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Wolfpacc Clues Complete > Complete Deck Part 4 > Flashcards

Complete Deck Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What does Indirect Coombs Test tell you?

A

The Antibody is freely circulating in the serum

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2
Q

What are the ACE inhibitors?

A

Captopril, Enalapril, Fosinopril, Lisinopril

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3
Q

What does the Carnitine shuttle do?

A

FA transport into the mitochondria

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4
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Glucocorticoids?

A

Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome. (Adrenal insufficiency when drug stopped after chronic use)

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5
Q

What is the function of HPL?

A

Blocks insulin receptors so the sugar stays high, (baby is stocking up - hibernating)

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6
Q

What is Thought Insertion?

A

Believes that others are putting thoughts into his head

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7
Q

What is Benign Positional Vertigo?

A

Sensation of room spinningNausea/VomitingNystagmus without hearing loss or tinnitusOnset of symptoms when change position

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8
Q

What is Inflammatory Diarrhea?

A

Diarrhea with blood and pus

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9
Q

What does a mutase do?

A

Relocates a functional group within a moleculre (intrachain)

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10
Q

What is Gaucher’s?

A

Glucocerebrosidase (Beta-Glucosidase) deficiencywrinkled tissue Macrophage’sBone painpancytopenia

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11
Q

What are the Indications for Octreotide?

A

Acromegaly; Glucagonoma; Insulinoma; Carcinoid Syndrome

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12
Q

What causes non-bacterial Fetal infections?

A

“TORCHST- ToxoplasmaO - Others (HIV, Measles, B-19)R - RubellaC - CMVH - HSV-2S - Syphilis

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13
Q

What are the adverse effects of the Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

CNS stimulation and depressionCardiovascular depressionHyperkalemia increases toxicity

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14
Q

What is Sublimation?

A

Where socially unacceptable impulses or idealizations are unconsciously transformed into socially acceptable actions or behavior

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15
Q

What is Phimosis?

A

Foreskin scarred at penis head

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16
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) Deficiency?

A

Scurvy

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17
Q

What defines CLL?

A

50+ y/o males with lymphadenopathysoccer ball nucleiPresent with autoimmune Hemolytic anemia

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18
Q

What does Vit B12 do?

A

Cofactor for HMT & MMA

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19
Q

What GI disease has an Apple Core on X-Ray?

A

Colorectal Cancer

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20
Q

What are Burr Cell/ Echinocyte?

A

Seen in Pyruvate Kinase deficiencyLiver diseasePost splenectomy

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21
Q

What does a Synthetase do?

A

Consumes two substrates, uses ATP

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22
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

Changes leave the same amino acid

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23
Q

What does blood type AB tell you?

A

Have both Antigens (universal recipient)

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24
Q

What are the adverse effects of Diazoxide?

A

Hypoglycemia (reduces insulin release) and hypotension

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25
Q

What is Delusion?

A

Fixed false belief for more than one month and no effect to his normal livingTx: Atypical antipsychotic and psychotherapy

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26
Q

How do you know it’s an anaerobic infection?

A

gas and bad odor

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27
Q

What is SHeehan Syndrome?

A

Postpartum hemorrhage in pituitary, no LH or FSH = no periods, hyperplasia infarcts, no prolactin = no milk

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28
Q

What is the most common eye infection in New Born

A

First day - Clear discharge due to Silver NitrateFirst week - Gonorrhea (purulent discharge)Second week - ChlamydiaThird week - Herpes

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29
Q

What is Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Defective chloride transportermeconium ileussteatorrheaBronchiectasisChromosome 7

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30
Q

What is the MOA of adenosine?

A

Increase K+ efflux, hyperpolarizes the cell

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31
Q

What does Vit C do?

A

Collagen synthesisantioxidanthelps absorb FE++, necessary for Dopamine & hydroxylase for NE

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32
Q

What is assocaited with H. Pylori?

A

95% causative agent in Duodenal Ulcers

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33
Q

What organs have the most CD4 receptors?

A

Blood vesselsbraintesticlescervixrectum

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34
Q

What is the RBC normal lifespan?

A

120 days

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35
Q

What is a Somatotrope?

A

Growth hormone

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36
Q

What is Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Kid screams when mom leaves

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37
Q

What are the adverse effects of H2 blockers?

A

Prolactin release: Gynecomastia, decreased libido, impotence in malesCimetidine inhibits P450

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38
Q

What are Fibroids (Leiomyoma’s)?

A

Benign uterus smooth muscle tumorsubmucosal type: they bleedSubserosal type: they cause pain

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39
Q

What is Metabolic Syndrome X?

A

“Pre-DM” due to HTN, Dyslipidemia, Hyperinsulinemia, and Acanthosis Nigricans

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40
Q

Which cells express MHC-2?

A

Antigen presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils)

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41
Q

What is Non-competitive Inhibition?

A

Binds a regulatory site, no change in Km, Efficacy decreases, decreased Vmax

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42
Q

What is Fifth’s disease?

A

Erythema Infectiosum “Slapped Cheeks”B-19 ParvovirusAplastic anemia, in sickle cell patientsHydrops Fetalis

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43
Q

What are the adverse effects of Nesiritide?

A

Hypotension

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44
Q

What are the adverse effects of Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Prolongs refractory period in AV node Hyperkalelmia increases toxicity

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45
Q

What is a Basophil?

A

The allergy helper (IgE receptor - histamine release)

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46
Q

What is SCID?

A

No Thymus (no T-cells)frayed long bones (no B-cells)baby dies by 18 months

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47
Q

What does the Macula Densa do?

