? __________no__
h. Why should the emesis basin be kept out of sight? ______out of sight out of mine
i. 6-8 small, dry feedings followed by _________clear liquids___ ________________
j. Foods/liquids should be _________icey cold___ or _____steamy hot__
k. Well-ventilated room

Question 29

Q

Preeclampsia:
1. Definition:
a. Increased BP, proteinuria, edema after ________week
b. If Mom’s pre-pregnant baseline BP is not known then ________considered to
be mild preeclampsia

Answer

A

Preeclampsia:
1. Definition:
a. Increased BP, proteinuria, edema after ________20 week
b. If Mom’s pre-pregnant baseline BP is not known then ________130/9_ is considered to
be mild preeclampsia

Question 30

Q

5 S/S: preeclampsia
a. Sudden \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ gain
b. Face and hands swollen
• Why? They are losing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, fluid doesn’t stay in vascular
space, it leaks into the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
c. Headache,blurredvision,seeings pots
d. Hyper-reflexia (increased DTRs)
e. Clonus→Seizure

Answer

A

S/S:
a. Sudden ____________weight_ gain
b. Face and hands swollen
Why? They are losing ________________protien( albumin), fluid doesn’t stay in vascular
space, it leaks into the __________tissues.
c. Headache, blurred vision, seeing spots
d. Hyper-reflexia (increased DTRs)
e. Clonus→ Seizure- Vasospasms ( keyword for PIH)
When you see a client that gains 2 or more pounds in a week watch closely and worry about
PIH,

For PIH check BP and the urine for protein

Question 31

Q

When you see a client that gains 2 or more pounds in a week watch closely and worry about
____?

Answer

A

When you see a client that gains 2 or more pounds in a week watch closely and worry about
PIH

Question 32

Q

Preeclampsia mild tx

Tx:
a. Mild
• BP _____ off their baseline documented 6 hours apart.
• Mild: __________ as much as possible.
• Increase what in their diet? _______________________
• They have glomerular damage with proteinuria.

Answer

A

a. Mild
BP 30/15 off their baseline documented 6 hours apart.
Mild: _____bedrest_ as much as possible.
Increase what in their diet? ______________protein_
They have glomerular damage with proteinuria

Question 33

Q

Severe tx for Preeclampsia

BP elevated _______ documented _______hours apart.

Sedation to delay ___________________________

__________ is the drug of choice

Answer

A

b. Severe:
BP elevated 160/110 documented 6 hours apart.
Sedation to delay ________seizures__
Magnesium Sulfate is the drug of choice

Question 34

Q

MagnesiumSulfate:anticonvulsant,sedative,vasodilators

MagnesiumSulfate:anticonvulsant,sedative,vasodilator
1) Vasodilation will increase _____________ ___________ and helps avoid
renal failure and increases placental perfusion.

2) Positioning: NEVER lay a pregnant lady on her back, because this will place pressure on the vena cava→ impair kidney perfusion→ impair cardiac output→ impair kidney perfusion→ impair placenta perfusion.
• Always place pregnant lady on her ____________. (preferably left side)
3) Magnesium sulfate is a simple salt solution (hypertonic) → fluid is attracted back into the vascular space and out of the tissues→ kidneys will diuresis→ if kidney function is impaired, or shift occurs too fast→ the client is at high risk for __________ ___________.
4) Nursing action for client receiving Magnesium:
• When Magnesium Sulfate is used, checks for magnesium toxicity should
be done q ______________.
• These include: BP, respirations, DTRs, & LOC.
• _____________________ is monitored hourly & serum magnesium is checked periodically.
• If Magnesium Sulfate is used labor will stop unless augmented with Oxytocin (Pitocin®)
We use magnesium for __________ labor.
d. If diastolic > 100→ Apresoline (Hydralazine®) in combination with magnesium sulfate.
• Side effects: ______________________
e. Only cure? ____________________
f. After delivery, the client is at risk for seizures for 48 hours.

Answer

A

Magnesium Sulfate: anticonvulsant, sedative, vasodilator
1) Vasodilation will increase _____renal perfusion___ and helps avoid
renal failure and increases placental perfusion.

2) Positioning: NEVER lay a pregnant lady on her back, because this will place
pressure on the vena cava ( because the full uterus will rise to the upper abdominal cavity and put pressure on the vena cava)→ perfusion→ impair cardiac
output→ impair kidney perfusion→ impair placenta perfusion.
Always place pregnant lady on her ___side_.
(preferably left side)
3) Magnesium sulfate is a simple salt solution (hypertonic) → fluid is attracted
back into the vascular space and out of the tissues→ kidneys will diuresis→ but if
kidney function is impaired, or shift occurs too fast→ the client is at high risk
for ___pulmonary enema.

