Complete Clue Deck (Advance Edit) Flashcards

1
Q

When should Intercourse be avoided during Pregnancy?

A

Cervical dilation, placenta previa, premature labor, vaginal bleeding, ruptured membranes, genital herpes

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2
Q

What is Type 2 RTA?

A

Proximal RTA: bad Carbonic Anhydrase, lost all HCO3-

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3
Q

What is Heavy Chain Disease?

A

IgA and Multiple Myeloma of the GI tract

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4
Q

What is Nihilism?

A

Feeling of “life is meaningless”

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5
Q

What is Forward Typing?

A

Uses Antibodies to detect Antigens

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6
Q

What is associated with Vibrio Vulnificus?

A

Raw Oyster - common in workers shucking the oysters, cellulitis in swimmer’s cuts

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7
Q

What is the MOA of Propranolol, Timolol?

A

B1 and B2 Blockers

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8
Q

What is Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease?

A

Mouth ulcers

Will not eat or drink

Palm and sole rash caused by Coxsackie A

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9
Q

What are the 2 kinds of partial seizures?

A

Simple (aware), complex (not aware)

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10
Q

What is an Omphalocele?

A

Intestines protrude out of the umbilicus covered by peritoneum

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11
Q

What is Clanging?

A

Words that sound alike

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12
Q

What is exudate?

A

Effusion of mostly proteinToo much protein: Will have —Purulent (from Bacteria),Hemorrhagic (from trauma, CA, PE)Fibrinous (from collagen vascular disease), Granulomatous (non-bacterial)

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13
Q

What are the Mimetic drugs?

A

Pramlintide

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14
Q

What is Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Stiff with visual hallucinations

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15
Q

What type of problem is there if serum Ca2+ and Serum PO4- change in same directions?

A

This is a secondary problem

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16
Q

What is the Pool Test?

A

Fluid in the vagina

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17
Q

What are the indications for Odansetron?

A

Control vomiting in patients undergoing chemo therapy and postoperatively

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18
Q

What is Kd?

A

Concentration of drug that binds 50% of receptors

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19
Q

What is associated with H. Aegyptius?

A

Swollen eyeball with pus

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20
Q

What is Overflow Incontinence?

A

Cannot completely empty bladder

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21
Q

How does Gonorrhea present?

A

Palmar pustules, arthritis/joint pain, urethral discomfor

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22
Q

What makes Achalasia unique?

A

Decreased Peristalsis and increased LES pressure

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23
Q

What is the MOA of Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine?

A

Sympathomimetic alpha-agonistsnon-prescription nasal decongestants

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24
Q

Where does DHT come from?

A

Testicles at puberty

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25
Q

What is Intraductal Papilloma?

A

Bleeding from the nippleMost common Breast CA

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26
Q

How does temporal arteritis present?

A

Pain with chewing, blind in one eye

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27
Q

What diseases have PIE syndrome?

A

Aspergillus, Loeffler’s, Churg-Strauss

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28
Q

What is associated with Fusobacterium?

A

Painful mouth ulcers, gum pus, Vincent’s angina

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29
Q

What is the MOA of ACE inhibitors?

A

Inhibits conversion of Ang I to Ang II, decreases Ang II

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30
Q

What is Central (neurogenic) diabetes insipidus?

A

Brain not making or producing enough ADH

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31
Q

What is Arnold-Chiari?

A

Foramen Magnum obstruction

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32
Q

What is 1st-order kinetics?

A

Constant drug percentage metabolism over time depends on drug concentration (rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration)

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33
Q

What does Vit B2 do?

A

FAD cofactor

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34
Q

Clues for atypical pneumonia?

A

Atypical pneumonia: prolonged illness, low fever, usually >40 y/oX-ray: diffuse, H. Influenza, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia

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35
Q

What does giving DDAVP during the Water deprivation tests tell you?

A

>50% increase (central complete DI),10-50% increase (central partial DI),<10% (psychogenic polydipsia),no change (nephrogenic DI)

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36
Q

What will you see with Alpha Thalassemia?

A

Seen in African Americans and Asian Americans (Chromosome 16- deletion)

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37
Q

What are the simple Gram Negative Bugs?

A

They lack Lipopolysaccharides,”Simple HE”H - H. InfluenzaE - E. Coli

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38
Q

What is a Neutrophil?

A

The Phagocyte (it has Antimicrobials, most abundant)

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39
Q

What is the MOA of Glucocorticoids?

A

Decrease production of Leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2

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40
Q

What is Transference?

A

Patient views doctor as parent

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41
Q

Where is the most common site of a Clavicle fracture due to birth?

A

Middle third of the Clavicle

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42
Q

What are the indications for Niacin?

A

Decrease LDL and TriglyceridesStrong increase HDL

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43
Q

What is Perseveration?

A

Keeps repeating the same words

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44
Q

What does the parathyroid cells secrete?

A

PTH

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45
Q

What is associated with Actinomyces?

A

Face Fistulas, Sulfur Granules

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46
Q

What is a Rolling Hiatal Hernia?

A

Bowel Protruded through a defect in the Diaphragm. This can strangulate the bowel and can cause Atelectasis

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47
Q

What is Mesenteric Ischemia?

A

Abdominal pain of of proportion to physical exam

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48
Q

What is the MOA of Diazoxide?

A

K+ channel opener, hyperpolarizes and relaxes smooth muscle

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49
Q

What is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

Anti-smooth muscle antibody (20-50%), bile ducts are scarred from inflammation, there is beading and onion skinning, it’s associated with UC and P-ANCA (80%)

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50
Q

What does the viral load tell you?

A

Progression of HIV

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51
Q

Which enlarged lymph nodes are most likely malignant?

A

Supraclavicular, Epitrochlear (above the elbow), inguinal

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52
Q

What is Velamentous Cord Insertion?

A

Fetal vessels insert between chorion and amnion

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53
Q

What is Common Variable Immuno. Def?

A

Young adults with B cells that do not work

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54
Q

What are the Indications for Oxytocin?

A

Induces labor and Controls uterine hemorrhage

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55
Q

What does Mg2+ do?

A

PTH and kinase cofactor

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56
Q

What are the risk factors for Lung CA?

A

Smoking, Radon, second hand smoke, pneumoconiosis (except Anthracosis)

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57
Q

What is the Adverse Effect for first generation Sulfonylureas?

A

Disulfiram like effects

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58
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Multiple osteolytic lesionsIncreased IgG and kappa light chainsRouleaux formation seen on slide

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59
Q

Clues for Typical pneumonia?

A

Typical pneumonia: short illness, high fever, usually >40 y/o, X-ray: one lobe, Streptococcus Pneumonia

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60
Q

What is Polycythemia Vera?

A

Hematocrit (Hct) >60% Decreased EPO, Budd-ChiariPruritis after bathing

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61
Q

What is the MOA of Mimetics?

A

Decreases Glucagon

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62
Q

What is Ascending Cholangitis?

A

Common bile duct infection due to stones

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63
Q

What does Growth Hormone (GH) do?

A

Stimulates growth, sends Somatomedin to growth plates, Gluconeogenesis by proteolysis

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64
Q

What is Anderson’s?

A

Branching enzyme deficiency, long chains of glycogen

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65
Q

What is the Sympathetic System?

A

Fight -or- Flight, speeds stuff up

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66
Q

What is a Double Footling Breech?

A

Two feet sticking outside the cervical OS

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67
Q

What vessel has the thickest layer of smooth muscle?

A

Aorta

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68
Q

What is Competitive Inhibition?

A

Fights for active site, no change in Vmax, potency decreases

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69
Q

What does blood type O tell you?

A

They have no antigens (Universal donor)

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70
Q

What does high WBC and B Cells tell you?

A

Bacterial infection

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71
Q

What are the Rapidly Dividing Cells of the Energy State?

A

Skin: dryNails: BrittleHair: AlopeciaLow Bone Marrow: SuppressedVasculature: Endothelium breaks downLungs: Infection / SOBKidney: PCT effecfted firstGI: N/V/DBladder: Decreased toneSperm: DecreasedGerm Cells: Predisposed to cancerBreasts: AtrophicEndometrium: Amenorrhea

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72
Q

What diseases are cause by the Ixodes Ticks?

A

Lyme Disease - bull’s eye lesionBabesiosis - Hemolytic AnemiaEhrlichiosis - puncture near eye

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73
Q

What does a Dehydrogenase do?

A

Catalyzes Oxidation-Reduction reactions (gaining or losing an electron)

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74
Q

What is Unconjugated Bilirubin?

A

Fat soluble and indirect Bilirubin

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75
Q

What is a transition?

A

Changes one purine to another purine

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76
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar Type I?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin buildupNewborn or infantsNo UDP-GTPhenobarbital yields no change

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77
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 difference after excercise?

A

Muscle

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78
Q

What are the bugs that cause gastroenteritis within 8 hours of eating the preformed toxin?

A

Staph Aureus (potato salad)Clostridium Perfringens (holiday turkey/ham)Bacillus Cereus (fried rice syndrome)

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79
Q

What are the most common places to metastasize to the brain?

A

From the lung, breast, and skin, present at the White-Grey Junction

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80
Q

What is Polyhydramnios?

A

Too much amniotic fluid (baby can’t swallow)

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81
Q

What is the function of GnRH?

A

Stimulates release of LH & FSH

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82
Q

What are the risk factors for Esophageal / Gastric CA?

A

Smoking, alcohol and nitrates

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83
Q

What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

A

Gradual or acute separation of the proximal femoral growth plate with femur head slipping off femoral neck and rotating into inferior-posterior position. Most common during puberty and more in overweight individuals, present with a limp and pain recurring often to the kneeLimited hip internal rotation and outward rotation of lump with hip flexionx-ray: epiphyseal displacement

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84
Q

FEV1/FVC in Restrictive lung disease

A

Normal or elevated

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85
Q

What has Waxy Casts?

A

Chronic Renal Failure

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86
Q

What are the only Gram-negative diplococci?

A

Neisseriamoraxella

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87
Q

How does a VIPoma present?

A

Watery diarrhea

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88
Q

What are the indications for the Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

Decrease AP duration, acute ventricular Arrhythmias, local anesthesia

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89
Q

What defines Diarrhea?

A

>200 grams of stool per day

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90
Q

What defines constipation?

A

Less than 3 bowel movements per week

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91
Q

What defines ALL?

A

0-15 year old males, bone pain, + PAS stain and +TdT. CALLA antigen positiveT (12;21)

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92
Q

What is the MOA of Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

Na+ channel blocker

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93
Q

What is a Duodenal Ulcer?

A

Pain 20-30 minutes after eating, relieved with food, caused by H. Pylori infection 80-90% of the time and weight gain

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94
Q

What is a Female Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

XX with LOW 21-OHase and HIGH Testosterone

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95
Q

What are the adverse effects of Acid Resins?

A

Tastes bad and causes GI discomfortbile decreases absorption of fat soluble vitaminscholesterol gallstones

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96
Q

What is Hurler’s?

A

Alph-L-Iduronidase deficiencyworse formGargoylismCorneal cloudingaccumulation of Heparin and Dermatan Sulfate

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97
Q

What are the indications for fibrates?

A

Strong decrease of triglyceridesslight decrease of LDLslight increase in HDL

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98
Q

What are the classifications of MHC-2?

A

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

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99
Q

What is Cori’s?

A

Debranching, a-1,6 glucosidase enzyme deficiencyshort branches of glycogenmilder form of von Gierke with normal lactate levelslimit-dextrin’s accumulate

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100
Q

How does Choanal Atresia Present?

A

Baby turns blue with feeding, pinks up when breast of bottle is removed (blocked nasal passages)

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101
Q

What is the job of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule?

A

Reabsorb Glucose, Amino Acids, Salt, Bicarb. >60-80% Reabsorption occurs here

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102
Q

What is Bronchiectasis?

A

Bad breath, purulent sputum, and hemoptysis

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103
Q

What electrolytes does the low volume state have?

A

Increased total Na+ (NET)Decreased serum Na (dilution effect)Decreased serum K+Increased serum pH

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104
Q

In what layers does a pseudo aortic aneurysm occur?

A

Intima and media layers

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105
Q

Who makes the Syncytiotrophoblast?

A

Mom and baby production of HCG and HPL

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106
Q

What is Metorrhagia

A

Bleeding or spotting in btwn periods

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107
Q

How does Spastic Colon present?

A

Intermittent severe cramps

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108
Q

What is selective IgG2 Deficiency?

A

Seen in patients with recurrent encapsulated infections

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109
Q

What diseases have respiratory acidosis?

A

Obstructive lung diseases

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110
Q

What is Prinzmetal’s angina?

A

Coronary Artery Spasm

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111
Q

What does high WBC and High PMN’s tell you?

A

Stress demargination. (Stress response - post trauma)

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112
Q

What causes a Cleft Palate?

A

Maxillary shelves did not fuse

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113
Q

What is Rouleaux formation?

A

Seen in Multiple Myeloma (Stacked coin look)

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114
Q

What is Neologisms?

A

New words

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115
Q

What is Nephrotic Kidney Disease?

A

Lostbasement membrange chargeProteinuria >3.5hypercoagulablelipiduria

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116
Q

What does a Phosphatase do?

A

Removes Phosphate from substrate

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117
Q

What bug loves the parietal lobe?

A

Toxoplasma

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118
Q

What bug is associated with Cat Scratch?

A

Bartonella Henselae

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119
Q

What is Selective IgA Deficiency?

A

Seen in transfusion, anaphylaxis, and mucus membrane infections

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120
Q

What is the Trough level?

A

2 hours before next dose (too high - give less often)

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121
Q

What is VHL?

A

Predisposes individuals to bnign and malignant tumors, AVM in the head, and retina (AD inheritance in Chromosome 3)

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122
Q

What causes a Cleft Lip?

A

Medial nasal prominence did not fuse

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123
Q

What is the MOA of Reserpine?

A

Prevents the storage of monoamines in synaptic vesicle

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124
Q

What are the 3 tests used to screen for HIV?

A

ELISA: Detects IgG Ab to p24 AgWestern Blot: ProteinsPCR: Detects Virus (used in babies)

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125
Q

What is Materninty Blues?

A

Postpartum crying and irritability

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126
Q

What are the inidications for PPIs?

A

Peptic ulcer, gastritis, mid-esophageal Reflux and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

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127
Q

What are the Ca2+ channel blockers?

A

Verapamil, Diltiazem

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128
Q

What is Conn’s Syndrome?

A

High Aldosterone (primary tumor), Cpatopril test makes it worse, and increase’s secretin hormone

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129
Q

What color is stool with a Lower GI Bleed?

A

Bright Red Blood (Hematochezia)

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130
Q

What is Type 5 Hypderlipidemia?

A

Defective enzyme and receptor (C-II) Elevated VLDL and ChylomicronsAssociated with DM

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131
Q

What is the RBC lifespan when there is a problem?

A

60-90 days (same time as the shelf life of blood bank units)

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132
Q

What sound radiates to the back?

A

Pulmonic stenosis

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133
Q

What is the MOA of Prazosin?

A

Alpha 1-Blocker, vasodilation, decreases TPR

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134
Q

What is Sandhoff’s?

A

Hexosaminidase A/B deficiency

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135
Q

What is the MOA of Octreotide (Synthetic analog of Somatostatin)?

A

Decreases release of GH, Gastrin, CCK, Carcinoid, VUP, Glucagon and Insulin

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136
Q

How is Smallpox different from Chickenpox?

A

Smallpox is on the face, same stage of development and fever

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137
Q

What is Diffusion?

A

From high to low concentration No ATP

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138
Q

What are the Fibrates?

A

Gemfibrozil, Clofibrate, Bezafibrate, Fenofibrate

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139
Q

What is Anthracosis?

A

Coal workers, extensive fibrosis

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140
Q

What is Conduct Disorder?

A

Younger than 18 y/o with traits of antisocial disorder: aggressive, disregard for authority/rules, no sense of guilt/remorse, harms animals, illegal activity “bite is worse than bark”. Behavioral therapy and antipsychotic

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141
Q

What are the names of the B vitamins?

A

“The Rich Never Lie about Panning Pyrite Filled Creeks”Vit B1 = ThiamineVit B2 = RiboflavinVit B3 = NiacinVit B4 = Lipoic acidVit B5 = Pantothenic acidVit B6 = PyridoxineVit B7 = BiotinVit B9 = FolateVit B12 = Cobalamin

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142
Q

What 5 bugs cause heart block infections?

A

Don’t TeLL Chaga”

D- Diphtheria

T- Typhoid Fever (Salmonella Typhi)

L- Legionella

L- Lyme Disease

C- Chagas Disease (Whipple’s)

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143
Q

What is a Complete Abortion?

A

Cervix is closed, no fetal remnants, check B-HCG level

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144
Q

What is a “Blue Bloater”?

A

Chronic Bronchitis

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145
Q

What are the Indications for ACE inhibitors?

A

HTN, CHF, post MI and vasodilation

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146
Q

What is the MOA osmotic Laxatives?

A

Provide osmotic load to draw water outLactulose treats Hepatic encephalopathy: gut flora degrades it into metabolites (lactic acid and acetic acid) that promote Nitrogen excretion as NH4+

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147
Q

What is the treatment for hypercholesterolemia?