A

Measures osmolality (osmoles of solute-kg)

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48
Q

What type of people does Hep E like to infect?

A

Pregnant women (3rd trimester), Asians

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49
Q

What is Lobular Carcinoma?

A

Cells line up single file, contralateral breast is primary site of CA

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50
Q

Which stage of the Menstrual Cycle has the highest Estrogen levels?

A

Follicular stage (Has proliferative endothelium)

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51
Q

What is seen in Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Crew-cut on x-rayAvascular Necrosis of femur

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52
Q

What is Croup?

A

Respiratory condition that is usually triggered by an acute viral infection of the upper airway, steeple sign on x-ray, barking cough

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53
Q

What do T cell deficiency patients die of?

A

Viral infections, fungal, etcexcept bacterial

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54
Q

What can high Cholesterol Cause?

A

Atherosclerosis

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55
Q

How do tension headaches present?

A

“Band-like” pain starts in posterior neck, increases throughout the day, sleep disturbance

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56
Q

What are the Big Mama Anaerobes?

A

Bacteroides fragilisStreptococcus BovisC. MelanagosepticusC. Diff

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57
Q

What is Vascular “multi-infarct” dementia?

A

Sudden onset, uneven progression of deficits, “stair step” decline

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58
Q

What is Cephalohematoma?

A

Bleeding under bone (blood does not cross suture lines)

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59
Q

What bugs cause hospital abscesses?

A

Day 1-3: S. Aureus (lots of O2 present)Day 4-7: S. Viridans - no enzymeDay >7: Anaerobes - PMN’s

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60
Q

What is a Paranoid Personality Disorder?

A

Suspicious about everything, they use projection

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61
Q

What is Selective Mutism?

A

Kid talks sometimes

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62
Q

What is Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A

“Magical Thinking”, odd/bizarre behavior, people leave them alone because they are weird but they will interact if approached. Brief psychotic episode

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63
Q

What is Menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

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64
Q

What causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema Pallidum (Spirochete)

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65
Q

What is the only Gram-positive Endotoxin?

A

Listeria

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66
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Misoprostol?

A

Diarrhea; Contraindicated in women of childbearing potential abortion inducing drug

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67
Q

What is EC50?

A

Concentration of drug that produces 50% of maximal response

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68
Q

What is Oppositional Defiant Disorder?

A

Breaking the rules, defiant, noncompliant, resists authority, “bark is worse than bite”. Teach appropriate child management skills

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69
Q

What is Virilization?

A

Female that is Man like

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70
Q

What are the Microcytic Hypochromic Anemias?

A

Defect in Hb synthesis (RBC small and pale) “FAST lead”F - Fe DeficiencyA - Anemia of Chronic DiseaseS - Sideroblastic AnemiaT - Alpha and Beta Thalassemia’sL - Lead poisoning

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71
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 difference during a test?

A

Brain

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72
Q

What is associated with Staph Saprophyticus?

A

Seen in young girls / women who became sexually active, E. Coli is still the #1 cause of UTI’s

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73
Q

What is an Ependymoma?

A

Rosettes present in the 4th Ventricle, Hydrocephalus

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74
Q

What is Zellweger’s?

A

Neonatal Seizures

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75
Q

What does Atrial Natriuretic Peptide do?

A

Inhibits aldosterone and dilates the afferent arteriole

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76
Q

What is the most common type of Gallstone?

A

Cholesterol stone (not see on X-ray)

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77
Q

What is associated with N. Gonorrhea?

A

Pili, Urethritis, Tenosynovitis, Septic arthritis

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78
Q

What is a Xanthoma

A

Cholesterol build up (common at the elbow or Achilles tendon)

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79
Q

What is Berylliosis?

A

Radio, TV repair, aerospace manufacturing, Beryllium mining, or manufacturing of fluorescent light bulbs

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80
Q

What are the indications for Guaifenesin?

A

Minor upper respiratory tract infections, common cold w/ cough

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81
Q

What diagnosis has secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Renal failure

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82
Q

How does Chancroid present?

A

Painful with necrotic center, due to Haemophilus Ducreyi (Gram Negative rod)”School of Fish” pattern

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83
Q

What is Placenta Abruptio?

A

Severe pain due to premature separation of the placenta

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84
Q

What produces Currant Jelly Sputum

A

Klebsiella

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85
Q

What are the IgA protease bugs?

A

S. PneumoniaeH. InfluenzaM. Catarrhalis

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86
Q

What are the GLP-1 Analog drugs?

A

Exenatide and Liraglutide

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87
Q

What bug is associated with cat pee?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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88
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Stimulates osteoblast to activate osteoclasts, stimulates the reabsorption of Ca+ and the excretion of phosphate in the kidneys, and activation of vitamin D

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89
Q

What is FSGS?

A

Most common in IVDA, AA, Hispanics and HIV patients

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90
Q

What is the only statin to undergo renal excretion?

A

Pravastatin

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91
Q

What does hyperresonance tell you?

A

Air in that region of the lungs`

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92
Q

What has WBC Casts ONLY?

A

Pyelonephritis

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93
Q

What is the MOA of Metoprolol, Atenolol, Acebutolol, Esmolol?

A

Selective B1-Blockers

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94
Q

What is the MOA of PTU and Methimazole?

A

Inhibits peroxidase enzyme in Thyroid and Decreases synthesis of Thyroid Hormones

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95
Q

What is associated with Corynebacterium Diphtheriae?