4) Nursing action for client receiving Magnesium:
When Magnesium Sulfate is used, checks for magnesium toxicity should
be done q ___1-2 hrs__.
These include: BP, respirations, DTRs ( this is the first to go if the pt is toxic on mg), and LOC.
_____________ urinary output___ is monitored hourly ( because this how we excrete Mg) and serum magnesium is
checked periodically ( usually abt every 8ht is typical)

If Magnesium Sulfate is used labor will stop unless augmented with
Oxytocin (Pitocin®)
We use magnesium for _________preterm_ labor. Because it causes the uterus to relax
d. If diastolic > 100→ Apresoline (Hydralazine®) in combination with magnesium
sulfate.
Side effects: ____ tachycardia_
e. Only cure? _________________delivery___
f. After delivery, the client is at risk for seizures for 48 hour

Question 35

Q

Nursing Care:

a. Single room
b. Very quiet environment
c. Dim the lights, no TV

To do what ????

Answer

A

decreasing ____stimuli

Question 36

Q

Preterm delivery=_______.
Additional treatment is steroid therapy for Preeclampsia

Given to patient that are high risk for preterm delivery
• Betamethasone (Celestone®) stimulates _____________ production in the
alveolar spaces and this causes less tension when the infant breathes.
• Steroid therapy given between ____________ & _________ gestation to reduce infant mortality.
• Expectant management: Balance the risk to mom vs. baby

Answer

A

Preterm delivery→ Immature lungs at birth.

d. Additional treatment is steroid therapy:
Betamethasone (Celestone®) stimulates _____ surfactant production in the
alveolar spaces and this causes less tension when the infant breathes.
Steroid therapy given between ___24__ &____34__ gestation to
reduce infant mortality.
Expectant management: Balance the risk to mom vs. baby

Question 37

Q

Vasoconstriction→ lack of

Answer

A

Vasoconstriction→ lack of blood flow to placenta→ leads to less oxygen and nutrients to fetus→ Preterm delivery→ Immature lungs at birth.

Question 38

Q

Eclampsia:

• What is the turning point from preeclampsia to eclampsia?

Answer

A

Eclampsia:

What is the turning point from preeclampsia to eclampsia? When they have a seizure

Question 39

Q

Tx: elcampsia
• Monitor the FHTs
• Watch \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• Watch for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ failure
• Monitor for: heart failure, stroke, heart attack, renal failure, DIC, HELLP syndrome, neurological damage, multisystem organ failure

Answer

A

Tx:
Monitor the FHTs
Watch _______labor
Watch for __________heart failure
Monitor for: heart failure, stroke, heart attack, renal failure, DIC, HELLP
syndrome, neurological damage, multisystem organ failure

Question 40

Q

Premature Labor:
1. Definition:
• Labor that occurs between ___________ weeks

Answer

A

J. Premature Labor:
1. Definition:
Labor that occurs between ____20 & 37__ weeks

Question 41

Q

Premature labor
a. Drug therapy to stop the labor:
1) Tocolytic: Terbutaline (Brethine)
• Side effects of Brethine? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ &amp; hyperactivity.
2) Mg Sulfate

3) Betamethasone (Celestone®)
• Given IM to mom
• The purpose is to stimulate maturation of the baby’s lungs in case preterm birth occurs.
4)b. Preterm labor can sometimes be stopped by _________________ Mom and by treating vaginal and urinary tract _________________.

Answer

A

1) Tocolytic: Terbutaline (Brethine)
Side effects of Brethine? _______increase pulse__ ______________ &
hyperactivity.

2) Mg Sulfate

3) Betamethasone (Celestone®)
Given IM to mom
The purpose is to stimulate maturation of the baby’s lungs in case preterm
birth occurs.
b. Preterm labor can sometimes be stopped by ______ hydrating__ Mom and by
treating vaginal and urinary tract ________infections.

Question 42

Q

Prolapsed Cord: 1. Definition:
a. When the umbilical cord falls down through _____________________
b. Most likely to happen when presenting part is not engaged and membranes
_____________________________

Answer

A

Prolapsed Cord:
1. Definition:
a. When the umbilical cord falls down through _________cervix
b. Most likely to happen when presenting part is not engaged and membranes
___________________Ruptures___

Question 43

Q

Nursing Actions: prolapsed cord
a. Important to check __________when membranes rupture either spontaneously or
artificially.
b. If cord is being compressed you would see variable deceleration in FHT, so an immediate _______________________ is indicated.
Warning:
c. If cord ceases to pulsate→ fetal _________________ has occurred;
• We want the cord to pulsate because this tells us baby is getting some oxygen

Answer

A

Nursing Actions:
a. Important to check ___fetal heart tones___when membranes rupture either spontaneously or
artificially.
b. If cord is being compressed you would see variable deceleration in FHT, so an
immediate _____c section is indicated.
Warning:
c. If cord ceases to pulsate→ fetal ______death____ has occurred;
We want the cord to pulsate because this tells us baby is getting some
oxygen

Question 44

Q

. Tx: Prolapsed cord
a. Lift head off cord until physician arrives if possible
• This is a manual lift, the nurse pushes the head up to relieve pressure on the ___________________.
b. Trendelenburg or ______________ chest position
c. AdministerOxygen
d. Monitor fetal heart tones.
e. Pushitbackin?____________

Answer

A

Tx:
a. Lift head off cord until physician arrives if possible
This is a manual lift, the nurse pushes the head up to relieve pressure on
the ________cord__.
b. Trendelenburg or _____knee __ chest position
c. Administer Oxygen
d. Monitor fetal heart tones.
e. Push it back in? _____no___

Question 45

Q

Shoulder Dystocia:

Definition:
a. Fetal head is delivered and further delivery of the fetus is prevented by the impaction of the fetal ___________ with the maternal __________.
b. Anterior shoulder of fetus becomes impacted by the symphysis pubis.