A

Statins

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148
Q

What are the adverse effects of Minoxidil?

A

Hypertrichosis and Pericardial Effusion

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149
Q

What are the adverse effects of adenosine?

A

flushing, hypotension, and chest pain very short acting

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150
Q

What are the Glucocorticoid drugs?

A

Hydrocortisone, Triamcinolone, Dexamethasone, Prednisone, Beclomethasone

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151
Q

Whatis Pheochromocytoma?

A

Adrenal medulla tumor in adults, they will have five P’s: Palpitations, Perspiration, Pallor, Pressure (HTN), and Pain (headache)

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152
Q

What is Byssinosis?

A

Cotton workers, textile workers

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153
Q

What is Chediak Higashi?

A

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome(Lysosomes are slow to fuse around bacteria)

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154
Q

What is Korsakoff Psychosis?

A

Alcoholic Thiamine deficiency. Presents with confusion, Opthalmoplegia, ataxia, memory loss, confabulation and personality changeTx: Vit B1

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155
Q

What type of Kidney Stones have Coffin-Lid Crystals?

A

Triple Phosphate (Struvite)

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156
Q

What is the difference between carotid body and carotid sinus?

A

Carotid Body: ChemoreceptorCarotid Sinus: Baroreceptor

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157
Q

What is Meconium?

A

Green baby poop (first poop)

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158
Q

What does Insulin do?

A

Pushes glucose into cells and K+ follows

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159
Q

What causes Granuloma Inguinale?

A

CalymmatobacteriumGranulomatosisKlebsiella Granulomatis

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160
Q

What is the MOA of Carvedilol?

A

Alpha and B-Blocker

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161
Q

What is the MOA of Levothyroxine (T4)/Triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Thyroxine replacement

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162
Q

What is Anisocytosis?

A

RBC’s with different sizes

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163
Q

What is Pain Disorder?

A

Prolonged pain not explained by physical causes

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164
Q

What causes Congenital Blindness?

A

CMV

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165
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

Esophageal webs, Iron-deficiency anemia, dysphagia

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166
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis?

A

Cafe’ au laut spots (hyperpigmentation)Peripheral nerve tumors, axillary frecklesType 1: Von Recklinghausen’s– Chromosome 17, peripheral, optic glioma, Lisch nodules, scoliosisType 2: Acoustic Neuroma, Central, Chromosome 22, cataracts, bilateral deafness

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167
Q

What is associated with Strep Viridans, Strep Mutans, and Strep Salivarius?

A

Subacute bacterial Endocarditis, green pigment, Alpha HemolyticStrep Mutans - dental cariesStrep Salivarius - cold agglutinates

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168
Q

What are the adverse effects of Dextromethorphan?

A

Mild opioid effect so mild abuse potential

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169
Q

What is the most common cause of Epididymitis?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis, N. Gonorrhea, E. Coli

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170
Q

What is Charcot’s Triad?

A

Jaundice, Fever (usually with rigors) and RUQ pain

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171
Q

What is seen with Manganese deficiency?

A

Lose xanthine oxidase function

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172
Q

What is Psychogenic Polydipsia?

A

Drinking a lot of water, diluting Na in blood

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173
Q

What is seen in newborns with Syphilis in utero infection?

A

Rhages (lip fissue), Saber shin legs (anterior bowing of the tibia), Hutchinson’s Razor teeth,Mulberry Molars

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174
Q

What is the afferent arteriole’s job?

A

Monitor pressure (JG cells-Renin release)

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175
Q

How do you detect a Pulmonary Embolus?

A

Tachypneaincreased V/Q scanECG may show signs of right heart strain or acute cor pulmonale in cases of Large Pes - large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III and an inverted T wave in lead IIIS1Q3T3

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176
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

Insert or delete any number of bases, not divisible by 3, causes misreading of all downstream nucleotides

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177
Q

What is the Isoelectric Point?

A

The pH at which there is no net charge

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178
Q

What does an opening snap tell you?

A

Mitral or Tricuspid Stenosis

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179
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in FA synthesis?

A

Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase (ACC)

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180
Q

What does a Phosphorylase do?

A

Adds inorganic Phosphate to substrate, No ATP used

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181
Q

What is associated with EHEC?

A

Hemorrhagic = renal failure

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182
Q

What are the Bile acid resins?

A

CholestyramineColestipolColesevelam

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183
Q

What is associated with Enterococcus?

A

UTI, infective Endocarditis post GI/GU procedure

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184
Q

What is Voyeurism?

A

Watching other people without their permission

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185
Q

What does CCK (Cholecystokinin) do?

A

Stimulates bile release and gallbladder contraction, inhibits gastric motility (closes sphincters), and made by I-cell of duodenum

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186
Q

What does LDL do?

A

It carries Cholesterol (only one to do this)

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187
Q

What is TORCH Infection?

A

Toxoplasmosis: Hydrocephalus with generalized intracranial calcification and choriogenesis.Others= HIV, Syphilis, Varicella, B-19HIV= Most infected are asymptomatic, clinical symptoms– Lymphadenopathy/HepatosplenomegalySyphilis= Osteochondritis and Peridotites; skin rash on palms and soles, snufflesVaricells = Pneumonia (neonatal); limb hypoplasia, cutaneous scar, seizure, MRB-19 = Hydrops FetalisRubella = Cataracts, deafness and heart defects, blueberry muffin spotsCMV = Microcephaly with periventricular calcification, petechia with thrombocytopenia, sensorineural hearing lossHerpes = 1st week: Pneumonia/shock2nd week: Skin vesicles, keratoconjunctivitis3rd week: Acute Meningoencephalitis

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188
Q

What does Dopamine (DA) do?

A

Inhibits Prolactin (PRL) release

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189
Q

What is Bipolar II?

A

Depression and Hypomania (no psychosis)

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190
Q

What is the Capacitation reaction?

A

Allow binding btwn sperm & egg

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191
Q

What is associated with Klebsiella Pneumonia?

A

Alcoholics, Currant Jelly Sputum, UTI, Lung fissures

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192
Q

What is the Indication for Demeclocycline?

A

SIADH

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193
Q

What lysosomal diseases have a Gargoyle face?

A

Gaucher’sHurler’s

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194
Q

What is a Footling Breech/Incomplete breech?

A

Butt down. Thigh flexed, one toe is sticking out of the cervical OS

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195
Q

What is the MOA of Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s?

A

Increases Insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Transaction modulation by Peroxisome Proliferator Activated Receptor Gamma in Nuclus

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196
Q

What makes B-HCG?

A

Placenta (synctiotrophoblast)

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197
Q

What does erythropoietin (EPO) do?

A

Makes RBC’s (prolong RBC life)

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198
Q

What is Erythrasma?

A

Rash in the skin folds, coral-red under Wood’s Lamp

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199
Q

What do stomach chief cells secrete?

A

Pepsin

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200
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Sulfasalazine?

A

Malaise, nausea, Sulfonamide toxicity, reversible Oligospermia

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201
Q

What are the indications for Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Ventricular tachy progressing to V. fib, last resort

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202
Q

What is Tracheomalacia?

A

Soft cartilage and stridor since birth

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203
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfasalazine?

A

A combination of sulfapyridine (antibacterial) and 5-aminosalicylic acid (anti-inflammtory) activated by colonig bacteria

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204
Q

What are the Indications for Biguanides?

A

First line therapy in Type 2 DM

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205
Q

What is Choledocholithiasis?

A

Gallstone obstructs the bile duct

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206
Q

What bug loves the frontal lobe?

A

Rubella

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207
Q

What is a Platelet?

A

The clotter (has no nuclei and smallest cells)

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208
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin E Deficiency?

A

Increased free radical damage, hemolytic anemia, ataxia gait, impaired position and vibration sense

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209
Q

What is Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

external genitalia problem

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210
Q

What is Niemann-Pick?

A

Sphingomyelinase deficiencyAreflexiaHepatosplenomegalyfoam cells (Lipid Laden macrophages)

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211
Q

What is Efficacy?

A

Maximal effect drug can produce regardless of dose (lower w/ non-competitive antagonist)

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212
Q

What are the Indications for Alpha-Glucosidase inhibitors?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

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213
Q

What type of kidney stones have hexagonal crystals?

A

Cysteine

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214
Q

What does Oxytocin do?

A

Milk letdown and uterine contractions

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215
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, tooth pain worsens upon bending forward

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216
Q

What is duodenal Atresia?

A

Bilious vomiting with first feeding, double bubble sign on x-ray, associated with Downs Syndrome

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217
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia I?

A

“Wermer’s” 3 P’s: Pancreas, Pituitary, Parathyroid adenoma

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218
Q

What GI diseases has a RLQ Sausage mass?

A

Intussusception

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219
Q

What is a Dohle Body?

A

PMN Leukocytosis(caused by infections, steroids, tumor)

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220
Q

What does an ejection click tell you?

A

Aortic or Pulmonic Stenosis

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221
Q

What is associated with Clostridium Perfringens?

A

Holiday ham and turkey - left out on counter and Clostridium jumps on and waits, enterotoxin causes Gastroenteritis, food gets reheated - bug is loving life, DM patients get Gas Gangrene due to the alpha toxin, also found in soil and feces

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222
Q

What Is Lesch-Nyhan?

A

HGPRT deficiencygrout neuropathyself-mutilationDystoniaXLRPrange sand crystals in diaper

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223
Q

What is a Bite Cell?

A

Unstable Hb inclusions (seen in G6PD Deficiency)

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224
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Lie, cheat, steal, destroy property, impulsive without remorse, illegal activity, aggressive towards others. Must be over 18 y/o

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225
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Odansetron?

A

Headache, constipation, dizziness

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226
Q

What does Southwestern blot detect?

A

DNA-binding Proteins (combines south and western blots)

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227
Q

What does a paradoxical S-2 split tell you?

A

Aortic Stenosis or LBBB

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228
Q

What is Pre-Eclampsia?

A

Ischemia to the placenta causes HTN greater than 140/90

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229
Q

What is the MOA of FIbrates?

A

Upregulate LPL, increase triglyceride clearance

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230
Q

What is the Crystallization reaction?

A

Wall formed after one sperm enters to prevent polyspermy

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231
Q

What does auscaltation of wheezing tell you?

A

Intrathoracic narrowing (seen on expiration on x-ray)

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232
Q

What are Ideas of Reference?

A

Believes the media is monitoring you

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233
Q

What does the Citrate shuttle do?

A

FA transport out of the mitochondria

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234
Q

What conditions cause weight gain?

A

Obesity, Hypothyroidism, Depression, Cushing’s, Anasarca

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235
Q

What does Vit B5 do?

A

Part of Acetyl-CoA, no known diseases

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236
Q

What is Spina bifida aperta?

A

Has opening (High AFP)

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237
Q

What is HELLP Syndrome?

A

Hepatic injury causing:H- HemolysisEL- Elevated Liver EnzymeLP- Low Platelets

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238
Q

What is the MOA of Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Na+ channel blocker

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239
Q

What is the fucntion of LH (Luteinizing hormone)?

A

Stimulates Testosterone release from the testis, Androgens and Progesterone release from the ovary

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240
Q

What is the Parasympathetic System?

A

Rest and digest, slows stuff down

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241
Q

When do you see silent thyroiditis?

A

Post-partum patients

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242
Q

What are the adverse effects of Reserpine?

A

Mental depression

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243
Q

What is associated with Paseurella Multocida?

A

Cat/Dog saliva => Cellulits with lymphadenitis

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244
Q

What is Gigantism?

A

Childhood form of Acromegaly

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245
Q

What form of Estrogen is highest at Menopause?

A

E1: Estrone (Made by Fat)E2: Estradiol (Made by the ovaries)E3: Estriol (Made by the placenta)

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246
Q

What are the adverse effects of Losartan?

A

Fetal renal toxicityHyperkalemia

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247
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Systolic minus diastolic pressure

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248
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex, causes hyperpigmentation (looks tan), and increased ACTH

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249
Q

What is the muscarinic antagonist drug used for asthma?

A

Ipratropium

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250
Q

What is the function of Prolactin (PRL)?

A

Milk production

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251
Q

What is associated with Chlamydia Trachomatis?

A

Neonatal in-turned eyelashes, Corneal Ulcers

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252
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin D Deficiency?

A

Rickets (children), Osteomalacia (adults)

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253
Q

What is Zenker’s Diverticulum?

A

Cough up undigested food from above the UES, Halitosis, motor dysfunction problem

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254
Q

What is a Male Hermaphrodite?

A

XY with no MIF

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255
Q

What is Dissociative Fugue?

A

No past memory at all, even if they see someone from the past - they have no ideaTravel to a new place, usually due to trauma

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256
Q

What is an Allograft?

A

Human to human transplant

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257
Q

What are the indications for the Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Increase AP duration, icnrease effective refractory period (ERP) QT interval, affect reentrant and ectopic SVT and ventricular tachy

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258
Q

What is Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

Weight gain and enlarged ovaries after clomiphene use for infertility

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259
Q

What is the first generation Sulfonylureas?

A

Chlorpropamide and Tolbutamide?

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260
Q

What is the difference between Myeloid and Lymphoid Leukemia’s?

A

Myeloid: increased RBC, WBC, platelets, macrophages (decreased Luymphoid cells) and bone marrow biopsyLymphoid: increased NK, T, B cells (decreased Myeloid cells) and do lymph node biopsy

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261
Q

What are the indications for corticosteroids?

A

Chronic asthma, COPD

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262
Q

What are the acidic amino acids?

A

Asp, Glu

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263
Q

What is the Indication for GLP-1 Analogs?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

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264
Q

What does Fremitus, Egophony and Bronchophony tell you?

A

Consolidation (pathognomonic for pneumonia)

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265
Q

What diseases have high eosinophils?

A

“NAACP”N - Neoplasm (Lymphoma)A - Allergy/ AsthmaA - Addison’s disease (no cortisol -relative eosinophilia)C - Collagen Vascular diseaseP - Parasites

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266
Q

What does “Penia” tell you?

A

Low Levels - (Usually due to virus or drugs)

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267
Q

What happens with Rubella infections in utero?

A

Cataracts, hearing loss, PDA, “blueberry muffin” rash (Rash on face that spreads to trunk)

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268
Q

What is a complete molar pregnancy?

A

2 Sperm and no egg (46, XX) both are paternal, bunch of graps, dad eats grapes, no embryo(GROSS!)

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269
Q

Where does Testosterone come from?

A

Adrenal gland and testicles

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270
Q

What antibody shows past Hep A infection?

A

IgG

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271
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate recent immunization within >2/52wks?

A

HBsAg+

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272
Q

What is Thought Blocking?

A

Stops mid-sentence

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273
Q

What is Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis?

A

T-cell defect against Candida Albicans and chronic fatigue

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274
Q

What is Budd-Chiari

A

Hepatic vein obstruction

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275
Q

What does “Cythemia” tell you?

A

High levels

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276
Q

What are the degrees of Vaginal Lacerations?

A

1st Degree: Skin2nd Degree: Muscle3rd Degree: Anus4th Degree: Rectum

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277
Q

What are the Indications for GH?

A

GH deficiency in children, Turner syndrome, and Burn victims

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278
Q

What does a Kinase do?

A

Adds Phosphate group to substrate using ATP

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279
Q

What will Ranson’s criteria tell you and what will you see at 48 hours?

A

Prognosis of Pancreatitis patients BUN >5 mg/dL (decreased RBF)Calcium <8mg/dL (saponification)HCT drops >10% (bleeding into pancreas)sequester > 6 liters of fluid (3rd spacing)Oxygen pO2 <60 mmHg (fluid/protein leak, leads to ARDS)base deficit >4 mEq/L (diarrhea due to no pancreatic enzymes)

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280
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A

HTN, Bradycardia, irregular breathing

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281
Q

What is Seborrheic Dermatitis?

A

Red rash with oily skin and dry flaky hairline, crusty lesion

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282
Q

What receptors do Steroid Hormones use?

A

Nuclear membrane receptors (except cortisol cytoplasmic receptor)

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283
Q

What is the MOA of Antileukotriene?

A

5-lipoxygenase inhibitor -> inhibits conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene -> prevents bronchoconstriction and inflammatory cell infiltrate

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284
Q

What lysosomal diseases have a cherry-red macula?

A

Tay-sachs, Niemann-Pick

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285
Q

What is a Meduloblastoma?

A

Pseudorosettes compressing the brain, early morning vomiting

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286
Q

What antibody shows current Hep A infection?

A

IgM

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287
Q

What does Vit B3 do?

A

NAD cofactor

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288
Q

What are the essential amino acids?

A

Phynlalanine, Valine, Threonine(PVT)Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Methionine(TIM)Histidine, Arginine, Leucine, Lysine(HALL)

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289
Q

What is the Dawn Phenomenon?

A

Morning hyperglycemia secondary to Growth Hormone

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290
Q

What is Hepatorenal Syndrome?

A

High urea from the Liver leads to: increased Glutaminase, Ammonia, GABA- Kidney shuts down

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291
Q

What is Nevus Flammeus?

A

Port Wine Stain - Permanent- Unilateral of face or neck- Vascular malformation - Sturge - Weber syndrome - Vasculitis- Mgt: Pulsed laser therapy

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292
Q

What defines CML?