A

Chinese letters under microscope, gray Pseudomembrane, heart block, suffocation = death, ADP Ribosylates EF2, Elek’s Test

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96
Q

What is Epididymitis?

A

Unilateral scrotal pain decreased by support

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97
Q

What is the Adverse effect of Biguanides?

A

Lactic Acidosis (Contraindicated in renal failure) Stop use in patients undergoing studies using contrast

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98
Q

What is the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Automatic stuff… i.e. breathing, heartbeat

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99
Q

What causes Neonatal Blindness

A

Chlamydia

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100
Q

What is Eclampsia?

A

HTN with seizures

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101
Q

What is Condylomata Lata?

A

Flat fleshy warts, ulcerate = secondary syphilis

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102
Q

How much weight should a woman gain during Pregnancy?

A

1 lb/ week

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103
Q

What is Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder?

A

Perfectionist, doesn’t show feelings, detail oriented, uses isolation

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104
Q

Which cytokine is released when a macrophage is activated?

A

IL-1

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105
Q

How does an epidural hematoma present?

A

Intermittent consciousness (lucid interval)

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106
Q

What has a friction rub while holding breath?

A

Pericarditis

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107
Q

What does biotin donate methyl groups for?

A

Carboxylation

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108
Q

What is associated with H. Influenzae?

A

Gram-negative Pleomorphic Rod, Factors V and X, 5 carbon Ribose capsule, HiB type causes Meningitis, Epiglottitis, and Sepsis

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109
Q

What is Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Ashleaf spots (hypopigmentation)Primary brain tumorsHeart RhabdomyolysisRenal cell CAShagreen spots (leathery)

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110
Q

What is Vernix?

A

Cheesy baby skin. (protects the baby’s skin from the outside world and helps with passage through the birth canal)

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111
Q

What is Postpartum Depression?

A

Depression post-delivery for more than 2 weeks

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112
Q

What does Vit B1 do?

A

Dehydrogenasestransketolase (PPP)cofactors

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113
Q

What does DES taken by Mom cause in her Daughter?

A

Adenomyosis, menorrhagia, clear cell CA of the vagina, recurrent abortions

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114
Q

What are the Osmotic Laxatives?

A

Magnesium hydroxide, mag citrate, polyethylene glycol, Lactulose

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115
Q

What diseases have metabolic alkalosis?

A

Low volume state: vomiting, diuretics, GI blood loss

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116
Q

What are the Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide

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117
Q

What bacteria cause diarrhea <8 hours after introduction?

A

“CBS”C - ClostridiumB - Bacillus CereusS - Staphylococcus aureus

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118
Q

What is Maple Syrup Urine disease?

A

Defective metabolism of branched aa (Leu, Iso, Val) -> aa leak out, urine smells like Maple syrup/ burnt sugar, defect of branched chain alpha Keto acid Dehydrogenase

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119
Q

What is Milia?

A

Neonatal white or pale yellow heads on malar area

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120
Q

What is Toxoplasmosis?

A

Multiple ring enhancing lesions, loves parietal love, from cat urine and feces

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121
Q

What is Apocrine?

A

Apex of the cell is secreted

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122
Q

What states have increased Estrogen?

A

Pregnancy, liver failure, P-450 inhibition, and obesity

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123
Q

What are the adverse effects of Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine?

A

HTN, CNS stimulation/ anxiety

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124
Q

What is von Gierke?

A

G-6 Phosphatase deficiencysevere fasting hypoglycemiahepatomegalyincreased lactase and uric acid levels

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125
Q

What hormones produce Basophila?

A

“B FLAT”: Basophils, FSH, LH, ACTH, and TSH

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126
Q

What is Huntington’s?

A

Occurs in the caudate/putamen, Trinucleotide repeat disorder (Chromosome 4, CAG), choreiform movements, changes in personality, anticipation

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127
Q

What is Oligomenorrhea?

A

Too few periods

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128
Q

What bug loves the temporal love?

A

HSV

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129
Q

What is an Encephalocele?

A

Brain tissue herniation

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130
Q

What is Karyolysis?

A

Nucleus dissolves

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131
Q

What is Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion, usually due to anovulation

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132
Q

What has a friction rub while breathing?

A

Pleuritic

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133
Q

What is Hemochromatosis?

A

Fe deposit in organs

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134
Q

What is an Acute Rejection?

A

Occurs 4 days to months later. T-cell and macrophage response

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135
Q

What are the indications for Methyldopa?

A

HTN

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136
Q

What does secretin do?

A

Secretion of bicarbonate, inhibit gastrin, tighten Pyloric Sphincter, and secreted by S-cell Duodenum

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137
Q

When does Implantation occur?

A

1 week after fertilization

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138
Q

What is Comedocarcinoma?

A

Multiple focal areas of necrosis (blackheads) DCIS

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139
Q

What is Vestibular Neuritis?

A

Inflammation of the vestibular portion (CN8), Could be associated with viral infection, characterized by vertigo and dizziness

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140
Q

What is the MOA of Potassium on the heart?

A

Depresses ectopic pacemaker in hypokalemia

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141
Q

What is a Nephroblastoma?

A

Abdominal mass due to enlarged “Wilm’s Tumor”, hemihypertrophy and Aniridia

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142
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed speech developement?

A

Hearing loss

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143
Q

What is the Peripheral Nervous System?

A

Everything except the brain and spinal cord. Myelination by the schwann cells

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144
Q

What is Imitation?

A

Replicating another’s behavior

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145
Q

What is Cholelithiasis?