Answer

A

L. Shoulder Dystocia:
1. Definition:
a. Fetal head is delivered and further delivery of the fetus is prevented by the
impaction of the fetal ___shoulder__ with the maternal _____pelvis__.
b. Anterior shoulder of fetus becomes impacted by the symphysis pubis.

Question 46

Q

Risk to Fetus: shoulder dystocia
a. Hypoxia→ leads to cerebral palsy and asphyxia
b. Brachial plexus injury- leading to Erb’s Palsy (drooping/ paralysis of an arm
caused by excessive traction and stretching of the brachial nerve at delivery)
c. Broken __________________
d. Bell’s palsy is paralysis of face with drooping of one side of the face.
e. Causedfrom___________________
f. Many resolve, but can lead to permanent damage.

Answer

A

Risk to Fetus:
a. Hypoxia→ leads to cerebral palsy and asphyxia from cord compression
b. Brachial plexus injury- leading to Erb’s Palsy (drooping/ paralysis of an arm
caused by excessive traction and stretching of the brachial nerve at delivery)
c. Broken __ clavicle
d. Bell’s palsy is paralysis of face with drooping of one side of the face.
e. Caused from _________ forceps____
f. Many resolve, but can lead to permanent damage.

Question 47

Q

Maternal Risk: Shoulder Dystocia

a. Traumatic delivery leading to permanent damage.
b. Bruised bladder.
c. Extension of episiotomy
d. Rectal tear
e. Torn cervix and/oruterus

Answer

A

Maternal Risk:
a. Traumatic delivery leading to permanent damage.
b. Bruised bladder.
c. Extension of episiotomy
d. Rectal tear
e. Torn cervix and/or uterus

Question 48

Q

Who’s at risk: Shoulder Dystocia

a. LGA or macrosomic infants >4000 grams
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Previoushistoryofshoulderdystocia
d. Post date delivery→ large fetus

Answer

A

Who’s at risk:
a. LGA or macrosomic infants >4000 grams
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Previous history of shoulder dystocia
d. Post date delivery→ large fetus

Question 49

Q

Nursing Care: Shoulder Dystocia
a. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Maneuvers
b. Mazzanti techniques
• Never apply \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The physician must do this
or call another physician.

Answer

A

Nursing Care:
a. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ make Robert_ Maneuvers
b. Mazzanti techniques
Never apply \_\_\_\_ fondu pressure \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The physician must do this
or call another physician.

Question 50

Q

Group B Streptococcus (GBS)

Leading cause of neonatal morbidity.
Routinely assess for GBS risk factors during pregnancy (cultured around 35-37 weeks) and on admission to L & D.
Transmitted to infant from birth canal of the infected mother during delivery.
Risk for fetus is only after rupture of membranes.
Teaching: client needs to understand it is not a sexually transmitted disease (STD).
Risk factors for neonatal GBS: Preterm birth less than 37 weeks, + prenatal cultures in current pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes (longer than 18hr), positive history for early-onset neonatal GBS, intrapartum maternal fever higher than 100.4o F, previous infant with GBS.

Answer

A

Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
1. Leading cause of neonatal morbidity.
2. Routinely assess for GBS risk factors during pregnancy (cultured around 35-37
weeks) and on admission to L & D.
3. Transmitted to infant from birth canal of the infected mother during delivery.
4. Risk for fetus is only after rupture of membranes.
5. Teaching: client needs to understand it is not a sexually transmitted disease (STD).
6. Risk factors for neonatal GBS: Preterm birth less than 37 weeks, + prenatal cultures
in current pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes (longer than 18hr), positive
history for early-onset neonatal GBS, intrapartum maternal fever higher than 100.4º
F, previous infant with GBS.

Question 51

Q

Tx: Group B Streptococcus (GBS)

• Prophylactic antibiotic therapy, Penicillin is drug of choice.

Answer

A

Tx:

• Prophylactic antibiotic therapy, Penicillin is drug of choice.

Question 52

Q

Magnesium sulfate is a ____ ___ ____ (_______) → fluid is attracted back into the ___ space and out of the _____→ kidneys will diuresis→ if kidney function is impaired, or shift occurs too fast→ the client is at high risk for ___

Answer

A

Magnesium sulfate is a simple salt solution (hypertonic) → fluid is attracted back into the vascular space and out of the tissues→ kidneys will diuresis→ if kidney function is impaired, or shift occurs too fast→ the client is at high risk for ___

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COMPLICATIONS OF MATERNITY Flashcards

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