A

30-50 y/o females t(9;22)Philadelphia Chromosomebcr-abl

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293
Q

What is a Kleihauer-Betke Test?

A

Detects percentage of fetal blood in maternal circulation (Dilution test)

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294
Q

What is Kallmann’s Syndrome?

A

No GnRH and Anosmia. (They can’t smell)

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295
Q

What are the aromatic amino acids?

A

Phe, Tyr, Trp

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296
Q

What structures have one-way valves?

A

Urethra and ejaculatory duct

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297
Q

How fast should fundal height change?

A

Uterus grows 1 cm/week

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298
Q

What GI disease has an Abrupt Cut off on X-Ray?

A

Volvulus

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299
Q

What is associated with Pseudomonas Aeruginosa?

A

Otitis Externa, Ecthyma Gangrenosum, loves rubber, Whirlpool Folliculitis, exotoxin (ADP ribosylates EF-2)

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300
Q

What is normal blood loss during a Vaginal Deliver?

A

500 mL

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301
Q

What is Achalasia?

A

Increased LES Pressure (no Auerbach’s Plexus), Bird’s Beak on X-Ray and also seen in Chagas Disease

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302
Q

What are the most common causes of Oligohydramnios?

A

Abdominal Muscle Problem: Prune Belly Renal Agenesis: Potters Syndrome

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303
Q

What causes anterior leg bowing?

A

Neonatal syphilis

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304
Q

What are the Intravascular Hemolytic Anemias?

A

IgM G6PD deficiencycold autoimmune

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305
Q

What are the adverse effects of the Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Quinidine: CinchonismProcainamide: Torsades de Pointes

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306
Q

What does Trypsin cut?

A

Arg, Lys

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307
Q

What is a Dandy Walker malformation?

A

No cerebellum, distended 4th and lateral ventricles

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308
Q

What is Synesthesia?

A

Smells colors

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309
Q

Where is a Bochdalek Hernia?

A

Occur more commonly on the posterior left side (diaphragm), most common congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH)

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310
Q

What is Menetrier’s Disease?

A

Loss of protein through the rugal folds. Causes generalized edema. CMV association in children and H. Pylorus in Adults

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311
Q

What is a True Hermaphrodite?

A

Internal genitalia problem (has both sexes)

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312
Q

What gives urine its yellow color?

A

Urobilinogen being oxidized to urobilin

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313
Q

What is a Schistocyte?

A

Broken RBC (seen in DIC and artificial heart vlaves and others)

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314
Q

What does vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) do?

A

Inhibits secretin, motilin, and CCK, and opens Sphincters

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315
Q

What are the adverse effects of Digoxin?

A

Cholinergic, ECG: icnrease PR, decrease QT worsened by renal failureQuinidine displaces Digoxin from tissue binding sites

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316
Q

What is Amnesia?

A

Can’t recall important facts

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317
Q

What is Type A gastritis?

A

Upper GI bleed, autoimmune (anti-parietal cell antibodies), Atrophic / Achlorhydria and increased risk for adenocarcinoma (body & fundus region of the stomach)

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318
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 difference after a meal?

A

GI tract

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319
Q

What is Inflammatory Carcinoma?

A

Infiltrates Lymphatics, pulls on Cooper’s Ligaments “Peau d’Orange”

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320
Q

What is associated with Propionibacterium acnes?

A

Acne, Progesterone => Propionic acid

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321
Q

What type of immunity does TH2 provide?

A

Enhances humoral immunity

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322
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Male >40 with lower back painSerum M protein (IgG)Bence-Jones Proteins in the urineRouleaux formationPunched out lesions on x-ray

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323
Q

What is the function of TRH?

A

Stimulates TSH release

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324
Q

What are some causes of G6PD Deficiency?

A

Sulfa drugs, mothballs, fava beans, sudden drop in Hb

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325
Q

What is Erythema Toxicum?

A

White wheal on red area rash has Eosinophils

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326
Q

What is Pseudocyesis

A

Fake pregnancy with all the signs and symptoms

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327
Q

How does Herpes present?

A

Primary: Painful grouped vesicles on red baseSecondary: Painful solitary lesion

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328
Q

What is squamous cell CA?

A

Seen in smokers, high PTH and Ca2+

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329
Q

What is the cell-mediated immune response?

A

T-cells and Macrophages patrol the tissues looking for non-bacteria

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330
Q

What is a Thyrotrope?

A

TSH

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331
Q

What is seen / causes in Aplastic Anemia?

A

PancytopeniaAutoimmuneBenzeneAZTChloramphenicolRadiation

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332
Q

What is the function of CRH?

A

Stimulates ACTH release

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333
Q

What is the Gram Positive Capsule?

A

S. Pneumonia

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334
Q

What does Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO) and Thymosin do?

A

Help T-cells mature

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335
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Heme synthesis?

A

Delta-ALA Synthase

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336
Q

What is Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

“Perpetual Teenager”, splitting (love/hate), projection, acting out, self-mutiliation, unstable relationships, impulsive

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337
Q

What does Rh+ tell you?

A

Has D Antigen

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338
Q

Can you die during ETOH withdrawal?

A

Yes

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339
Q

What Kidney complications can Lithium cause to the person taking the drug?

A

Destroy the collecting ducts V2 aquaporin receptors, causing Nephrogenic DI

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340
Q

What is a Biophysical Profile (BPP)?

A

By US look for:Non-stress testAFIFetal heart toneFetal ActivityBreathing Movement

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341
Q

What do you see in Grave’s Disease?

A

Exophthalmos, Pretibial myxedema, anti-TSH receptor antibodies

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342
Q

What bug loves the hippocampus?

A

Rabies

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343
Q

What diseases have metabolic acidosis?

A

“MUDPILES” and diarrhea

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344
Q

What unstable angina?

A

Pain at rest (transient clots MCC)

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345
Q

What is a Pinealoma?

A

Loss of upward gaze, loss of circadian rhythms lead to precocious puberty

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346
Q

What does THF donate methyl groups for?

A

Nucleotides

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347
Q

What is the MOA of Misoprostol?

A

PGE1 analog, increase production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier, decreased acid production

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348
Q

What is Lichen Sclerosis?

A

Paper like vulva, itching, CA risk

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349
Q

What is an Eosinophil?

A

The parasite destroyer and allergy inducer

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350
Q

What is seen in Paroxysmal Cold Auto Autoimmune?

A

Bleeds after cold exposure Donath-Landsteiner Ab

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351
Q

What does the E Ag tell you?

A

Transmissibility/ Infectivity

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352
Q

What is Intussusception?

A

Currant Jelly Stool, Stacked Coin Enema, sausage shaped mass and knees to chest for comfort

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353
Q

What is Type 1 Hyperlipidemia?

A

Defective Liver Lipoprotein Lipase (chylomicrons are elevated)

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354
Q

What is Uterus Rupture?

A

Tearing sensation, halt of delivery

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355
Q

What is associated with (PCP) Pneumocystis Carinii pnemonia?

A

AIDS and preemies, rusty sputum, silver stains the lungs, increased LDH, Treat with steroids

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356
Q

Why do pregnant women get Anemia?

A

Due to the dilution effect: RBC rises 30%, but body volume rises 50%

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357
Q

What is associated with Vibrio Cholera?

A

Rice Water Diarrhea, ADP- Ribosylates Gs = High cAMP, Turning the on… on

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358
Q

What vessel has the highest compliance?

A

Veins

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359
Q

What is the smallest amino acid?

A

Gly

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360
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

Changes one base

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361
Q

What are Esophageal Varices?

A

Due to Portal HTN, vomit large amounts of blood when they rupture

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362
Q

What is MGM?

A

BM spikes, granular/linear supepithelial spikes and closes

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363
Q

What type of kidney stones have Rosette Crystals?

A

Uric acid

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364
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia II (2A)?

A

“Sipple’s” Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid, Parathyroid Adenoma. (tumor marker RET)

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365
Q

What are Spur Cells / Acanthocytes?

A

Lipid bilayer disease

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366
Q

How does Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) present?

A

Alternating diarrhea/ constipationHistory of stressNo abnormalities on colonoscopy

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367
Q

What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob?

A

Prion induced disease, death within 1 year, post cornea transplant

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368
Q

What bug causes Acute Bacterial Endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (attacks healthy valves)

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369
Q

What are the spore forming Gram-positive bacteria?

A

BacillusClostridium

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370
Q

What is the function of B-HCG?

A

Maintains Corpus Luteum, sensitizes TSH receptors to make body hyperthyroid (to raise BMR)

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371
Q

What disease has Iridocyclitis?

A

Juvenile TA

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372
Q

What is the Rapid Acting Insulin drug?

A

Regular Insulin

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373
Q

What are the Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Tocainide

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374
Q

What is Sarcoma Botryoides?

A

Vaginal CA, looks like a ball of grapes

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375
Q

What is Hidradenoma?

A

Sweat gland cysts

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376
Q

What is Variable Deceleration?

A

Cord Compression

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377
Q

What is a Traction Diverticulum?

A

Out pouch between the UES and LES

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378
Q

What are the adverse of Methyldopa?

A

Sedation and Hemolytic Anemia(+) Coombs test

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379
Q

What is Intellectualization?

A

Act like a “know it all” to avoid feeling situational emotions, gets all information available to be over-informed

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380
Q

What bugs cause Monocytosis?

A

“STELS”S - SyphilisT - TBE - EBVL - ListeriaS - Salmonella

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381
Q

What is Spina bifida occulta?

A

Covered by skin with a tuft of hair

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382
Q

What is PKU?

A

No Phe -> Tyr (via decreased Tetrahydrobiopterin Cofactor or decreased Phe Hydroxylase)NutraSweet (Aspartame) sensitivitymental retardationpaleblond hairblue eyesmusty odor

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383
Q

What is Wright’s Stain?

A

Detects nucleated fetal RBC in mom’s vagina

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384
Q

What is Hemophilia A?

A

Defective Factor VIII (<40% Activity)Bleed into cavities (head, abd, etc)

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385
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate infectious state?

A

HBeAg+

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386
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 Difference at rest?

A

heart

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387
Q

What is Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

A

Pompous, no empathy, thinks they deserve everything

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388
Q

What does a Carboxylase do?

A

Transfers CO2 groups with the help of Biotin

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389
Q

What does Indirect Coombs Test tell you?

A

The Antibody is freely circulating in the serum

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390
Q

What are the ACE inhibitors?

A

Captopril, Enalapril, Fosinopril, Lisinopril

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391
Q

What does the Carnitine shuttle do?

A

FA transport into the mitochondria

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392
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Glucocorticoids?

A

Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome. (Adrenal insufficiency when drug stopped after chronic use)

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393
Q

What is the function of HPL?

A

Blocks insulin receptors so the sugar stays high, (baby is stocking up - hibernating)

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394
Q

What is Thought Insertion?

A

Believes that others are putting thoughts into his head

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395
Q

What is Benign Positional Vertigo?

A

Sensation of room spinningNausea/VomitingNystagmus without hearing loss or tinnitusOnset of symptoms when change position

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396
Q

What is Inflammatory Diarrhea?

A

Diarrhea with blood and pus

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397
Q

What does a mutase do?

A

Relocates a functional group within a moleculre (intrachain)

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398
Q

What is Gaucher’s?

A

Glucocerebrosidase (Beta-Glucosidase) deficiencywrinkled tissue Macrophage’sBone painpancytopenia

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399
Q

What are the Indications for Octreotide?

A

Acromegaly; Glucagonoma; Insulinoma; Carcinoid Syndrome

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400
Q

What causes non-bacterial Fetal infections?

A

“TORCHST- ToxoplasmaO - Others (HIV, Measles, B-19)R - RubellaC - CMVH - HSV-2S - Syphilis

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401
Q

What are the adverse effects of the Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

CNS stimulation and depressionCardiovascular depressionHyperkalemia increases toxicity

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402
Q

What is Sublimation?

A

Where socially unacceptable impulses or idealizations are unconsciously transformed into socially acceptable actions or behavior

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403
Q

What is Phimosis?

A

Foreskin scarred at penis head

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404
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) Deficiency?

A

Scurvy

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405
Q

What defines CLL?

A

50+ y/o males with lymphadenopathysoccer ball nucleiPresent with autoimmune Hemolytic anemia

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406
Q

What does Vit B12 do?

A

Cofactor for HMT & MMA

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407
Q

What GI disease has an Apple Core on X-Ray?

A

Colorectal Cancer

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408
Q

What are Burr Cell/ Echinocyte?

A

Seen in Pyruvate Kinase deficiencyLiver diseasePost splenectomy

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409
Q

What does a Synthetase do?

A

Consumes two substrates, uses ATP

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410
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

Changes leave the same amino acid

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411
Q

What does blood type AB tell you?

A

Have both Antigens (universal recipient)

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412
Q

What are the adverse effects of Diazoxide?

A

Hypoglycemia (reduces insulin release) and hypotension

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413
Q

What is Delusion?

A

Fixed false belief for more than one month and no effect to his normal livingTx: Atypical antipsychotic and psychotherapy

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414
Q

How do you know it’s an anaerobic infection?

A

gas and bad odor

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415
Q

What is SHeehan Syndrome?

A

Postpartum hemorrhage in pituitary, no LH or FSH = no periods, hyperplasia infarcts, no prolactin = no milk

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416
Q

What is the most common eye infection in New Born

A

First day - Clear discharge due to Silver NitrateFirst week - Gonorrhea (purulent discharge)Second week - ChlamydiaThird week - Herpes

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417
Q

What is Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Defective chloride transportermeconium ileussteatorrheaBronchiectasisChromosome 7

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418
Q

What is the MOA of adenosine?

A

Increase K+ efflux, hyperpolarizes the cell

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419
Q

What does Vit C do?

A

Collagen synthesisantioxidanthelps absorb FE++, necessary for Dopamine & hydroxylase for NE

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420
Q

What is assocaited with H. Pylori?

A

95% causative agent in Duodenal Ulcers

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421
Q

What organs have the most CD4 receptors?

A

Blood vesselsbraintesticlescervixrectum

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422
Q

What is the RBC normal lifespan?

A

120 days

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423
Q

What is a Somatotrope?

A

Growth hormone

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424
Q

What is Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Kid screams when mom leaves

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425
Q

What are the adverse effects of H2 blockers?

A

Prolactin release: Gynecomastia, decreased libido, impotence in malesCimetidine inhibits P450

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426
Q

What are Fibroids (Leiomyoma’s)?

A

Benign uterus smooth muscle tumorsubmucosal type: they bleedSubserosal type: they cause pain

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427
Q

What is Metabolic Syndrome X?

A

“Pre-DM” due to HTN, Dyslipidemia, Hyperinsulinemia, and Acanthosis Nigricans

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428
Q

Which cells express MHC-2?

A

Antigen presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils)

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429
Q

What is Non-competitive Inhibition?

A

Binds a regulatory site, no change in Km, Efficacy decreases, decreased Vmax

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430
Q

What is Fifth’s disease?

A

Erythema Infectiosum “Slapped Cheeks”B-19 ParvovirusAplastic anemia, in sickle cell patientsHydrops Fetalis

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431
Q

What are the adverse effects of Nesiritide?

A

Hypotension

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432
Q

What are the adverse effects of Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Prolongs refractory period in AV node Hyperkalelmia increases toxicity

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433
Q

What is a Basophil?

A

The allergy helper (IgE receptor - histamine release)

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434
Q

What is SCID?

A

No Thymus (no T-cells)frayed long bones (no B-cells)baby dies by 18 months

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435
Q

What does the Macula Densa do?

A

Measures osmolality (osmoles of solute-kg)

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436
Q

What type of people does Hep E like to infect?

A

Pregnant women (3rd trimester), Asians

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437
Q

What is Lobular Carcinoma?

A

Cells line up single file, contralateral breast is primary site of CA

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438
Q

Which stage of the Menstrual Cycle has the highest Estrogen levels?

A

Follicular stage (Has proliferative endothelium)

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439
Q

What is seen in Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Crew-cut on x-rayAvascular Necrosis of femur

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440
Q

What is Croup?

A

Respiratory condition that is usually triggered by an acute viral infection of the upper airway, steeple sign on x-ray, barking cough

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441
Q

What do T cell deficiency patients die of?

A

Viral infections, fungal, etcexcept bacterial

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442
Q

What can high Cholesterol Cause?

A

Atherosclerosis

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443
Q

How do tension headaches present?

A

“Band-like” pain starts in posterior neck, increases throughout the day, sleep disturbance

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444
Q

What are the Big Mama Anaerobes?

A

Bacteroides fragilisStreptococcus BovisC. MelanagosepticusC. Diff

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445
Q

What is Vascular “multi-infarct” dementia?

A

Sudden onset, uneven progression of deficits, “stair step” decline

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446
Q

What is Cephalohematoma?

A

Bleeding under bone (blood does not cross suture lines)

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447
Q

What bugs cause hospital abscesses?

A

Day 1-3: S. Aureus (lots of O2 present)Day 4-7: S. Viridans - no enzymeDay >7: Anaerobes - PMN’s

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448
Q

What is a Paranoid Personality Disorder?

A

Suspicious about everything, they use projection

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449
Q

What is Selective Mutism?