A

Formation of gallstones

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146
Q

What is the most common cause of Vaginal Bleeding in Post-menopausal women?

A

Endometrial CA

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147
Q

Can you die during Opiod Withdrawal?

A

No, just very painful

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148
Q

What are the symptoms of Amniotic Fluid Emboli?

A

Mom just delivered Baby and mom has SOB, due to PE, leads to death

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149
Q

What is Nephritic Kidney Disease?

A

Inflammation with protein loss <3.5 in urineIncreased size of Fenestrations, RBC casts, HTN

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150
Q

What is your maximum heart rate?

A

220 minus the person’s age

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151
Q

What are the indications for Reserpine?

A

HTN

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152
Q

What is seen in Calcium deficiency?

A

Poor bone and teeth development

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153
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s Syndrome?

A

Physiological shunt from left to right now changes right to left

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154
Q

What are some PPIs?

A

Omeprazole, Lansoprazole

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155
Q

What kind of Patients does Staph and Pseudomonas like to attack?

A

DM, CF, Burn Patients, Neutropenic patients

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156
Q

What does a Transferase do?

A

Relocates a functional group from one molecule to another

157
Q

What is associated with P. Mirabilis?

A

Staghorn Calculus, UTI, Urease Positive, Treat with Norfloxacin

158
Q

What is Emphysema?

A

Obstructive diseaseAlpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

159
Q

What is PSGN?

A

Most common in kids. Subepithelial humps (IgG/C3/C4 deposition) lumpy bumpy on EM and ASO antibodies

160
Q

What is Sixth’s DIsease?

A

Roseola, Exanthema Subitum (fever disappears then rash appears)

161
Q

What is a Lymphocyte?

A

The warrior - T, B, and NK cells

162
Q

What disease has a “3” shape on x-ray?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

163
Q

What is MPGN

A

Tram tracks seen (Type II has low C3) on LM

164
Q

What is Peutz Jegher Syndrome?

A

Hyper-pigmented lower lip, patients will have dark gyms and vagina, and small bowel polyps

165
Q

What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

A

NADPH Oxidase deficiency - they have recurrent Staph / Aspergillus infections (Nitro-blue Tetrazolium Stain Negative) or Dihydrorhodamine flow and Cytometry test

166
Q

What is Type 2B Hyperlipidemia?

A

Deficiency of adipose receptors and LDL receptors (Increased LDL and VLDL levels)

167
Q

What is the MOA of Nitroprusside?

A

Direct release of NO, increases cGMP, vasodilator

168
Q

What is a Tear Drop Cell/ Dacrocyte?

A

RBC’s squeezed out of bone marrow. (Seen in Hemolytic Anemia and bone marrow CA)

169
Q

What is Decreased beat-to-beat variability?

170
Q

What does Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP) do?

A

Increases insulin action, responsible for post-prandial hypoglycemia

171
Q

What is the difference between norepinephrine and epinephrine?

A

NE: NeurotransmitterEPI: Hormone

172
Q

What are the adverse effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Hyperkalemia, cough, angioedemacontraindicated in pregnancy (fetal renal malformations)

173
Q

What is Cataplexy?

A

Loss of muscle tone due to strong emotions

174
Q

What does dullness to percussion tell you?

A

Something between the airspace and chest wall absorbing sound, can be solid or fluid

175
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate a chronic carrier state?

A

HBsAg+, (>6 months), HBsAb (+/-)

176
Q

What are the Diastolic Blowing murmurs?

A

Aortic regurgitation, pulmonic regurgitation

177
Q

What is the MOA of Isoproterenol?

A

Non-specific, Beta-agonists;relates bronchial smooth muscle (B2)

178
Q

What does Exocrine mean?

A

Secreted into a duct

179
Q

What is Apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death, no inflammation, and cell membrane dissolved first. Nucleus guides death & destroyed last

180
Q

What are theh Renin-angio system effectors?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

181
Q

What are the most common symptoms of the Low Energy State?

A

Weakness and SOB

182
Q

What is Reynold’s Pentad?

A

Jaundice, Fever (usually with Rigors), RUQ Pain, Hypotension and change in mental status

183
Q

What does Ca2+ do?

A

Neuronal function, atrial depolarization, smooth muscle contractility

184
Q

What diseases have Granulomas?

A

“HiTTSS”Hi - Histiocytosis XT - TBT - The -Ella’sS - SarcoidosisS - Syphilis

185
Q

What is a Complete Breech?

A

Butt down, thighs, and legs flexed

186
Q

What is Grey-Turner’s Sign?

A

Bleed into Flanks and caused by Hemorrhagic Pancreatitis (early signs)

187
Q

What is associated with Francisella Tularensis?

A

Ulcers at rabbit or deer tick bite siteRx: Streptomycin

188
Q

What is associated with Bartonella Henselae?

A

Cat Scratch = Single painful lymph node, Stains silver

189
Q

What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?

A

Socially withdrawn, afraid of rejection but wants to fit in

190
Q

What is a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

A

Ovarian CA that has spread to the umbilicus(Also GI cancers can cause) (Indicates metastasis)

191
Q

What does the Core Ab tell you?

A

Past infection

192
Q

What is associated with Clostridium Melangosepticus?

193
Q

What is a Neuroblastoma?

A

Adrenal medulla tumor in kids, dancing eyes and feet and secretes catecholamine’s

194
Q

What are the inidcations for Cromolyn?

A

Asthma prophylaxis

195
Q

What is Rationalization?

A

Make excuses for behavior in advance, (because of…)

196
Q

What are the indications for Nesiritide?

A

Acute decompensated heart failure

197
Q

How do you measure afferent renal function?

A

Creatinine or Inulin

198
Q

What is a Spherocyte?

199
Q

What is Thought Broadcasting?

A

Believes that everyone can read his thoughts

200
Q

What is associated with Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Parakeets and Parrots are the carrier agent

201
Q

What does high WBC and >5% Blasts tell you?

202
Q

What does a high WBC and <5% Blasts tell you?

A

Leukemoid reaction - seen in burn patients or any extreme stress (extreme demargination looks like Leukemia), Metamyelocytes => Myelocytes

203
Q

What is Displacement?

A

Take anger out on an object or someone else. Not related with situation

204
Q

What is Turcot’s Syndrome?

A

Familial Polyposis with Brain Tumors

205
Q

What is Central Pontine Myelinolysis?

A

This happens when you correct serum sodium faster than 0.5 mEq/hr. (infarct the PONS- patient can only blink)

206
Q

How does trigeminal neuralgia (Tic Douloureux) present?

A

Sharp, shooting face pain, recurrent episodes

207
Q

What does an AFI <5 indicate?

A

Oligohydramnios (Cord compression)

208
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Glycogenesis?

A

Glycogen Synthase. Occurs in the Cytoplasm of Liver and muscle

209
Q

What is Bronze diabetes?

A

Fe deposit in pancreas

210
Q

What does Aldosterone do?

A

Reabsorbs Na+ and three waters

211
Q

What is Chronic Pelvic Pain?

A

Endometriosis until proven otherwise

212
Q

What is Late Deceleration?

A

Due to uteroplacental because the placenta cannot provide oxygen and nutrients

213
Q

What are the CSF lab values for Meningitis?

A

PMN’s -> BacteriaT cells / Macrophages -> Non-bacterialNormal Glucose -> Viral

214
Q

What is the Clotting Cascade?

A

The cascade that stops you when you bleed

215
Q

What is the MOA of Statins?

A

Inhibit HMG CoA reductase

216
Q

What are the Holosystolic murmurs?

A

Tricuspid RegurgMitral RegurgVSD

217
Q

What is Stage 1 of Labor?

A

Starts with the onset of true labor and lasts until the cervix is completely dilated to 10 cm

218
Q

What are the Vasculitis associated with LOW C3?

A

“PMS in Salt Lake City”Post-Strep GNMembranoproliferativeGlomerulonephritis Type IISub Bacterial endocarditisSerum SicknessLupusCryoglobulinemia

219
Q

What is the MOA of albuterol?

A

B2 agonist; relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

220
Q

What is Factitious?

A

Fake illness to get attention, seeks medical treatment, have a lot of medical knowledge.Tx: Supportive psychotherapy

221
Q

What is Condyloma Acuminata?

A

Verrucous “cauliflower” warts, koilocytes, due to HPV 6 and 11

222
Q

What is Osmotic Diarrhea?

A

High osmolality in the bowel pulling water into the lumen

223
Q

What defines Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

EBV and may have Reed-Sternberg cells

224
Q

What is Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

A

Rh+ mom’s blood mixes the Rh- fetal blood in first pregnancyNo risk to this childAll pregnancies to follow will be a risk, leading to a fetal demise

225
Q

What is associated with Chlamydia Pneumonia?

A

Staccato coughing, parasite with DNA and RNAs:Elementary body (Infectious phase) Reticulate Body (resting phase - can’t divide)

226
Q

What is the only Gram-positive Diplococci?

A

Streptococcus Pneumonia

227
Q

What is the humoral immune response?

A

B-cells and PMN’s patrol the blood looking for bacteria

228
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Infliximab?

A

Respiratory infection (including reactivation of latent TB) fever, hypotension

229
Q

What are the indications for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Strong decrease LDLDecrease TriglyceridesIncrease HDL

230
Q

What does a Galactokinase deficiency cause?

231
Q

What is the most common extracellular buffer?

232
Q

What is associated with Bacillus Cereus?

A

Fried rice syndrome, preformed toxin

233
Q

What is Compensation?

A

Doing something different of what you used to do

234
Q

What is the color of air on X-ray?

A

Black “radiolucent”

235
Q

What stage of the menstrual cycle has the highest Temperature?

A

Ovulatory stage, body temp will rise One degree during ovulation

236
Q

What bug loves the DCML tract?

237
Q

What are the indications for 2nd generation H1 Blockers?

238
Q

Who Makes the Trophoblast?

239
Q

Waht is the rate-limiting enzyme in Cholesterol syntesis?

A

HMG CoA Reductase

240
Q

What makes an adequate sputum sample?

A

<10 epithelial cells and >25 leukocytes per low power field

241
Q

What are the indications from Magnesium?

A

Effective in Torsades and Dig toxicity

242
Q

What are the adverse effects of Salmeterol?

A

Tremor and arrhythmia

243
Q

What is the indication for Isoproterenol?

A

Bronchoconstriction due to sympathetic tone

244
Q

What is Pathological Gambling?

A

Can’t stop gambling, affects others

245
Q

What is the sign of a Clavicle Fracture?

A

Asymmeteric Moro reflex

246
Q

What is an Astrocytoma?

A

Rosenthal fibers - #1 in kids with occipital headache

247
Q

What is Heavy Chain Disease?

A

Increased IgA

248
Q

What GI disease has a Bird’s Beak on X-Ray?