A

Kid talks sometimes

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450
Q

What is Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A

“Magical Thinking”, odd/bizarre behavior, people leave them alone because they are weird but they will interact if approached. Brief psychotic episode

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451
Q

What is Menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

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452
Q

What causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema Pallidum (Spirochete)

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453
Q

What is the only Gram-positive Endotoxin?

A

Listeria

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454
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Misoprostol?

A

Diarrhea; Contraindicated in women of childbearing potential abortion inducing drug

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455
Q

What is EC50?

A

Concentration of drug that produces 50% of maximal response

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456
Q

What is Oppositional Defiant Disorder?

A

Breaking the rules, defiant, noncompliant, resists authority, “bark is worse than bite”. Teach appropriate child management skills

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457
Q

What is Virilization?

A

Female that is Man like

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458
Q

What are the Microcytic Hypochromic Anemias?

A

Defect in Hb synthesis (RBC small and pale) “FAST lead”F - Fe DeficiencyA - Anemia of Chronic DiseaseS - Sideroblastic AnemiaT - Alpha and Beta Thalassemia’sL - Lead poisoning

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459
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 difference during a test?

A

Brain

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460
Q

What is associated with Staph Saprophyticus?

A

Seen in young girls / women who became sexually active, E. Coli is still the #1 cause of UTI’s

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461
Q

What is an Ependymoma?

A

Rosettes present in the 4th Ventricle, Hydrocephalus

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462
Q

What is Zellweger’s?

A

Neonatal Seizures

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463
Q

What does Atrial Natriuretic Peptide do?

A

Inhibits aldosterone and dilates the afferent arteriole

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464
Q

What is the most common type of Gallstone?

A

Cholesterol stone (not see on X-ray)

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465
Q

What is associated with N. Gonorrhea?

A

Pili, Urethritis, Tenosynovitis, Septic arthritis

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466
Q

What is a Xanthoma

A

Cholesterol build up (common at the elbow or Achilles tendon)

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467
Q

What is Berylliosis?

A

Radio, TV repair, aerospace manufacturing, Beryllium mining, or manufacturing of fluorescent light bulbs

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468
Q

What are the indications for Guaifenesin?

A

Minor upper respiratory tract infections, common cold w/ cough

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469
Q

What diagnosis has secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Renal failure

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470
Q

How does Chancroid present?

A

Painful with necrotic center, due to Haemophilus Ducreyi (Gram Negative rod)”School of Fish” pattern

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471
Q

What is Placenta Abruptio?

A

Severe pain due to premature separation of the placenta

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472
Q

What produces Currant Jelly Sputum

A

Klebsiella

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473
Q

What are the IgA protease bugs?

A

S. PneumoniaeH. InfluenzaM. Catarrhalis

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474
Q

What are the GLP-1 Analog drugs?

A

Exenatide and Liraglutide

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475
Q

What bug is associated with cat pee?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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476
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Stimulates osteoblast to activate osteoclasts, stimulates the reabsorption of Ca+ and the excretion of phosphate in the kidneys, and activation of vitamin D

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477
Q

What is FSGS?

A

Most common in IVDA, AA, Hispanics and HIV patients

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478
Q

What is the only statin to undergo renal excretion?

A

Pravastatin

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479
Q

What does hyperresonance tell you?

A

Air in that region of the lungs`

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480
Q

What has WBC Casts ONLY?

A

Pyelonephritis

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481
Q

What is the MOA of Metoprolol, Atenolol, Acebutolol, Esmolol?

A

Selective B1-Blockers

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482
Q

What is the MOA of PTU and Methimazole?

A

Inhibits peroxidase enzyme in Thyroid and Decreases synthesis of Thyroid Hormones

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483
Q

What is associated with Corynebacterium Diphtheriae?

A

Chinese letters under microscope, gray Pseudomembrane, heart block, suffocation = death, ADP Ribosylates EF2, Elek’s Test

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484
Q

What is Epididymitis?

A

Unilateral scrotal pain decreased by support

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485
Q

What is the Adverse effect of Biguanides?

A

Lactic Acidosis (Contraindicated in renal failure) Stop use in patients undergoing studies using contrast

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486
Q

What is the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Automatic stuff… i.e. breathing, heartbeat

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487
Q

What causes Neonatal Blindness

A

Chlamydia

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488
Q

What is Eclampsia?

A

HTN with seizures

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489
Q

What is Condylomata Lata?

A

Flat fleshy warts, ulcerate = secondary syphilis

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490
Q

How much weight should a woman gain during Pregnancy?

A

1 lb/ week

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491
Q

What is Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder?

A

Perfectionist, doesn’t show feelings, detail oriented, uses isolation

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492
Q

Which cytokine is released when a macrophage is activated?

A

IL-1

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493
Q

How does an epidural hematoma present?

A

Intermittent consciousness (lucid interval)

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494
Q

What has a friction rub while holding breath?

A

Pericarditis

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495
Q

What does biotin donate methyl groups for?

A

Carboxylation

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496
Q

What is associated with H. Influenzae?

A

Gram-negative Pleomorphic Rod, Factors V and X, 5 carbon Ribose capsule, HiB type causes Meningitis, Epiglottitis, and Sepsis

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497
Q

What is Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Ashleaf spots (hypopigmentation)Primary brain tumorsHeart RhabdomyolysisRenal cell CAShagreen spots (leathery)

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498
Q

What is Vernix?

A

Cheesy baby skin. (protects the baby’s skin from the outside world and helps with passage through the birth canal)

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499
Q

What is Postpartum Depression?

A

Depression post-delivery for more than 2 weeks

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500
Q

What does Vit B1 do?

A

Dehydrogenasestransketolase (PPP)cofactors

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501
Q

What does DES taken by Mom cause in her Daughter?

A

Adenomyosis, menorrhagia, clear cell CA of the vagina, recurrent abortions

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502
Q

What are the Osmotic Laxatives?

A

Magnesium hydroxide, mag citrate, polyethylene glycol, Lactulose

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503
Q

What diseases have metabolic alkalosis?

A

Low volume state: vomiting, diuretics, GI blood loss

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504
Q

What are the Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide

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505
Q

What bacteria cause diarrhea <8 hours after introduction?

A

“CBS”C - ClostridiumB - Bacillus CereusS - Staphylococcus aureus

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506
Q

What is Maple Syrup Urine disease?

A

Defective metabolism of branched aa (Leu, Iso, Val) -> aa leak out, urine smells like Maple syrup/ burnt sugar, defect of branched chain alpha Keto acid Dehydrogenase

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507
Q

What is Milia?

A

Neonatal white or pale yellow heads on malar area

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508
Q

What is Toxoplasmosis?

A

Multiple ring enhancing lesions, loves parietal love, from cat urine and feces

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509
Q

What is Apocrine?

A

Apex of the cell is secreted

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510
Q

What states have increased Estrogen?

A

Pregnancy, liver failure, P-450 inhibition, and obesity

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511
Q

What are the adverse effects of Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine?

A

HTN, CNS stimulation/ anxiety

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512
Q

What is von Gierke?

A

G-6 Phosphatase deficiencysevere fasting hypoglycemiahepatomegalyincreased lactase and uric acid levels

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513
Q

What hormones produce Basophila?

A

“B FLAT”: Basophils, FSH, LH, ACTH, and TSH

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514
Q

What is Huntington’s?

A

Occurs in the caudate/putamen, Trinucleotide repeat disorder (Chromosome 4, CAG), choreiform movements, changes in personality, anticipation

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515
Q

What is Oligomenorrhea?

A

Too few periods

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516
Q

What bug loves the temporal love?

A

HSV

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517
Q

What is an Encephalocele?

A

Brain tissue herniation

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518
Q

What is Karyolysis?

A

Nucleus dissolves

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519
Q

What is Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion, usually due to anovulation

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520
Q

What has a friction rub while breathing?

A

Pleuritic

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521
Q

What is Hemochromatosis?

A

Fe deposit in organs

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522
Q

What is an Acute Rejection?

A

Occurs 4 days to months later. T-cell and macrophage response

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523
Q

What are the indications for Methyldopa?

A

HTN

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524
Q

What does secretin do?

A

Secretion of bicarbonate, inhibit gastrin, tighten Pyloric Sphincter, and secreted by S-cell Duodenum

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525
Q

When does Implantation occur?

A

1 week after fertilization

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526
Q

What is Comedocarcinoma?

A

Multiple focal areas of necrosis (blackheads) DCIS

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527
Q

What is Vestibular Neuritis?

A

Inflammation of the vestibular portion (CN8), Could be associated with viral infection, characterized by vertigo and dizziness

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528
Q

What is the MOA of Potassium on the heart?

A

Depresses ectopic pacemaker in hypokalemia

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529
Q

What is a Nephroblastoma?

A

Abdominal mass due to enlarged “Wilm’s Tumor”, hemihypertrophy and Aniridia

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530
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed speech developement?

A

Hearing loss

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531
Q

What is the Peripheral Nervous System?

A

Everything except the brain and spinal cord. Myelination by the schwann cells

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532
Q

What is Imitation?

A

Replicating another’s behavior

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533
Q

What is Cholelithiasis?

A

Formation of gallstones

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534
Q

What is the most common cause of Vaginal Bleeding in Post-menopausal women?

A

Endometrial CA

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535
Q

Can you die during Opiod Withdrawal?

A

No, just very painful

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536
Q

What are the symptoms of Amniotic Fluid Emboli?

A

Mom just delivered Baby and mom has SOB, due to PE, leads to death

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537
Q

What is Nephritic Kidney Disease?

A

Inflammation with protein loss <3.5 in urineIncreased size of Fenestrations, RBC casts, HTN

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538
Q

What is your maximum heart rate?

A

220 minus the person’s age

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539
Q

What are the indications for Reserpine?

A

HTN

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540
Q

What is seen in Calcium deficiency?

A

Poor bone and teeth development

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541
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s Syndrome?

A

Physiological shunt from left to right now changes right to left

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542
Q

What are some PPIs?

A

Omeprazole, Lansoprazole

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543
Q

What kind of Patients does Staph and Pseudomonas like to attack?

A

DM, CF, Burn Patients, Neutropenic patients

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544
Q

What does a Transferase do?

A

Relocates a functional group from one molecule to another

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545
Q

What is associated with P. Mirabilis?

A

Staghorn Calculus, UTI, Urease Positive, Treat with Norfloxacin

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546
Q

What is Emphysema?

A

Obstructive diseaseAlpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

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547
Q

What is PSGN?

A

Most common in kids. Subepithelial humps (IgG/C3/C4 deposition) lumpy bumpy on EM and ASO antibodies

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548
Q

What is Sixth’s DIsease?

A

Roseola, Exanthema Subitum (fever disappears then rash appears)

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549
Q

What is a Lymphocyte?

A

The warrior - T, B, and NK cells

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550
Q

What disease has a “3” shape on x-ray?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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551
Q

What is MPGN

A

Tram tracks seen (Type II has low C3) on LM

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552
Q

What is Peutz Jegher Syndrome?

A

Hyper-pigmented lower lip, patients will have dark gyms and vagina, and small bowel polyps

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553
Q

What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

A

NADPH Oxidase deficiency - they have recurrent Staph / Aspergillus infections (Nitro-blue Tetrazolium Stain Negative) or Dihydrorhodamine flow and Cytometry test

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554
Q

What is Type 2B Hyperlipidemia?

A

Deficiency of adipose receptors and LDL receptors (Increased LDL and VLDL levels)

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555
Q

What is the MOA of Nitroprusside?

A

Direct release of NO, increases cGMP, vasodilator

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556
Q

What is a Tear Drop Cell/ Dacrocyte?

A

RBC’s squeezed out of bone marrow. (Seen in Hemolytic Anemia and bone marrow CA)

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557
Q

What is Decreased beat-to-beat variability?

A

Acidemia

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558
Q

What does Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP) do?

A

Increases insulin action, responsible for post-prandial hypoglycemia

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559
Q

What is the difference between norepinephrine and epinephrine?

A

NE: NeurotransmitterEPI: Hormone

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560
Q

What are the adverse effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Hyperkalemia, cough, angioedemacontraindicated in pregnancy (fetal renal malformations)

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561
Q

What is Cataplexy?

A

Loss of muscle tone due to strong emotions

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562
Q

What does dullness to percussion tell you?

A

Something between the airspace and chest wall absorbing sound, can be solid or fluid

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563
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate a chronic carrier state?

A

HBsAg+, (>6 months), HBsAb (+/-)

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564
Q

What are the Diastolic Blowing murmurs?

A

Aortic regurgitation, pulmonic regurgitation

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565
Q

What is the MOA of Isoproterenol?

A

Non-specific, Beta-agonists;relates bronchial smooth muscle (B2)

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566
Q

What does Exocrine mean?

A

Secreted into a duct

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567
Q

What is Apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death, no inflammation, and cell membrane dissolved first. Nucleus guides death & destroyed last

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568
Q

What are theh Renin-angio system effectors?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

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569
Q

What are the most common symptoms of the Low Energy State?

A

Weakness and SOB

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570
Q

What is Reynold’s Pentad?

A

Jaundice, Fever (usually with Rigors), RUQ Pain, Hypotension and change in mental status

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571
Q

What does Ca2+ do?

A

Neuronal function, atrial depolarization, smooth muscle contractility

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572
Q

What diseases have Granulomas?

A

“HiTTSS”Hi - Histiocytosis XT - TBT - The -Ella’sS - SarcoidosisS - Syphilis

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573
Q

What is a Complete Breech?

A

Butt down, thighs, and legs flexed

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574
Q

What is Grey-Turner’s Sign?

A

Bleed into Flanks and caused by Hemorrhagic Pancreatitis (early signs)

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575
Q

What is associated with Francisella Tularensis?

A

Ulcers at rabbit or deer tick bite siteRx: Streptomycin

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576
Q

What is associated with Bartonella Henselae?

A

Cat Scratch = Single painful lymph node, Stains silver

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577
Q

What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?

A

Socially withdrawn, afraid of rejection but wants to fit in

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578
Q

What is a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

A

Ovarian CA that has spread to the umbilicus(Also GI cancers can cause) (Indicates metastasis)

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579
Q

What does the Core Ab tell you?

A

Past infection

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580
Q

What is associated with Clostridium Melangosepticus?

A

Colon CA

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581
Q

What is a Neuroblastoma?

A

Adrenal medulla tumor in kids, dancing eyes and feet and secretes catecholamine’s

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582
Q

What are the inidcations for Cromolyn?

A

Asthma prophylaxis

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583
Q

What is Rationalization?

A

Make excuses for behavior in advance, (because of…)

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584
Q

What are the indications for Nesiritide?

A

Acute decompensated heart failure

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585
Q

How do you measure afferent renal function?

A

Creatinine or Inulin

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586
Q

What is a Spherocyte?

A

Old RBC

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587
Q

What is Thought Broadcasting?

A

Believes that everyone can read his thoughts

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588
Q

What is associated with Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Parakeets and Parrots are the carrier agent

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589
Q

What does high WBC and >5% Blasts tell you?

A

Leukemia

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590
Q

What does a high WBC and <5% Blasts tell you?

A

Leukemoid reaction - seen in burn patients or any extreme stress (extreme demargination looks like Leukemia), Metamyelocytes => Myelocytes

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591
Q

What is Displacement?

A

Take anger out on an object or someone else. Not related with situation

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592
Q

What is Turcot’s Syndrome?

A

Familial Polyposis with Brain Tumors

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593
Q

What is Central Pontine Myelinolysis?

A

This happens when you correct serum sodium faster than 0.5 mEq/hr. (infarct the PONS- patient can only blink)

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594
Q

How does trigeminal neuralgia (Tic Douloureux) present?

A

Sharp, shooting face pain, recurrent episodes

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595
Q

What does an AFI <5 indicate?

A

Oligohydramnios (Cord compression)

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596
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Glycogenesis?

A

Glycogen Synthase. Occurs in the Cytoplasm of Liver and muscle

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597
Q

What is Bronze diabetes?

A

Fe deposit in pancreas

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598
Q

What does Aldosterone do?

A

Reabsorbs Na+ and three waters

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599
Q

What is Chronic Pelvic Pain?

A

Endometriosis until proven otherwise

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600
Q

What is Late Deceleration?

A

Due to uteroplacental because the placenta cannot provide oxygen and nutrients

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601
Q

What are the CSF lab values for Meningitis?

A

PMN’s -> BacteriaT cells / Macrophages -> Non-bacterialNormal Glucose -> Viral

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602
Q

What is the Clotting Cascade?

A

The cascade that stops you when you bleed

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603
Q

What is the MOA of Statins?

A

Inhibit HMG CoA reductase

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604
Q

What are the Holosystolic murmurs?

A

Tricuspid RegurgMitral RegurgVSD

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605
Q

What is Stage 1 of Labor?

A

Starts with the onset of true labor and lasts until the cervix is completely dilated to 10 cm

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606
Q

What are the Vasculitis associated with LOW C3?

A

“PMS in Salt Lake City”Post-Strep GNMembranoproliferativeGlomerulonephritis Type IISub Bacterial endocarditisSerum SicknessLupusCryoglobulinemia

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607
Q

What is the MOA of albuterol?

A

B2 agonist; relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

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608
Q

What is Factitious?

A

Fake illness to get attention, seeks medical treatment, have a lot of medical knowledge.Tx: Supportive psychotherapy

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609
Q

What is Condyloma Acuminata?