A

Achalasia (Think Chagas disease)

249
Q

What is Carcinoid syndrome?

A

Flushing, wheezing, diarrhea

250
Q

What are the Indications for Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

251
Q

What is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

A

Increased cysts. No ovulation due to no Progesterone, leads to increased Endometrial CA, they cannot inhibit LH, obese, hairy, acne

252
Q

What is the CBC for every basculitis?

A

Decreased: RBC and plateletsIncreased: WBC, T-Cells, Monocytes, Schistocytes, ESR

253
Q

What is associated with Mycoplasma Pneumoniae?

A

Bullous myringitis, Ground Glass CXR, P-1 Protein, Erythema Multiforme

254
Q

What are the risk factors for Primary Liver Cancer?

A

Hepatitis B & C, Aflatoxin, Alcohol, Smoking and Hemochromatosis

255
Q

What are the Pyrimidines?

256
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Desmopressin (DDAVP)/ADH?

A

Over hydration and allergic reaction

257
Q

What is a Sliding Hiatal Hernia?

A

Fundus of the stomach herniates through the Esophageal Hiatus into the Thorax

258
Q

What is t1/2?

A

Half-life, the time it takes the body to use half of the drug ingested

259
Q

What is the job of the early distal tubule?

A

Concentrate urine by reabsorbing NaCl

260
Q

What is the thyroid hormone levels during Pregnancy?

A

Increased TBG - leads to increased total T4 (Bound and free)

261
Q

What is seen with Varicella (Chickenpox)?

A

Red macule clear vesicle on red dotPus and scabbingvarious stages of healing

262
Q

What is Cabot’s Ring body?

A

Seen in Vitamin B12 Deficiency and lead poisoning

263
Q

What is intra-Renal Failure?

A

Damaged Glomerulus or tubules; BUN: Creatinine Ratio <20/1

264
Q

What is Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Overriding aorta: Aorta sits on intraventricular Septum giving rise to a VSD, this in turn causes Pulmonary Stenosis and ultimately right heart failure (boot shape x-ray)

265
Q

What organs do not require insulin to absorb glucose?

A

“BRICKLE”: Brain, RBC, Intestine, Cardiac / Cornea, Kidney, Liver and Exercising muscle

266
Q

What receptors do Protein Hormones use?

A

Cell membrane receptors

267
Q

What is an Esophageal Atresia with a TE Fistula (C-Type)?

A

Baby vomits with first feeding, large gastric bubble and distended abdomen (failure of apoptosis)

268
Q

What is Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?

A

Arylsulfatase A defieciencychildhood multiple sclerosis with Ataxia/Dementiaaccumulation of Cerebroside Sulfate

269
Q

What are the catabolic pathways that create energy? (Occur in the Mitochondria)

A

Acetyl-CoA production, Beta-oxidation, citric acid cycle, Ketogenesis, Ox Phos

270
Q

What are Plasma Neoplasms?

A

They produce many antibodies

271
Q

What does the Direct Coombs Test tell you?

A

ANtibody on surface (seen in hemolytic anemia)

272
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Metoclopramide?

A

Increased Parkinsonian effects, restlessness, drowsiness, fatigue, depression, nausea, diarrheaDrug interaction with digoxin and diabetic agentscontraindicated in small bowel obstruction

273
Q

What does Glucagon do?

A

Active in Gluconeogenesis, Glucogenolysis, Lipolysis, and Ketogenesis

274
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Purine synthesis?

A

Glutamine - PRPP

275
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Decreased ach in nucleus basalis of Meynert, bad Apo-E4, Amyloid Plaques, Neurofibrillary Tangles of Tau proteins

276
Q

What is Essential Thrombocythemia?

A

Very high platelets increased RBC’s and WBC’s

277
Q

What does Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) do?

A

Conserves water (V2 aquaporin receptors) and vasoconstriction

278
Q

What does Tracheal deviation tell you?

A

Moves away from tensionPneumothorax moves towards Atelectasis

279
Q

What CA risk does VHL have?

280
Q

What GI disease has a Corkscrew on X-Ray?

A

Esophageal spasm and Volvus

281
Q

What is Carcinoid Syndrome (Triad)?

A

Diarrhea, flushing and wheezing

282
Q

Can you try a Vaginal Delivery on a woman who had a LOW Transverse C-Section previously?

A

Yes, 70% are okay, Potential for uterine wall rupture

283
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

Transmural, Cobblestones, Melena, Creepig Fat, Fistula, Skip lesions

284
Q

What are Loose Associations?

A

Ideas switch subjects, incoherent

285
Q

What is Idealization?

A

They see only the good in someone despite evidence to the contrary

286
Q

What GI disease has a stacked coin on X-Ray?

A

Intussusception

287
Q

What is Tangentiality?

A

Wanders off the point

288
Q

What is Graft vs. Host Disease?

A

When the graft attacks the body (T-Killer cells and macrophages responded)

289
Q

What are the Indications for Infliximab?

A

Crohn’s Disease, Rheumatoid arthritis

290
Q

What is the time course of the inflammatory response?

A

1 hour: swellingDay 1: PMN’s show upDay 3: PMN’s peakDay 4: Monocytes/Macrophages and T-cells show upDay 7: Monocytes/ Macrophages and T-cells peak, Fibroblasts arriveDay 30: Fibroblasts peakMonth 3-6: Fibroblasts complete scar formation

291
Q

What has Tubular Casts?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

292
Q

What is the risk of Chorionic Villus Sampling?

A

Fetal limb defects. (Done at 9-12 weeks)

293
Q

What is Karyorrhexis?

A

Nucleus fragments

294
Q

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

IgM and Hyperviscosity of the blood

295
Q

What are Pencil Cell/ Cigar Cell?

A

Seen in iron deficiency anemia

296
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?

A

Anti-Mitochondrial antibody Bile ducts are destroyedXanthelasmas present and pruritis

297
Q

What is factitious hypoglycemia?

A

Exogenous insulin use, labs show elevated insulin and decreased C-peptide

298
Q

What are the adverse effects of the Ca2+ channel blockers?

A

Flushing, edema, constipation, CHF, AV block

299
Q

What disease does Coxsackie B cause?

A

Endocarditis, DM Type I

300
Q

When do you give RhoGam?

A

1st Dose: Week 28 gestation2nd Dose: 72 hours post-deliveryAny time a procedure would mix mom and fetal blood

301
Q

What are the IgA Nephropathies?

A

HSPBerger’sAlport Syndrome

302
Q

What is Paracrine?

A

Works on its neighbor. (except sweat gland)

303
Q

What does “Cytosis” tell you?

A

High levels

304
Q

What is Justification?

A

Making excuses for behavior afterwards

305
Q

What are the Biguanides drugs?

306
Q

What are the glycogenic amino acids?

A

His, Met, Val

307
Q

What are the indications for Hydralazine?

A

Severe HTN, 1st line treatment for HTN in pregnancy

308
Q

What are the hormones with disulfide bonds?

A

“PIIG”: Prolactin, Insulin, Inhibin, GH (growth hormone)

309
Q

How do i know the patient has a Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) Deficiency?

A

Angular Cheilosis

310
Q

What does Vit B9 do?

A

Nuclear division (Synthesis of Nitrogenous bases for RNA and DNA)

311
Q

What is Glanzmann’s?

A

Baby with bleeding from skin and mucosa (LOW GP-2b3a)

312
Q

What is Exhibitionism?

A

Exposure to others

313
Q

How does the Sympathetic System behave?

A

Opposite of Parasympathetic:ConstipationUrinary retentionMydriasis - “Eyes wide with fright”TachycardiaBronchodilateEjaculation “Shoot”Xerophthalmia (dry eyes)Xerostomia (Dry mouth)

314
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of Sulfonylureas?

A

Closes K+ channel in the pancreatic Beta cell membrane, Reduces K+ efflux & increases Ca (2+) influx, and cell depolarize to increase secretion of insulin

315
Q

What does the Progesterone Challenge Test tell you?

A

Vaginal bleeding if she has estrogen. If she does not bleed, she has no E2 or ovariesIncreased FSH: Ovary problemDecreased FSH: Pituitary problem

316
Q

What are the classifications of MHC-1?

A

HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C

317
Q

How does chlamydia present?

A

Cervicitis (Yellow pus), conjunctivitis, PID

318
Q

What is Total Anomalous Pulmonary return?

A

All pulmonary veins enter into the right atrium (Snowman x-ray)

319
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Ketogenesis?

A

HMG CoA Synthase

320
Q

What is Herpes?

A

ds DNA virus

321
Q

What is the Stage II of Labor?

A

Continues after the cervix is dilated to 10 cm until the delivery of the baby

322
Q

What is the difference between Heterochromatin and Euchromatin?

A

Hererochromatin = tightly coileddarkerTranscriptionally inactiveEuchromatin = loose (10nm fibers)lighter

323
Q

What are the LIVE Vaccines?

A

“Bring Your Own Very Small Virus and MMR”B - BCGY - Yellow FeverO - OPV (Sabin) = oral polioV - VaricellaS - SmallpoxV - RotavirusM - Measles = RubeolaM - MumpsR - Rubella = German 3 day measles

324
Q

What murmur has a regular-irregular pulse?

325
Q

What disease has a Thumb Sign on neck films?

A

Epiglottitis

326
Q

What is Restrictive Lung disease?

A

small still lungs, can’t get air in

327
Q

What symptoms does a “less likely to depolarize” state have?

A

Brain: lethargic, mental status changes, depressionSkeletal Muscle: weakness, SOBSmooth Muscle: constipation then diarrheaCardiac: hypotension, bradycardia

328
Q

What are the indications for Ezetimibe?

A

Decrease LDL

329
Q

What are the Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone

330
Q

What is the effect of Alcohol on the fetus?

A

FASSmooth philtrumshortpolyclonalmidface hypoplasiathin superior Vermilion border

331
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of Insulin?

A

Pushes K+ into the cell,Liver: Increases Glucose storage as Glycogen, Increases Triglyceride synthesis.Muscle: Increases protein and glycogen synthesis.Adipose Tissue: Improves Triglycerde storage by activating Lipoprotein Lipase, Decrease circulating Free Fatty Acids

332
Q

What causes Chancroid?

A

Haemophilus Ducreyi

333
Q

What is Telephone Scatologia?

334
Q

What is the MOA of ARBS?

A

Ang II blockers, prevernt alpha 1 vasoconstriction from Ang II

335
Q

What is a Missed Abortion?

A

Cervix is closed, no fetal remnantsTx. D&C

336
Q

What type of kidney stones have envelope or dumbbell-shaped crystals?

337
Q

What does the E Ab tell you?

A

Low transmissibility

338
Q

What is the cause of large babies?

A

DM or twin-twin transfusions

339
Q

What are the indications for Nitroprusside?

A

Hypertensive emergency, CHF, Angina

340
Q

What is the MOA of cromolyn?