A

Verrucous “cauliflower” warts, koilocytes, due to HPV 6 and 11

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610
Q

What is Osmotic Diarrhea?

A

High osmolality in the bowel pulling water into the lumen

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611
Q

What defines Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

EBV and may have Reed-Sternberg cells

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612
Q

What is Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

A

Rh+ mom’s blood mixes the Rh- fetal blood in first pregnancyNo risk to this childAll pregnancies to follow will be a risk, leading to a fetal demise

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613
Q

What is associated with Chlamydia Pneumonia?

A

Staccato coughing, parasite with DNA and RNAs:Elementary body (Infectious phase) Reticulate Body (resting phase - can’t divide)

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614
Q

What is the only Gram-positive Diplococci?

A

Streptococcus Pneumonia

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615
Q

What is the humoral immune response?

A

B-cells and PMN’s patrol the blood looking for bacteria

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616
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Infliximab?

A

Respiratory infection (including reactivation of latent TB) fever, hypotension

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617
Q

What are the indications for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Strong decrease LDLDecrease TriglyceridesIncrease HDL

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618
Q

What does a Galactokinase deficiency cause?

A

Cataracts

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619
Q

What is the most common extracellular buffer?

A

Bicarb

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620
Q

What is associated with Bacillus Cereus?

A

Fried rice syndrome, preformed toxin

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621
Q

What is Compensation?

A

Doing something different of what you used to do

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622
Q

What is the color of air on X-ray?

A

Black “radiolucent”

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623
Q

What stage of the menstrual cycle has the highest Temperature?

A

Ovulatory stage, body temp will rise One degree during ovulation

624
Q

What bug loves the DCML tract?

A

Treponema

625
Q

What are the indications for 2nd generation H1 Blockers?

A

Allergies

626
Q

Who Makes the Trophoblast?

A

Baby

627
Q

Waht is the rate-limiting enzyme in Cholesterol syntesis?

A

HMG CoA Reductase

628
Q

What makes an adequate sputum sample?

A

<10 epithelial cells and >25 leukocytes per low power field

629
Q

What are the indications from Magnesium?

A

Effective in Torsades and Dig toxicity

630
Q

What are the adverse effects of Salmeterol?

A

Tremor and arrhythmia

631
Q

What is the indication for Isoproterenol?

A

Bronchoconstriction due to sympathetic tone

632
Q

What is Pathological Gambling?

A

Can’t stop gambling, affects others

633
Q

What is the sign of a Clavicle Fracture?

A

Asymmeteric Moro reflex

634
Q

What is an Astrocytoma?

A

Rosenthal fibers - #1 in kids with occipital headache

635
Q

What is Heavy Chain Disease?

A

Increased IgA

636
Q

What GI disease has a Bird’s Beak on X-Ray?

A

Achalasia (Think Chagas disease)

637
Q

What is Carcinoid syndrome?

A

Flushing, wheezing, diarrhea

638
Q

What are the Indications for Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

639
Q

What is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

A

Increased cysts. No ovulation due to no Progesterone, leads to increased Endometrial CA, they cannot inhibit LH, obese, hairy, acne

640
Q

What is the CBC for every basculitis?

A

Decreased: RBC and plateletsIncreased: WBC, T-Cells, Monocytes, Schistocytes, ESR

641
Q

What is associated with Mycoplasma Pneumoniae?

A

Bullous myringitis, Ground Glass CXR, P-1 Protein, Erythema Multiforme

642
Q

What are the risk factors for Primary Liver Cancer?

A

Hepatitis B & C, Aflatoxin, Alcohol, Smoking and Hemochromatosis

643
Q

What are the Pyrimidines?

A

C, U, T

644
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Desmopressin (DDAVP)/ADH?

A

Over hydration and allergic reaction

645
Q

What is a Sliding Hiatal Hernia?

A

Fundus of the stomach herniates through the Esophageal Hiatus into the Thorax

646
Q

What is t1/2?

A

Half-life, the time it takes the body to use half of the drug ingested

647
Q

What is the job of the early distal tubule?

A

Concentrate urine by reabsorbing NaCl

648
Q

What is the thyroid hormone levels during Pregnancy?

A

Increased TBG - leads to increased total T4 (Bound and free)

649
Q

What is seen with Varicella (Chickenpox)?

A

Red macule clear vesicle on red dotPus and scabbingvarious stages of healing

650
Q

What is Cabot’s Ring body?

A

Seen in Vitamin B12 Deficiency and lead poisoning

651
Q

What is intra-Renal Failure?

A

Damaged Glomerulus or tubules; BUN: Creatinine Ratio <20/1

652
Q

What is Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Overriding aorta: Aorta sits on intraventricular Septum giving rise to a VSD, this in turn causes Pulmonary Stenosis and ultimately right heart failure (boot shape x-ray)

653
Q

What organs do not require insulin to absorb glucose?

A

“BRICKLE”: Brain, RBC, Intestine, Cardiac / Cornea, Kidney, Liver and Exercising muscle

654
Q

What receptors do Protein Hormones use?

A

Cell membrane receptors

655
Q

What is an Esophageal Atresia with a TE Fistula (C-Type)?

A

Baby vomits with first feeding, large gastric bubble and distended abdomen (failure of apoptosis)

656
Q

What is Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?

A

Arylsulfatase A defieciencychildhood multiple sclerosis with Ataxia/Dementiaaccumulation of Cerebroside Sulfate

657
Q

What are the catabolic pathways that create energy? (Occur in the Mitochondria)

A

Acetyl-CoA production, Beta-oxidation, citric acid cycle, Ketogenesis, Ox Phos

658
Q

What are Plasma Neoplasms?

A

They produce many antibodies

659
Q

What does the Direct Coombs Test tell you?

A

ANtibody on surface (seen in hemolytic anemia)

660
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Metoclopramide?

A

Increased Parkinsonian effects, restlessness, drowsiness, fatigue, depression, nausea, diarrheaDrug interaction with digoxin and diabetic agentscontraindicated in small bowel obstruction

661
Q

What does Glucagon do?

A

Active in Gluconeogenesis, Glucogenolysis, Lipolysis, and Ketogenesis

662
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Purine synthesis?

A

Glutamine - PRPP

663
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Decreased ach in nucleus basalis of Meynert, bad Apo-E4, Amyloid Plaques, Neurofibrillary Tangles of Tau proteins

664
Q

What is Essential Thrombocythemia?

A

Very high platelets increased RBC’s and WBC’s

665
Q

What does Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) do?

A

Conserves water (V2 aquaporin receptors) and vasoconstriction

666
Q

What does Tracheal deviation tell you?

A

Moves away from tensionPneumothorax moves towards Atelectasis

667
Q

What CA risk does VHL have?

A

RCC

668
Q

What GI disease has a Corkscrew on X-Ray?

A

Esophageal spasm and Volvus

669
Q

What is Carcinoid Syndrome (Triad)?

A

Diarrhea, flushing and wheezing

670
Q

Can you try a Vaginal Delivery on a woman who had a LOW Transverse C-Section previously?

A

Yes, 70% are okay, Potential for uterine wall rupture

671
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

Transmural, Cobblestones, Melena, Creepig Fat, Fistula, Skip lesions

672
Q

What are Loose Associations?

A

Ideas switch subjects, incoherent

673
Q

What is Idealization?

A

They see only the good in someone despite evidence to the contrary

674
Q

What GI disease has a stacked coin on X-Ray?

A

Intussusception

675
Q

What is Tangentiality?

A

Wanders off the point

676
Q

What is Graft vs. Host Disease?

A

When the graft attacks the body (T-Killer cells and macrophages responded)

677
Q

What are the Indications for Infliximab?

A

Crohn’s Disease, Rheumatoid arthritis

678
Q

What is the time course of the inflammatory response?

A

1 hour: swellingDay 1: PMN’s show upDay 3: PMN’s peakDay 4: Monocytes/Macrophages and T-cells show upDay 7: Monocytes/ Macrophages and T-cells peak, Fibroblasts arriveDay 30: Fibroblasts peakMonth 3-6: Fibroblasts complete scar formation

679
Q

What has Tubular Casts?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

680
Q

What is the risk of Chorionic Villus Sampling?

A

Fetal limb defects. (Done at 9-12 weeks)

681
Q

What is Karyorrhexis?

A

Nucleus fragments

682
Q

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

IgM and Hyperviscosity of the blood

683
Q

What are Pencil Cell/ Cigar Cell?

A

Seen in iron deficiency anemia

684
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?

A

Anti-Mitochondrial antibody Bile ducts are destroyedXanthelasmas present and pruritis

685
Q

What is factitious hypoglycemia?

A

Exogenous insulin use, labs show elevated insulin and decreased C-peptide

686
Q

What are the adverse effects of the Ca2+ channel blockers?

A

Flushing, edema, constipation, CHF, AV block

687
Q

What disease does Coxsackie B cause?

A

Endocarditis, DM Type I

688
Q

When do you give RhoGam?

A

1st Dose: Week 28 gestation2nd Dose: 72 hours post-deliveryAny time a procedure would mix mom and fetal blood

689
Q

What are the IgA Nephropathies?

A

HSPBerger’sAlport Syndrome

690
Q

What is Paracrine?

A

Works on its neighbor. (except sweat gland)

691
Q

What does “Cytosis” tell you?

A

High levels

692
Q

What is Justification?

A

Making excuses for behavior afterwards

693
Q

What are the Biguanides drugs?

A

Metformin

694
Q

What are the glycogenic amino acids?

A

His, Met, Val

695
Q

What are the indications for Hydralazine?

A

Severe HTN, 1st line treatment for HTN in pregnancy

696
Q

What are the hormones with disulfide bonds?

A

“PIIG”: Prolactin, Insulin, Inhibin, GH (growth hormone)

697
Q

How do i know the patient has a Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) Deficiency?

A

Angular Cheilosis

698
Q

What does Vit B9 do?

A

Nuclear division (Synthesis of Nitrogenous bases for RNA and DNA)

699
Q

What is Glanzmann’s?

A

Baby with bleeding from skin and mucosa (LOW GP-2b3a)

700
Q

What is Exhibitionism?

A

Exposure to others

701
Q

How does the Sympathetic System behave?

A

Opposite of Parasympathetic:ConstipationUrinary retentionMydriasis - “Eyes wide with fright”TachycardiaBronchodilateEjaculation “Shoot”Xerophthalmia (dry eyes)Xerostomia (Dry mouth)

702
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of Sulfonylureas?

A

Closes K+ channel in the pancreatic Beta cell membrane, Reduces K+ efflux & increases Ca (2+) influx, and cell depolarize to increase secretion of insulin

703
Q

What does the Progesterone Challenge Test tell you?

A

Vaginal bleeding if she has estrogen. If she does not bleed, she has no E2 or ovariesIncreased FSH: Ovary problemDecreased FSH: Pituitary problem

704
Q

What are the classifications of MHC-1?

A

HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C

705
Q

How does chlamydia present?

A

Cervicitis (Yellow pus), conjunctivitis, PID

706
Q

What is Total Anomalous Pulmonary return?

A

All pulmonary veins enter into the right atrium (Snowman x-ray)

707
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Ketogenesis?

A

HMG CoA Synthase

708
Q

What is Herpes?

A

ds DNA virus

709
Q

What is the Stage II of Labor?

A

Continues after the cervix is dilated to 10 cm until the delivery of the baby

710
Q

What is the difference between Heterochromatin and Euchromatin?

A

Hererochromatin = tightly coileddarkerTranscriptionally inactiveEuchromatin = loose (10nm fibers)lighter

711
Q

What are the LIVE Vaccines?

A

“Bring Your Own Very Small Virus and MMR”B - BCGY - Yellow FeverO - OPV (Sabin) = oral polioV - VaricellaS - SmallpoxV - RotavirusM - Measles = RubeolaM - MumpsR - Rubella = German 3 day measles

712
Q

What murmur has a regular-irregular pulse?

A

PVC

713
Q

What disease has a Thumb Sign on neck films?

A

Epiglottitis

714
Q

What is Restrictive Lung disease?

A

small still lungs, can’t get air in

715
Q

What symptoms does a “less likely to depolarize” state have?

A

Brain: lethargic, mental status changes, depressionSkeletal Muscle: weakness, SOBSmooth Muscle: constipation then diarrheaCardiac: hypotension, bradycardia

716
Q

What are the indications for Ezetimibe?

A

Decrease LDL

717
Q

What are the Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone

718
Q

What is the effect of Alcohol on the fetus?

A

FASSmooth philtrumshortpolyclonalmidface hypoplasiathin superior Vermilion border

719
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of Insulin?

A

Pushes K+ into the cell,Liver: Increases Glucose storage as Glycogen, Increases Triglyceride synthesis.Muscle: Increases protein and glycogen synthesis.Adipose Tissue: Improves Triglycerde storage by activating Lipoprotein Lipase, Decrease circulating Free Fatty Acids

720
Q

What causes Chancroid?

A

Haemophilus Ducreyi

721
Q

What is Telephone Scatologia?

A

Phone Sex

722
Q

What is the MOA of ARBS?

A

Ang II blockers, prevernt alpha 1 vasoconstriction from Ang II

723
Q

What is a Missed Abortion?

A

Cervix is closed, no fetal remnantsTx. D&C

724
Q

What type of kidney stones have envelope or dumbbell-shaped crystals?

A

oxalate

725
Q

What does the E Ab tell you?

A

Low transmissibility

726
Q

What is the cause of large babies?

A

DM or twin-twin transfusions

727
Q

What are the indications for Nitroprusside?

A

Hypertensive emergency, CHF, Angina

728
Q

What is the MOA of cromolyn?

A

Prevents release of mediators from mast cells

729
Q

What is Bismuth and Sucralfate used for?

A

Increase ulcer healing, traveler’s diarrhea

730
Q

What is a SIderoblast?

A

Macrophages pregnant with Iron (caused by genetics and or multiple transfusions)

731
Q

What is the MOA of Bile Acid resins?

A

Prevent intestinal reabsorption of bile acids, Liver must use cholesterol to make more

732
Q

What are the sympathoplegics?

A

Metoprolol, Atenolol, Acebutolol, Esmolol, Propranolol, Timolol, Carvedilol, Prazosin, Clonidine, Methyldopa, Hexamethonium, Reserpine, Guanethidine

733
Q

What is the MOA of Salmeterol?

A

B2 agonist; relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

734
Q

What is Bronchitis?

A

Increased sputum production “Blue Bloater”

735
Q

What is Type 2A Hyperlipidemia?

A

Defective LDL-Clathrin Pit or B-100 (LDL are elevated)

736
Q

What will you see with Anemia of Chronic Disease?

A

Decreased TIBC

737
Q

What will you see with Sideroblastic Anemia?

A

Decreased dALA synthase common with blood transfusions

738
Q

What are the adverse effects of Hexamethonium?

A

Severe orthostatic hypotension, blurred vision, constipation, sexual dysfunction

739
Q

What is the MOA of the K+ channel blockers?

A

Increase AP duration, increase effective refractory period (ERP), increase QT interval

740
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

esophageal webbing at the UES, spoon nails from iron deficiency anemia

741
Q

What is Cholestasis?

A

Obstructed bile ductHigh Alk Phos (if in the common bile duct)

742
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

Aorticopulmonary septum did not spiral, most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in the first month of life (Neural crest cell migration problem)

743
Q

What is Trichotillomania?

A

They pull out their own hair and eat it

744
Q

What is McCune-Albright?

A

Precocious sexual development, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia “whorls of connective tissue”, “coast of Maine” pigemented skin macules

745
Q

What is associated with Vibrio Parahaemolyticus?

A

Raw Fish, Gs Stimulation via ADP- ribosylation = HIGH cAMP, Turns the on… on

746
Q

How fast should B-HCG rise?

A

Shoulde double every 2 days until 10 weeks, stops when placenta is fully formed

747
Q

What are the indications for Methacholine?

A

Asthma challenge test

748
Q

What are some causes of Vitamine B12 deficiency?

A

TapewormsVeganismType A gastritisPernicious Anemia

749
Q

What does Vit D do?

A

Mineralization of bones and teeth

750
Q

What are the newborn screening tests?

A

“Please Check Baby Before Going Home”P - PKUC - CAH/ CFB - Biotinidase/ Beta- ThalassemiaG - GalactosemiaH - Hypothyroidism/ Homocystinuria

751
Q

What are the most common causes of mental retardation in the US?

A

FAS, Fragile X and Down’s Syndrome

752
Q

What is Wiskott-Aldrich?

A

Low IgM, Low PlateletsHigh IgAEczemaPetechiaeX-linked

753
Q

What is achondroplasia (Laron Dwarf)?

A

Patient with abnormal FGF receptors in exremities. (abnormal FGF3)

754
Q

What is Hemosiderosis?

A

Fe overload in bone marrow

755
Q

What is Poikilocytosis?

A

RBC’s of different shapes

756
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Mimetics?

A

Hypoglycemia, Nausea, Diarrhea

757
Q

What can high Triglycerides Cause?

A

Pancreatitis

758
Q

What is the MOA of a muscarinic antagonist?

A

competitively block muscarinic receptors preventing bronchoconstriction

759
Q

What are the methylxanthines?