A

Prevents release of mediators from mast cells

341
Q

What is Bismuth and Sucralfate used for?

A

Increase ulcer healing, traveler’s diarrhea

342
Q

What is a SIderoblast?

A

Macrophages pregnant with Iron (caused by genetics and or multiple transfusions)

343
Q

What is the MOA of Bile Acid resins?

A

Prevent intestinal reabsorption of bile acids, Liver must use cholesterol to make more

344
Q

What are the sympathoplegics?

A

Metoprolol, Atenolol, Acebutolol, Esmolol, Propranolol, Timolol, Carvedilol, Prazosin, Clonidine, Methyldopa, Hexamethonium, Reserpine, Guanethidine

345
Q

What is the MOA of Salmeterol?

A

B2 agonist; relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

346
Q

What is Bronchitis?

A

Increased sputum production “Blue Bloater”

347
Q

What is Type 2A Hyperlipidemia?

A

Defective LDL-Clathrin Pit or B-100 (LDL are elevated)

348
Q

What will you see with Anemia of Chronic Disease?

A

Decreased TIBC

349
Q

What will you see with Sideroblastic Anemia?

A

Decreased dALA synthase common with blood transfusions

350
Q

What are the adverse effects of Hexamethonium?

A

Severe orthostatic hypotension, blurred vision, constipation, sexual dysfunction

351
Q

What is the MOA of the K+ channel blockers?

A

Increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period (ERP), increase QT interval

352
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

esophageal webbing at the UES, spoon nails from iron deficiency anemia

353
Q

What is Cholestasis?

A

Obstructed bile ductHigh Alk Phos (if in the common bile duct)

354
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

Aorticopulmonary septum did not spiral, most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in the first month of life (Neural crest cell migration problem)

355
Q

What is Trichotillomania?

A

They pull out their own hair and eat it

356
Q

What is McCune-Albright?

A

Precocious sexual development, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia “whorls of connective tissue”, “coast of Maine” pigemented skin macules

357
Q

What is associated with Vibrio Parahaemolyticus?

A

Raw Fish, Gs Stimulation via ADP- ribosylation = HIGH cAMP, Turns the on… on

358
Q

How fast should B-HCG rise?

A

Shoulde double every 2 days until 10 weeks, stops when placenta is fully formed

359
Q

What are the indications for Methacholine?

A

Asthma challenge test

360
Q

What are some causes of Vitamine B12 deficiency?

A

TapewormsVeganismType A gastritisPernicious Anemia

361
Q

What does Vit D do?

A

Mineralization of bones and teeth

362
Q

What are the newborn screening tests?

A

“Please Check Baby Before Going Home”P - PKUC - CAH/ CFB - Biotinidase/ Beta- ThalassemiaG - GalactosemiaH - Hypothyroidism/ Homocystinuria

363
Q

What are the most common causes of mental retardation in the US?

A

FAS, Fragile X and Down’s Syndrome

364
Q

What is Wiskott-Aldrich?

A

Low IgM, Low PlateletsHigh IgAEczemaPetechiaeX-linked

365
Q

What is achondroplasia (Laron Dwarf)?

A

Patient with abnormal FGF receptors in exremities. (abnormal FGF3)

366
Q

What is Hemosiderosis?

A

Fe overload in bone marrow

367
Q

What is Poikilocytosis?

A

RBC’s of different shapes

368
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Mimetics?

A

Hypoglycemia, Nausea, Diarrhea

369
Q

What can high Triglycerides Cause?

A

Pancreatitis

370
Q

What is the MOA of a muscarinic antagonist?

A

competitively block muscarinic receptors preventing bronchoconstriction

371
Q

What are the methylxanthines?

A

Theophylline

372
Q

What is the function of T3 and T4?

A

Growth and differentiation

373
Q

What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?

A

Theatrical, sexually provocative, use repression

374
Q

What diseases have Respiratory Alkalosis?

A

Restrictive Lung diseaseAnxietyPregnancyGram neg sepsisPE

375
Q

What does Fe2+ do?

A

Hb function, electron transport

376
Q

What is RhoGam?

A

Anti-D IgG

377
Q

What is Pyromania?

A

Sets fires for the fun of it

378
Q

How does DKA present?

A

Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath (acetone), and altered mental status

379
Q

What is assocaited with Strep Bovis?

A

Colon Cancer, black pigment

380
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate non-infectious state?

381
Q

What bugs cause Bloody Diarrhea?

A

“CASES”: Campylobacter, AMoeba (Entamoeba Histolytica), Shigella, E. coli and Salmonella

382
Q

What are the only arteries with deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary and umbilical arteries

383
Q

What are the Long Acting Insulin drugs?

A

Ultralente, Glargine, and Protamine

384
Q

What is Sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granulomas, eggshell calcification around lymph nodes

385
Q

What sound radiates to the axilla?

A

Mitral regurgitation

386
Q

How is Major Depression diagnosed?

A

Need 5 of 8 “SIGECAPS” for over 2 weeksSleep disturbance: wake in early or wake up lateInterest/ libido lossGuiltEnergy LossConcentration LossAppetite LossPsychomotor AgitationSuicidal Ideation (hopelessness)

387
Q

What does somatostatin do?

A

Inhibits secretin, motilin, and CCK

388
Q

What is the Adverse Effect of Sulfonylureas?

A

Hypoglycemia, GI disturbances, Muscle weakness, mental confusion, Sulfur allergy

Wolfpacc Clues Complete (22 decks)

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