A

Theophylline

760
Q

What is the function of T3 and T4?

A

Growth and differentiation

761
Q

What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?

A

Theatrical, sexually provocative, use repression

762
Q

What diseases have Respiratory Alkalosis?

A

Restrictive Lung diseaseAnxietyPregnancyGram neg sepsisPE

763
Q

What does Fe2+ do?

A

Hb function, electron transport

764
Q

What is RhoGam?

A

Anti-D IgG

765
Q

What is Pyromania?

A

Sets fires for the fun of it

766
Q

How does DKA present?

A

Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath (acetone), and altered mental status

767
Q

What is assocaited with Strep Bovis?

A

Colon Cancer, black pigment

768
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate non-infectious state?

A

HBeAg-

769
Q

What bugs cause Bloody Diarrhea?

A

“CASES”: Campylobacter, AMoeba (Entamoeba Histolytica), Shigella, E. coli and Salmonella

770
Q

What are the only arteries with deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary and umbilical arteries

771
Q

What are the Long Acting Insulin drugs?

A

Ultralente, Glargine, and Protamine

772
Q

What is Sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granulomas, eggshell calcification around lymph nodes

773
Q

What sound radiates to the axilla?

A

Mitral regurgitation

774
Q

How is Major Depression diagnosed?

A

Need 5 of 8 “SIGECAPS” for over 2 weeksSleep disturbance: wake in early or wake up lateInterest/ libido lossGuiltEnergy LossConcentration LossAppetite LossPsychomotor AgitationSuicidal Ideation (hopelessness)

775
Q

What does somatostatin do?

A

Inhibits secretin, motilin, and CCK

776
Q

What is the Adverse Effect of Sulfonylureas?

A

Hypoglycemia, GI disturbances, Muscle weakness, mental confusion, Sulfur allergy

777
Q

What is the MOA of N-acetylcysteine?

A

loosen mucus plugs by breaking disulfide bonds

778
Q

What has Epithelial Casts?

A

Normal sloughing

779
Q

What is INR ratio determined by?

A

Measured PT/ Control PTtherapeutic level is between 2-3Normal level is 1

780
Q

What are the Water shed areas?

A

Hippocampus, splenic flexure

781
Q

What is Stress Incontinence?

A

Weak pelvic floor muscles, urinating when coughing, laughing, etc. Estrogen effect

782
Q

What is an Arnold-Chiari Malformation?

A

Herniation of cerebellum through Foramen MagnumType 1: Cerebellar tonsils (asymptomatic)Type 2: Cerebellar vermis/ medulla – Hydrocephalus, Syringomyelia (loss of pain and temerature)

783
Q

What is a Vertex Presentation?

A

Posterior Fontanel (triangle shape) presents first (normal)

784
Q

What is associated with C. Diff

A

Explosive diarrhea = Pseudomembranous Colitis

785
Q

What are the antileukotriene drugs?

A

Zileuton, Zafirlukast, montelukast:aspirininduced asthma

786
Q

What are the Purines?

A

A, G

787
Q

What is a Septic Abortion?

A

Fever greater than 100.4 F, malodorous discharge

788
Q

What is a Pappenheimer body?

A

Iron inside cell (sideroblastic anemia)

789
Q

What does Seminal Vesicle give to Sperm?

A

Food (Fructose) and clothes (semen)

790
Q

What GI diseases are the causes of liquid Dysphagia?

A

Scleroderma and Achalasia

791
Q

What does IDL do?

A

It takes TG’s from adipose to tissue

792
Q

What type of Gallstone can be seen on X-Ray?

A

Calcium Bilrubinate stone

793
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?

A

A vascular necrosis of femoral head, more often in young children (4-8 y/o), mildly painful limb that develops insidiously. Range of motion is limited especially internal rotation and abduction, x-ray join effusion

794
Q

What are the Production Anemias?

A

Diamond-BlackfanAplastic Anemia

795
Q

Where is VLDL made?

A

Liver

796
Q

What is associated with C. Botulinum?

A

Canned food, honey, inhibits ACh release, respiratory failure, stool toxin, treat with Penicillin

797
Q

What is SIADH?

A

Too much ADH present causes plasma volume to expand Serum Na+ less than 120

798
Q

What is the Somogyi Effect?

A

Morning hyperglycemia secondary to evening hypoglycemia

799
Q

What are Identical Twins?

A

Eggs split into perfect halves “Monochorionic”

800
Q

What is the symptoms of Loeffler Syndrome?

A

Pulmonary Eosinophilia

801
Q

What is the MOA of H1 Blockers?

A

Reversible inhibitors of H1 histamine receptors

802
Q

What is associated with Group C Strep?

A

Pharyngitis

803
Q

What is HPV?

A

ds DNA virus, vaccine out not covers 8-27 year old female to block HPV 6, 11, 18 STD

804
Q

What is the function of FSH

A

Male: sperm, MIF, inhibin BFemale: Stimulates Estradiol (E2)

805
Q

What vesels have the most smooth muscle?

A

Arterioles

806
Q

What are the symptoms of a Low Energy State?

A

CNS: Mental retardation, dementiaCV: heart failure, pericardial effusionMuscle: weakness, SOB, vasodilation, impotence, urinary retention, constipation

807
Q

What are the signs of child abuse?

A

Multiple EcchymosisRetinal HemorrhageEpidural / Subdural HemorrhageSpiral Fractures (twisted)Multiple fractures in different stages of healing

808
Q

What is Nitrazine?

A

Detects presence of amniotic fluid. (pH indicator - strip will turn blue if pH is greater than 6.0)

809
Q

What is Pyknosis?

A

Nucleus turns into blobs. (shrinkage)

810
Q

What organs have resistance in parallel?

A

All the rest of the organs (except liver and kidneys)

811
Q

What are the indications for Losartan?

A

HTN

812
Q

What is PIE Syndrome?

A

Pulmonary Infiltrate with Eosinophilia

813
Q

What stage of the Menstrual Cycle has the highest level of Progesterone?

A

Luteal stage (Has secretory endothelium)

814
Q

What makes Progesteron <10 week gestation?

A

Corpus Luteum

815
Q

What is assocaited with Salmonella?

A

Loves to hide in the gallbladder if treated.Do not treat this infection medically, raw chicken and eggs, turtles, rose typhoid spots, H2S (sulfur producing), Sickle Cell patients with Salmonella infection leads to Osteomyelitis

816
Q

What is Euthyroid Sick Syndrome?

A

LOW T3 Syndrome and decreased conversion of T4 to T3 (increased T3r)

817
Q

What is Albinism?

A

No Tyr -> Melanin (via Tyrosinase)

818
Q

What is Endometritis?

A

Postpartum uterine tenderness

819
Q

What is seen with Tin deficiency?

A

Poor hair growth

820
Q

What does an Isomerase do?

A

Creates and isomer

821
Q

What is the MOA of Odansetron?

A

5-HT3 antagonist, powerful central acting antiemetic

822
Q

What is Rotor’s?

A

Defective Bilirubin storage and Elevated Conjugated Bilirubin

823
Q

What vessels have the largest cross-sectional area?

A

Capillaries

824
Q

How does Lymphogranuloma Venereum present?

A

Painless Ulcers, Abscessed Nodes, Genital, and Elephantiasis, due to Chlamydia Trachomatis

825
Q

What is Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Patients have low IgA and neurological problems, difficulty ambulating and spider like blood vessels

826
Q

What are the side effects of Estrogen?

A

Weight gain, breast tenderness, nausea, headaches, muscle relaxant, causes constipation, increased protein production, irritability, and varicose veins

827
Q

What is Stage III of Labor?

A

Delivery of the placenta

828
Q

What hormones are released from the posterior pituitary?

A

ADH (supraoptic nucleus), Oxytocin (Paraventricular nucleus) by the Neurophysins

829
Q

What is Anencephaly?

A

Notochord did not make contact with the brain - only have the medulla

830
Q

What is Cholangitis?

A

Inflamed bile duct

831
Q

What does the Coombs Test Tell you?

A

Antibody involved

832
Q

What is Dependent Personality Disorder?

A

Clingy, submissive, low self-confidence, uses regression

833
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate previous infection and now immunity?

A

HBcAb+, HBsAb+, HBsAg-

834
Q

What are the physical signs of Alcoholic Cirrhosis?

A

Spider Angioma, Palmar Erythema, Gynecomasatia and Dupuytren’s Contracture

835
Q

What is Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia?

A

Kids ( < 1 y/o) with defective tyrosine kinase; they have no antibodies and have x-linked transmission

836
Q

What are the indications for Sulfalazine?

A

UC, Crohn’s disease

837
Q

What is a Drepanocyte?

A

Seen in Sickle cell Anemia

838
Q

Negative high dose Dex. and High ACTH levels?

A

Ectopic ACTH- small cell CA of the lungs

839
Q

What are the indications for Clonidine?

A

HTNSmokingCocaineHeroin withdraw

840
Q

What is Type and Match?

A

Blood type and Wait

841
Q

What is Wolff-CHaikoff?

A

Transient hypothyroidism

842
Q

What is Pyloric Stenosis?

A

Non-bilious projectile vomiting (3-4 week old) and RUQ Olive Mass on Palpation

843
Q

What is Lichen Simplex Chronicus?

A

Raised white lesions, chronic scratching

844
Q

What is the MOA of Clonidine?

A

Alpha 2 agonist = decreases peripheral resistance

845
Q

Which part of the Nephron concentrates urine?

A

medulla

846
Q

What is the Adverse Effect of Insulin?

A

Hypoglycemia

847
Q

What are the sulfur-containing amino acids?

A

Cys, Met

848
Q

What is Bartter’s Syndrome?

A

JG cell hyperplasia with renin excess, no increase in blood pressure, defect in kidney’s ability to reabsorb potassium

849
Q

What is Drug Induced Hypersensitivity?

A

Eosinophils in the urine

850
Q

What is increased beat-to-beat variability?

A

Fetal Hypoxia

851
Q

What is the MOA of Bismuth and Sucralfate?

A

Bind to ulcer base, providing physical protection allows bicarbonate ion secretion to reestablish pH gradient in the mucous layer

852
Q

What causes lateral leg bowing?

A

Rickets

853
Q

What is Undoing?

A

Doing exact opposite of what you used to do to fix a wrong

854
Q

What bugs disrupt G Proteins?

A

Pertussis: Inhibits Gi (Turning the off to off allows for stimulation)Chloera: Stimulates Gs (Keeping the on … on)E. Coli: Stimulates Gs (Keeping the on … on)

855
Q

What is Myelofibrosis?

A

Megakaryocytes, fibrotic bone marrow, teardrop cells (RBC’s) and extramedullary Hematopoiesis

856
Q

What disease states have increased Anion Gap?

A

“MUDPILES”MethanolUremiaDKAParaldehyde/PhenoforminINH/ Iron tabletsLactic AcidosisEthylene GlycolSalicylates

857
Q

What is CD8?

A

T-killer or T-suppressor cellResponds to MHC-1 complex (self)

858
Q

What causes Gonorrhea?

A

Gram-negative Diplococcus, presents with mucopurulent discharge. Can be present with Palmer Pustule, arthritis/joint pain, urethral discomfort

859
Q

What are some causes of Folate Deficiency?

A

Old food, you will see Glossitis with the patient

860
Q

What is Cretinism?

A

Mom and baby are hypothyroid

861
Q

What do you see in DeQuervain’s disease?

A

Viral origin, painful jaw, hypothyroid

862
Q

What is Epstein’s anomaly?

A

Small right ventricle and very large right atrium (in fetus due to mom taking Lithium during pregnancy)

863
Q

What murmur has an irregular-irregular pulse?

A

A fib (no P waves)

864
Q

What is Kleptomania?

A

Steals for the fun of itTx: Psychotherapy

865
Q

What is a normal BPP?

A

>8-10

866
Q

What is an Oligodendroglioma?

A

Fried egg appearance, Nodular Calcification

867
Q

What does high WBC and Bands tell you?

A

Left shift - they have an infection

868
Q

What are the pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia (PIE) syndromes?

A

Churg-Straus, Loeffler’s, allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

869
Q

Waht is Vasa Previa?

A

Babies blood over OS

870
Q

What is the Average IQ?

A

85-100

871
Q

What are the indications for Octreotide?

A

Acute variceal bleeds, acromegaly, VIPoma, carcinoid tumors

872
Q

What is Loss of Ego Boundaries?

A

Where we lose sight and sense of our mind and body and its influences

873
Q

What is seen in Magnesium deficiency?

A

Loss of kinase function, hypoparathyroidism

874
Q

What is Vater Syndrome?

A

V - Vertebral abnormalityA - AnalTE - Tracheal Esophageal FistulaR - Renal

875
Q

What is associated with Listeria?

A

Raw cabbage, hot dogs, cold cuts, and spoiled milk, likes cold environmentMust avoid these foods in pregnancy, also seen in migrant workersCauses: abortions, Meningitis, and heart block

876
Q

What is the Most common type of Kidney Stone?

A

Calcium Phosphate and Calcium Oxalate

877
Q

What is the risk of Amniocentesis?

A

Abortion (2% risk)

878
Q

What is Potency?

A

Amount of drug needed to produce effect (lower w/ comp antagonist)

879
Q

What is the indication for Methylxanthines?

A

Asthma

880
Q

What does Galactosemia cause?

A

Cataracts, mental retardation, liver damage

881
Q

What is a Neuroblastoma?

A

Adrenal Medulla tumorHypsarrthymiaOpsoclonusIncreased urinary VMA

882
Q

What is Pre-Renal Failure?

A

Low flow to kidney; BUN; Creatinine ratio >20/1 in the serum

883
Q

What is the function of PRH?

A

Stimulates Prolactin (PRL) release

884
Q

What disease has a Selenium deficiency?

A

Dialted cardiomyopathy

885
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B3 (Niacin) Deficiency?

A

Pellagra (4 D’s: Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, death)

886
Q

What is Small Cell Cancer?

A

Located at the Carina, Malignant, Cushing’s syndrome, SIADH, and SVC syndrome

887
Q

What is Type B gastritis?

A

Upper GI bleed, associated with eating spicy foods, loss of barrier protection and H. Pylori infections (antrum of stomach)

888
Q

What GI diseases are the causes of solid and liquid dysphagia?

A

Schatzki’s Rings, Stricture, Cancer

889
Q

What is associated with E. Coli?

A

Raw hamburger, ADP- Ribosylates Gs (increased cAMP)Verotoxin, HUS in kids and elderly

890
Q

FEV1/FVC in Obstructive lung disease

A

Lower than normal (N: 0.75-0.80)

891
Q

What are the bacteria associated with Colon CA?

A

Clostridium Melanogosepticus and Streptococcus Bovis

892
Q

What is the Adverse Effect of Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors?

A

GI disturbances and may reduce absorption of iron

893
Q

What does VLDL do?

A

It takes TG’s from liver to adipose

894
Q

What is Bipolar I?

A

Mania with or without depression for at least 1 week, as well as period of normal moodTx: First line - Lithium, Lamotrigine or RisperidoneSecond line - Aripripezole, Divalproex, Quetiapine, Olanzapine, Psychotherapy and cognitive behavioralAcute Mania: Hospitalize, mood stabilizer (Lithium), acute antipsychotic (Risperidone) and IM phenothiazine - non compliant

895
Q

What bug causes Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis?

A

Steptococcus viridans. (attacks damages valves)

896
Q

What are the indications for the channel blockers?

A

WPW, Torsades, pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, Hypo/hyperthyroidism

897
Q

What is a transversion?

A

Changes one purine to a pyrimidine

898
Q

What is Reaction Formation?

A

Unconsciously act opposite to how you feel, “Tears on a clown”

899
Q

What is the MOA of Nesiritide?

A

Recombinant BNP, increase in cGMP and vasodilation

900
Q

What is Cystosarcoma Phylloides?

A

Exploding Mushroom

901
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Pressure equalized in all 4 chambers, quiet Precordium, no pulse or BP, Kussmaul’s Sign, Pulsus Pardoxus (Decrease in BP greater than 10 mm Hg with inspiration)

902
Q

What is a Stomatocyte?

A

Seen in liver disease

903
Q

What does Rh- tell you?

A

Does not have the D Antigen

904
Q

What is associated with Yersinia Enterocolitica?

A

Presents like appendicitis and Reiter’sBloody Diarrhea

905
Q

What are the layers of the Adrenal Cortex and what do they produce?

A

Zona Glomerulosa (Aldosterone),Zona Fasciculate (Cortisol),Zona Reticularis (Androgens)

906
Q

What does a Southern blot detect?

A

DNA, “Snow, Drop”

907
Q

How do you test efferent arteriole function?

A

Renal plasma flow (RPF) or PAH

908
Q

What adds color to Stool?

A

Stercobilinogen being oxidized to stercobilin

909
Q

What is a Heinz body?

A

Seen when Hb precipitates and sticks to cell membranes in G6PD deficiency

910
Q

What is the difference between DI and SIADH?

A

DI: diluted urineSIADH: concentrated urine

911
Q

What is a Blast?

A

Baby hematopoietic cell

912
Q

What are the branched amino acids?

A

“Can’t LIVe w/o them”, Leu, Ile, Val

913
Q

What is the Indication for Mimetics?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

914
Q

What are the adverse effects of Nitroprusside?

A

Cyanide Toxicity, hypotension, short acting

915
Q

What is Isolation of Affect?

A

Isolate feelings to keep on fucntioning

916
Q

What is Hirsutism?

A

Hairy female (Excess growth in normal male areas)

917
Q

What is associated with Strep Pyogenes?

A

Rheumatic Fever, PSGN, Impetigo, Pharyngitis, Nec Fasc

918
Q

What is stable angina?

A

Pain with exertion that is relieved with rest (Athersclerosis MCC)

919
Q

What are the indications for 1st generation H1 blockers?

A

Allergy, motion sickness, sleep aid

920
Q

What ion has the least movement at rest?

A

Chloride

921
Q

What is associated with S. Pneumoniae?

A

Gram-positive diplococci, rusty sputum, IgA Protease, vaccine covers 23 strains

922
Q

What is cyclothymia?

A

Dysthymia with hypomania for more than 2 yearsTx: Lithium, Valproic Acid or Carbamazepine and psychotherapy

923
Q

What is Oligohydramnios?

A

Too little amniotic fluid (baby can’t pee)

924
Q

What does the Water Deprivation Test tell you?

A

If the patient fails to concentrate urine, they do not have Primary DI

925
Q

What effects Efficacy?

A

Vmax

926
Q

What defines AML?

A

15-30 y/o males Sudan StainAuer Rods, (CD30)T (15;17) - D M3 AML subtypetreat with ATRA

927
Q

What organs have resistance in series?

A

Liver and Kidneys

928
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B4 (Lipoic Acid) Deficiency?

A

No deficiency state

929
Q

What is Type I RTA?

A

Distal RTA: H/K in collecting duct is broken, high urine pH

930
Q

What is Autocrine?

A

Works on itself. (except T-cell activation)

931
Q

What is Hypochondriasis?

A

They worry about having a serious illness (specific disease) they seek medical attention. For constant reassuranceTx: Psychotherapy

932
Q

What does the JGA do?

A

Measures volume, secretes renin (low volume state)

933
Q

What is Testicular Feminization (Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome)?

A

Males with defective / bad DHT receptor, they are XY with a blind pouch vagina

934
Q

What does Vit B6 do?

A

Transaminase cofactor, myelin integrity

935
Q

What is Paraphimosis?

A

Foreskin scarre at penis baseforeskin will strangulate the gland

936
Q

What is Glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Pseudopalisading necrosis, worst prognosisintralesional hemorrhage

937
Q

What does Zn2+ do?

A

Taste buds, hair, sperm function

938
Q

What Diseases have a low LAP?

A

CML & PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia)

939
Q

What is Hyper IgM Syndrome?

A

High IgM and all other Ig’s are low

940
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (WSF) or Hemorrhagic Adrenalitis or Fulminant Meningococcemia?

A

Adrenal hemorrhage most commonly due to Meningococcus Neisseria Meningitides

941
Q

What disease has a steeple sign on neck films?

A

Croup (or Laryngotracheobronchitis)

942
Q

What are the Indications for Insulin?

A

DM Type 1; DM Type 2; Hyperkalemia; Stress induced Hyperglycemia; Gestational Diabetes

943
Q

What is Type 3 Hyperlipidemia?

A

Defective ApoE (Elevated ILD)

944
Q

What is the Osler-Weber-Rendu?

A

AVM (Atrial-Venous Malformation)in lung, GI, CNSthe AVM sequesters platelets and causes acquired Telangiectasia’s

945
Q

What is a Howell-Jolly Body?

A

The spleen or bone marrow should have removed nuclei fragments.(Seen in Hemolytic Anemia, spleen trauma, and CA)

946
Q

What is associated with N. Meningitidis?

A

DIC, Pili, Only bug that releases toxin in the log phase

947
Q

What is a Gastric Ulcer?

A

Loss of protective barrier, pain during the meal, associated with NSAIDs, H. Pylori infection and weight loss

948
Q

What is Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and associations?

A

Insulin receptor insensitivity, HONK coma, Acanthosis Nigricans

949
Q

What can you measure to test afferent arteriole’s function?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or Inulin

950
Q

What is an incomplete Abortion?

A

Cervix is open, fetal remnantsTx: D&C to prevent placenta infection

951
Q

What is seen in Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

A

Antimicrosomal antibody and Anti-TPO antibody

952
Q

What is the definition of AIDS?

A

CD4 count less than 200 or defining illness

953
Q

What is Schizoid Personality Disorder?

A

Recluse, they don’t want to interact with others, emotional coldness

954
Q

What are the 2nd generation H1 Blockers?

A

Loratadine, fexofenadine, Desloratadine, Cetirizine

955
Q

What is the most common cause of no red reflex?

A

Cataracts - Increased incidence with high glucose or galactose, Rubella, Failure of light stimulating the retina by 3 months of life and if this does not occur the child will be blind

956
Q

What is Bronze cirrhosis?

A

Fe deposit in liver

957
Q

What is associated with S. Aureus?

A

Cellulitis, Dairy products, Gold pigment, Endocarditis, Styes, Hordeolum (on eyelid)

958
Q

What is Associated with M. Catarrhalis?

A

It loves Mucus: it attacks the respiratory tract

959
Q

What is MCD?

A

Most common nephrotic in kids, fused foot processes, no renal failure, loss of charge barrier

960
Q

What is Jod-Basedow Disease?

A

Transient hyperthyroidism due to increased iodine

961
Q

What is the MOA of Nifedipine and verapamil?

A

Ca+ channel antagonists

962
Q

What are the continuous Murmurs?

A

PDA or AVM’s

963
Q

What is Bronchoalveolar CA?

A

Looks like pneumoniadue to pneumoconiosis, nonsmoker

964
Q

How does a Subarachnoid hemorrhage present?

A

“Worst headache of my life”, hx. of Berry aneurysm

965
Q

What is a Gonadotrope?

A

LH and FSH

966
Q

What is Bronze pigmentation?

A

Fe deposit in skin

967
Q

What are the indications for Diazoxide?

A

HTN

968
Q

What is a Female Hermaphrodite?

A

Impossible because female is the default formation

969
Q

Negative high dose Dex. and low ACTH levels?

A

Adrenal CA (high cortisol)

970
Q

What disease has Aniridia?

A

Wilms Tumor

971
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B6 (Pyridozine) Deficiency?

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

972
Q

What are the Extravascular Hemolytic anemias?

A

Spherocytosiswarm autoimmuneParoxysmal cold autoimmuneSickle cell anemia

973
Q

What is Monoclonal Gammopathy of undetermined significance?

A

Old Person with Gamma Spike (from years of building up)

974
Q

In what layers does a true aortic aneurysm occur?

A

Intima, media, and adventitia

975
Q

What is a Male Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

XY with LOW 17-OHase and LOW Testosterone

976
Q

What is Azotemia?

A

Increased BUN/Creatinine ratiorenal failure

977
Q

What disease does Coxsackie A cause?

A

Hand-foot-mouth disease

978
Q

What do low Retics tell you?

A

Decreased production of bone marrow - not working right

979
Q

What is Kleine Rechnung?

A

Scant bleeding at ovulation

980
Q

What is the MOA of Niacin?

A

Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissuereduces hepatic VLDL secretion into circulation

981
Q

What is diastole?

A

Heart ventricles fillingincreased blood to Coronary arteriesless extraction of oxygenPhase 4 and 5 Korotkoff

982
Q

What is the MOA of Biguanides?

A

Decrease Gluconeogenesis, Increase Glycolysis, and Increase peripheral Glucose uptake. (Insulin sensitivity)

983
Q

What is Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

A

Incontinence, ataxia “magnetic gait” dementia

984
Q

What is the Most Common Cause of Kidney Stones?

A

Dehydration

985
Q

What does Somatostatin (SS) do?

A

Inhibits growth hormone (GH) release

986
Q

What is the function Oxytocin?

A

Milk and baby ejection

987
Q

What is the job of the Thin Descending Loop of Henle?

A

Reabsorbs Water

988
Q

What is Hemophilia B?

A

Factor IX deficiencyBleed into joints (knee, etc)

989
Q

What is a threatened Abortion?

A

Cervix is closed, baby is intact, treat with bed rest

990
Q

What disease has multiple lung aneurysms?

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu (AD Ped disease – thin vessels in nose, GI, and lungs)

991
Q

What is the MOA of Bosentan?

A

Competitively antagonizes endothelium-1 receptors decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance

992
Q

Why is Nagele’s Rule Inaccurate?

A

Because it does not start from Ovulation date

993
Q

What is the MOA of Metoclopramide?

A

D2 receptor antagonist; increase resting tone, contractility LES tone, motility

994
Q

What is a Band?

A

Baby Neutrophil

995
Q

What is Asbestosis?

A

Shipyard workers, pipe fitters, brake mechanics, insulation installers

996
Q

What is Chronic Rejection?

A

Occurs months to years later and fibroblasts are present

997
Q

What does Vit B7 do?

A

Carboxylation (Avidin in egg whites (raw) binds Biotin)

998
Q

What is Savage’s Syndrome?

A

Ovarian resistance to LH/FSH

999
Q

How does Factor 13 Deficiency present?

A

Umbilical stump bleeding(this is the first time a baby has to stabalize a clot)

1000
Q

What are the B cell Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphomas?

A

Follicular: t(14;18) and bcl-2Burkitt: t(8;14), c-myc, Starry sky, Macrophagesin american kids: abdominal massin african kids: jaw mass

1001
Q

What are the Stress Hormones and when do they appear?

A

Immediately Epinephrine, Glucagon (20 minutes), Insulin & ADH (30 minutes), Cortisol (2-4 hours), and growth hormone (24 hours)

1002
Q

What are Fraternal Twins?

A

Multiple eggs fertilized by different sperm

1003
Q

What is the efferent arteriole’s job?

A

To secrete

1004
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Demeclocycline?

A

Nephrogenic DI, Photosensitivity and Abnormalities of Bone and Teeth

1005
Q

What are the hyperthyroid diseases?

A

Grave’sDeQuervain’sSilent ThyroiditisPlummer’sJod-Basedow

1006
Q

What are the Macrophages called in areas of the body?

A

Blood: MonocytesBrain: MicrogliaLung: Type 1 PneumocytesLiver: Kupffer cellsSpleen: RES cellsLymph: Dendritic cellsKidney: Mesangial cellsPeyer’s Patch: M cellsSkin: Langerhan cellsBone: Osteoclast cellsConnective Tissue: Histiocytes, Giant cells, Epithelioid cells

1007
Q

What is the MOA of PPIs?

A

Irreversibly inhibit H+/K+ ATPase in stomach parietal cellsDecreases proton secretion by parietal cells

1008
Q

Who makes the Cytotrophoblast?

A

Mom production of GnRH, CRH, TRH, and Inhibin

1009
Q

What are the indications for N-acetylcysteine?

A

CF patients and antidote for Acetaminophen overdose

1010
Q

What is Goldblatt’s Kidney?

A

Flea-bitten kidney (ruptured capillaries from high blood pressure)

1011
Q

What does MPO deficiency cause?

A

Catalase positive infections

1012
Q

What is Tay-Sachs?

A

Hexosaminidase A deficiencyHyperreflexia developmental delay”onion skin” Lysosomes

1013
Q

What does Growth Hormone (GH) do?

A

Stimulates Insulin Growth Factor-1 (IGF-1) release from the liver

1014
Q

What is the MOA of Dextromethorphan?

A

Antitussive (antagonizes NMDA glutamate receptors)

1015
Q

What are the indications for digoxin?

A

CHF (increase contractility)A fib (decrease conduction at the AV node)depression of the SA node

1016
Q

How does Tetrology of Fallot (TOF) present differently from Choanal Atresia?

A

TOF Babies… Turns blue with crying and has No feeding issues

1017
Q

What does a Lyase do?

A

Cuts C-C bonds w/ ATP

1018
Q

What is the MOA of Desmopressin (DDAVP)/ADH?

A

Recruits water channels to Luminal Membrane in collecting duct

1019
Q

What is Asherman’s Syndrome?

A

Uterine scars from multiple D&Cs

1020
Q

What are the breakdown products of VLDL?

A

IDL and LDL

1021
Q

What is the difference between Plasma and Serum?

A

Plasma: No RBC’sSerum: No RBC’s or Fibrinogen

1022
Q

What is Gilbert’s Syndrome?

A

Stress induced elevatedUnconjugated BilirubinIncreased load saturates Glucuronyl Transferase

1023
Q

What is Secretory Diarrhea?

A

Water pushed from cells into the gastric lumen (increased cAMP)

1024
Q

How does Diverticulosis Present?

A

Gross blood

1025
Q

What is Rett’s

A

Only in girls, decreased head growth, lose motor skills, hand-wringing, they are normal until 5 months of ageTx: Behavioral therapy and physiotherapy

1026
Q

What is Fructosemia?

A

“Fructose intolerance” (Aldolase B deficiency)kidney and liver damageoccurs in infants after introduction of fruits, honey, and juices

1027
Q

What is Pellagra?

A

Niacin (B3) deficiencyDermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Death

1028
Q

What are the corticosteroid drugs?

A

Beclomethasone, Prednisone

1029
Q

What does the surface Ab tell you?

A

Vaccination has occurred

1030
Q

When will you see Plummer’s Disease?

A

Patients with benign adenoma and or patients over 50 yrs. old. In an iodine scan, it looks like a nodular patter

1031
Q

How does Von Willebrand Disease (VWD) present?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

1032
Q

What is the receptor problem with Midgets?

A

Patient with decreased Somatomedin receptor sensitivity

1033
Q

What is Dysthymia?

A

Low level sadness >2 years, looks like depressionTx: Psychotherapy and SSRI

1034
Q

What is a Tracheoesophageal (TE) Fistula (H-Type)?

A

Chokes with each feeding and is Congenital

1035
Q

How do cluster headaches present?

A

Rhinorrhea, unilateral orbital pain, suicidal, facial flushing, worse with lying down

1036
Q

What should you rule out when child abuse is suspected?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta, bleeding disorders, Fifth’s disease and Mongolian spots

1037
Q

What is a Compound Presentation?

A

Arm or hand on head, vaginal delivery. (Mean’s Prolapse of fetal extremity with presenting part)

1038
Q

Egg-shape on x-ray?

A

Transposition of the great arteries

1039
Q

What makes Progesterone in >10 weeks gestation?

A

Placenta

1040
Q

Can you try a Vaginal Delivery on a woman who has had a Classic Horizontal C-Section previously?

A

No, they must have C-Section for all future pregnancies

1041
Q

What is the MOA of GLP-1 Analogs (glucagon like peptides)?

A

Increase Insulin and Decrease Glucagon release

1042
Q

What are the Urease Positive Bugs?

A

“Urease PPUNCHSB”P - ProteusP - PseudomonasU - UreaplasmaN - NocardiaC - CryptococcusH - H. PyloriS - Staphylococcus SaprophyticusB - Brucellosis

1043
Q

What are the K+ channel blockers?

A

Sotalol, Ibutilide, Bretylium, Amiodarone

1044
Q

Where does a Type B thoracic aortic dissection occur?

A

Descending Aorta, (occurs in trauma and Atherosclerosis)

1045
Q

What is Boerhaave Syndrome?

A

Transmural tearing of the Esophagus. Left Sided most common, pneumonia/Pain/Effusion

1046
Q

What is a Sinciput Presentation?

A

Anterior Fontanel (Diamond shape) presents first

1047
Q

What is associated with Coxiella Burnetii?

A

Dusty Barn = Q fever

1048
Q

What is Placenta Percreta?

A

Placenta perforates through serosa

1049
Q

What is the cause of Asymmetrically Small babies?

A

In Late onset: Poor maternal nutrition and vascular disease

1050
Q

What is normal blood loss during a C-section?

A

1000 mL

1051
Q

What is the fucntion of AFP?

A

Regulates intravascular volume

1052
Q

What is Basophilic Stippling?

A

Lots of immature cells increased mRNA (seen in lead poisoning)

1053
Q

What is a Lactotrope?

A

PRL – Prolactin

1054
Q

What disease has a chromium deficiency?

A

Diabetes

1055
Q

What is the function of TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone)?

A

Stimulates release of T3 and T4 from the thyroid.T3= TriiodothyronineT4= Thyroxine

1056
Q

How do migraines present?

A

Auro, photophobia, numbness and tingling, throbbing headache, nausea

1057
Q

What diseases provide malarial protection?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia: African descentG-6PD: Mediterranean’s

1058
Q

What is Epididymitis?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis. Unilateral scrotal pain decreased by support

1059
Q

How would you know the patient has a Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) Deficiency?

A

Beriberi, Wernicke’s Encephalopathy, Wenicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

1060
Q

What is the Psychogenic Polydipsia?

A

Pathologic water drinking will have low plasma osmolality

1061
Q

What is Chorioamnionitis?

A

Fever, uterine tenderness, decreased fetal HR

1062
Q

What is the MOA of Demeclocycline?

A

ADH antagonist

1063
Q

What is the MOA of Methacholine?

A

Muscarinic receptor agonist

1064
Q

What is transudate?

A

An effusion with mostly waterIf too much water: Heart or Renal failure….Or not enough protein: Cirrhosis (can’t make protein), and Nephritic Syndrome (spilling out protein in urine)

1065
Q

What is Rubella (German 3-day Measles)

A

Trunk rashLymphadenopathy behind earsthey don’t look sick

1066
Q

What is the fucntion of MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormones)?

A

Provides skin pigmentation

1067
Q

What sound radiates to the neck?

A

Aortic stenosis

1068
Q

What are the glycogenic & ketogenic amino acids?

A

“PITT” Phe, Iso, Thr, Trp

1069
Q

What is Bronchiolitis?

A

Athma in kids less than 2 years old

1070
Q

What is Sturge-Weber?

A

Port wine stain (big purple spot) on foreheadangioma of retinaEpilepsyMental retardation

1071
Q

What is the function of GRH?

A

Stimulates GH release

1072
Q

What is the MOA of Hydralazine?

A

increases cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation, vasodilates arterioles, afterload reduction

1073
Q

What is Cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

1074
Q

What determines the prognosis of Cancer?

A

Depth of invasion, any choice that has to do with depth - the deeper it is= the worse the prognosis

1075
Q

What will you see in Beta Thalassemia?

A

Seen in Mediterranean’s(chromosome 122- point mutation)

1076
Q

What serum pH does the low volume state have?

A

Alkalotic (due to H+/K+ exchanger)

1077
Q

What is associated with R. Prowazekii?

A

Lice = Starts on body

1078
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A

Wall defect lateral to midline - off center, abdominal wall with no sac covering

1079
Q

What is the MOA of Minoxidil?

A

K+ channel opener, hyperpolarizes and relaxes smooth muscle

1080
Q

What are the adverse effects of Ezetimibe?

A

Rare increase LFT’s

1081
Q

What are the adverse effects of Niacin?

A

Red flushed face which is decreased by aspirin, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

1082
Q

What is a Beastophile?

A

Someone who has sex with animals, women prefer dogs, they can smell their estrogen

1083
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase-2 (CPS-2)

1084
Q

What is seen in Spherocytosis?

A

Defective Spherin or AnkyrinPositive Osmotic Fragility testHigh level of MCHCteardrops

1085
Q

What is Otitis Media?

A

Fluid in the middle ear

1086
Q

What is the most common transplant?

A

Blood transfusion

1087
Q

What are the effects of 2nd generation H1 Blockers?

A

Far less sedating than the 1st generation because of decreased entry into the CNS

1088
Q

Boot-shape on x-ray?

A

RVH

1089
Q

What causes increased PTT and Bleeding Time?

A

Von Willebrand disease and SLE

1090
Q

How do you treat A2 Gestational DM?

A

Insulin

1091
Q

What are the adverse effects of Isoproterenol?

A

Tachycardia (B1)

1092
Q

What is the Treatment for Pre-Eclampsia?

A

Delivery, MgSO4 (seizures), Hydralazine (BP)

1093
Q

What are the adverse effects of Clonidine?

A

Drowsiness, dry mouth, and rebound HTN after abrupt withdraw

1094
Q

What is the Treatment for Eclampsia?

A

4mg MgSO4 IV (Seizure prophylaxis)

1095
Q

How do you monitor Baby’s Heart Rate?

A

Doppler or scalp electrode

1096
Q

What do high Retics (>1%) tell you?

A

RBC is being destroyed peripherally

1097
Q

What is Fanconi Syndrome?

A

Due to old Tetracycline useProduces Urine phosphates, Glucose, and Amino Acids

1098
Q

What is seen why Molybdenum deficiency?

A

Lose xanthine oxidase function

1099
Q

How do you monitor the Uterus?

A

Tocodynamics, uterine pressure catheter. (Measure frequency and duration of contractions)

1100
Q

What is Hartnup’s?

A

No tryptophan-cannot make niacin or seratoninPresents like PellagraGenetic, not nutritional disorder

1101
Q

What is a Frank Breech?

A

Butt down, thigh flexed, legs extended (Pancake)

1102
Q

What has high LAP?

A

Leukemoid reaction

1103
Q

What is Subgaleal Hemorrhage?

A

Prolonged jaundice in newborns due to birthing trauma

1104
Q

What disease has pulsus bisferiens?

A

IHSS- Idiopathic Hypertrophic Subaortic Stenosis

1105
Q

What is Intermittent Explosive Disorder?

A

Loses self-control, disproportional to circumstances?

1106
Q

What Bacteria cause UTI’s and Prostatitis?

A

E. ColiProteusKlebsiellaPseudomonas

1107
Q

What can cause Cushing’s syndrome?

A

High cortisol produced from an adrenal tumor

1108
Q

What bug is associated with cat feces?

A

Toxocara Cati

1109
Q

What is Fabry’s

A

alpha-galactosidase A deficiencyattacks baby’s kidneys and heartXLRaccumulation of CeramideTrihexoside

1110
Q

What are the indications for Nifedipine and verapamil?

A

HTN, angina, arrhythmia (not Nifedipine) Prinzmetal Angina, Raynaud’s

1111
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate that the patient is in the window period?

A

HBeAb+, HBcAb+, HBsAg-

1112
Q

What is Amyloidosis and what stain is used?

A

Amyloid deposits that stain Congo red: Apple-Green Birefringence (AA-chronic disease)

1113
Q

What is Job’s Syndrome?

A

Seen in red headed femalesthey are stuck in the IgE stage

1114
Q

What has Hyaline Casts?

A

Normal sloughing

1115
Q

What is Conduct Disorder Personality Disorder?

A

Younger than 15 years old who have Antisocial personality disorder

1116
Q

What are the SYmptoms of Pre-eclampsia?

A

Headaches, changes in vision, and epigastric pain

1117
Q

What is Childhood Disintegrative Disorder?

A

Kid stops talking and walking. (They lose all their milestones)

1118
Q

Which hormones have the same Alpha Subunits?

A

LH, FSH, TSH, and B-HCG

1119
Q

What murmur has a water hammer pulse?

A

Aortic regurgitation

1120
Q

What is the MOA of Infliximab?

A

Monoclonal antibody to TNF-alpha

1121
Q

What is Pompe’s?

A

Lysosomal a-1, 4-glucosidase deficiencyDie early/young due to heart failure

1122
Q

What is the Peak level?

A

4 hours after dose (too high - decrease dose)

1123
Q

What do Platelet problems cause?

A

Bleeding from skin and mucosa

1124
Q

What bugs cause Meningitis?

A

0-2 months: “baby BEL” B - Group B strep E - E. Coli L - Listeria2 months to 10 years old: S. Pneumoniae N. Meningitidis10-21 years old: N. Meningitidis21 years and up: S. Pneumoniae

1125
Q

How does the Parasympathetic System behave?

A

“DUMBBELS”DiarrheaUrinationMiosis “Constrict”BradycardiaBronchoconstrictionErection “Point”LacrimationSalivation

1126
Q

What does Vit A do?

A

Night vision, CSF production, PTH cofactorantioxidants

1127
Q

What is an Incomplete Molar Pregnancy?

A

2 Sperm + 1 egg (69, XXY) mom “cooks the parts” has embryo parts

1128
Q

What is Adenomyosis?

A

Growth of the Endometrium, Myometrium, and patients will have an enlarged “boggy” uterus with cystic areas

1129
Q

What is the function of Cortisol in Pregnancy?

A

Decreases immune rejection of the baby out of mom and for lung maturation

1130
Q

What are the Indications for Glucocorticoids?

A

Addison’s disease; inflammation; immune suppression; asthma

1131
Q

What has WBC casts and eosinophils?

A

Interstitial Nephritis (Allergies)

1132
Q

What is seen in Copper deficiency?

A

Menky Kinky Hair Syndrome

1133
Q

What are the Systolic Ejection Murmurs?

A

Aortic Stenosis, Pulmonic Stenosis, Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

1134
Q

What is Isocarboxazid?

A

Atypical depression: Hypersomnia, anxiety, sensitivity to rejection, hypochondriasis

1135
Q

What is Necrosis?

A

Non-programmed cell death. Nucleus destroyed first

1136
Q

What is the 1st generation H1 Blockers?

A

Diphenhydramine, Dimenhydrinate, Chlorpheniramine

1137
Q

How does Syphilis present?

A

Primary: Painless Chancre (1-6 weeks)Secondary: Rash and Condyloma Lata (After 6 weeks)Tertiary: Neurological and Cardiac issues, in Bone (after 6 years)

1138
Q

What are the hypothyroid diseases?

A

Hashimoto’s, Riedel’s, Cretinism, Euthyroid SIck syndrome, Wolff-Chaikoff

1139
Q

What is obstructive lung disease?

A

Mucus filled lungs, cannot get air out

1140
Q

What are the anabolic & catabolic pathways? (Occurs in both Cytoplasm and Mitochondria)

A

“HUG” Heme synthesisUrea cycleGluconeogenesis

1141
Q

What are the indications for the Ca2+ channel blockers?

A

SVT/ prevent nodal arrhythmias

1142
Q

What is Type 4 Hyperlipidemia?

A

Defective Adipose Lipoprotein Lipase, elevated VLDL

1143
Q

What are Hallucinations?

A

False sensory perception with absence of external stimuli, seen commonly in ETOH withdraw and cocaine intoxication

1144
Q

What valves make noise at the end of diastole?

A

Mitral and Tricuspid

1145
Q

What is Closed-angle glaucoma?

A

Obstruction of canal of Schlemm, there is a sudden onset pain, emergency

1146
Q

What is the Platelet lifespan?

A

7 days

1147
Q

What is Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Starts at the rectum and ascends,1%/year risk for CAIBD with Pseudopolyps, hematochezia, Lead pipe colon and Toxic Megacolon

1148
Q

What is Pick’s Disease?

A

Frontal lobe atrophy, disinhibition

1149
Q

What is Endometriosis?

A

Painful cyclical heavy menstrual bleeding”Powder burns and chocolate cysts” due to ectopic endometrial tissue. (Endometrial Tissue outside of uterus)

1150
Q

What is a Pedophile?

A

Attracted to children sexually, watching child pornography

1151
Q

What disease process is present when both Serum Ca2+ and Serum Phosphate (PO4-) are decreased?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

1152
Q

What does Cu2+ do?

A

Collagen Synthesis

1153
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of Glycolysis?

A

PFK-1

1154
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B9 (Folate) Deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils, neural tube defects

1155
Q

What is Essential Fructosuria?

A

Fructokinase deficiencyExcrete fructose in blood/urine (still have hexokinase)

1156
Q

What is a “Pink Puffer”?

A

Emphysema

1157
Q

What is Gardener’s Syndrome

A

Familial Polyposis with Bone Tumors

1158
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the HMP shunt?

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G-6PD)

1159
Q

What are the T-cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas?

A

Mcosis Fungoides: total body rashSezary Syndrome: Cerebreform cells in the blood

1160
Q

What bug causes multiple Cerebral Abscesses?

A

Citrobacter

1161
Q

What is Labyrinthitis?

A

Inflammation of the Cochlear portion of the inner ear, present with hearing loss and tinnitus

1162
Q

What is Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

ADH (V2 aquaporin) is blocked or broken. Lithium association and Demeclocycline

1163
Q

What is Meningioma?

A

Located parasagittalPsammoma bodies presentwhirling patternbest prognosis

1164
Q

What happened if your pulse drops more than 10 bpm on standing?

A

Autonomic dysfunction

1165
Q

What are the basic amino acids?

A

Lys, Arg, His

1166
Q

What does Vitamin D do?

A

Helps in calcium absorption from the GI tract

1167
Q

What is an Apt Test?

A

Detects HbF in the Vagina, detects baby’s hemoglobin (Alkali denaturation test)

1168
Q

What is seen in Zinc deficiency?

A

Dysgeusia, anosmia, Poor wound healing

1169
Q

What cardiomyopathy has Pulsus Alternans?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

1170
Q

What is a Monocyte?

A

The destroyer - macrophage (has hydrolytic enzymes and a coffee bean nucleus)

1171
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) Deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils, Neuropathy

1172
Q

What are the indications for Metoclopramide?

A

Diabetic and post-surgery gastroparesis

1173
Q

What is a Target Cell/ Codocyte?

A

These have less Hb (seen in Thalassemias or iron deficiency)

1174
Q

What is seen in Diamond-Blackfan Anemia?

A

They have low RBCs and double jointed thumbs

1175
Q

What is associated with Yersinia Pestis?

A

Rats & Flease = Bubonic Plague

1176
Q

What is cor-pulmonale?

A

Pulmonary HTN leads to Right ventricular failure

1177
Q

What is associated with EPEC?

A

Pathogenic = newborn diarrhea

1178
Q

What is Chlamydia?

A

Obligate intracellular bacteria. Can present asymptomatic or PID Cervicitis (yellow pus)Conjunctivitis

1179
Q

What do Clotting problems cause?

A

Bleeding into cavities

1180
Q

Waht is associated with S. Saprophyticus?

A

Female with UTI’s (2nd cause), honeymooner’s cystitis

1181
Q

What are the adverse effects of fibrates?

A

Myositis, hepatotoxicity (increase LFT’s) cholesterol gallstones

1182
Q

What is Depersonalization Disorder?

A

“Out of Body” experiences, Deja Vu

1183
Q

What is the most common cause of death in the Low Energy State?

A

Heart Failure

1184
Q

What is assocaited with Campylobacter Jejuni?

A

Raw chicken and eggs, dog poop, bloody diarrhea, comma, “seagull” shaped buginactivated by gastric juice and can precipitate Guillain BarreTreat with Erythromycin

1185
Q

What are the adverse effects of 1st generation H1 blockers?

A

Sedation, antimuscarinic, anti-alpha-adrenergic

1186
Q

What do Chylomicrons do?

A

They take Triglycerides (TG) from GI to liver and endothelium

1187
Q

What diseases have high Monocytes (>15%)?

A

“STELS”Syphilis: chancre, rash, wartsTB: Hemoptysis, night sweatsEBV: Teen sick for a monthListeria: Sick babySalmonella: Food poisoning

1188
Q

What is Active Transport?

A

Goes against concentration gradientRequires ATP

1189
Q

What are the diastolic rumbling murmurs?

A

Tricuspid StenosisMitral Stenosis

1190
Q

What is Face Presentation?

A

Mentum Anterior preform forceps delivery

1191
Q

What is Zero-order kinetics?

A

Metabolism independent of concentration (rate of elimination is constant)

1192
Q

What is Mumps?

A

Parotitis (Red Stenson’s Duct)

1193
Q

What does the Bulbourethral/ Cowper’s Glands secrete?

A

Bicarb to neutralize lactobacilli, if sperm is too acidic. (Infertility until corrected)

1194
Q

What is Type and Cross?

A

Blood that is matched by blood type and cross-reacted with the patient’s blood for rejection

1195
Q

How do you treat A1 Gestational DM?

A

Diet

1196
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen Phosphorylase. Occurs in the Cytoplasm of Liver and Muscle

1197
Q

What bugs cause Loeffler Syndrome?

A

“NASSA”N - Necator AmericanusA - Ancylostoma DuodenaleS - SchistosomiasisS - StrongyloidesA - Ascaris Lumbricoides

1198
Q

What has Fat Casts?

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

1199
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the Breast?

A

Rash and ulcer around the nipple, breast CA

1200
Q

What is the only Crescent Shaped Protozoa?

A

Giardia Lamblia

1201
Q

What produces Currant Jelly stool?

A

Intussusception

1202
Q

What is associated with R. Akari?

A

Mites

1203
Q

What are Braxton-Hicks Contractions?

A

Irregular contractions with closed cervix. (preparing for birth)

1204
Q

What is Krabbe’s?

A

Galactocerebrosidase deficiencyperipheral neuropathyoptic atrophygloboid bodiesaccumulation of Galactocerebroside and Psychosine

1205
Q

What are the adverse effects of methylxanthines?

A

Cardiotoxicity, Neurotoxicity

1206
Q

How do I know the patienthas a Vitamin K Deficiency?

A

Bleeding, Loss of gamma-carboxylation

1207
Q

What is a Meningomyelocele?

A

Sacral pocket with meninges and nerves in it

1208
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Osmotic Laxatives?

A

Diarrhea, dehydration, may be abused by bulimics

1209
Q

What is the color of fluid or a solid on X-ray?

A

White “radiopaque”

1210
Q

What is the MOA of a Growth Hormone?

A

Stimulates liver production of insulin-like growth factors and gastric emptying

1211
Q

What is Ferning?

A

Estrogen crystallizes on slide. (Amniotic fluid)

1212
Q

What are the essential fatty acids?

A

Linolenic, Linoleic

1213
Q

What is Hunter’s?

A

Iduronate Sulfatase deficiencymilder formXLRno corneal cloudingaggressive behaviorAccumulation of Heparin and Dermatan Sulfate

1214
Q

What does a Western blot detect?

A

Protein, “snoW, droP”

1215
Q

What are the four Painful Genital Lesions?

A

HerpesChancroid (It makes you cry… H. Ducreyi) Lymphogranuloma VenereumLymphogranuloma Inguinale

1216
Q

What are the indications for Bile Acid Resins?

A

Slightly increase HDL and triglyceridesDecrease LDL

1217
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson?

A

Defective Bilirubin storageBLACK LIVERIncreased conjugated bilirubin

1218
Q

Snowman-shape on x-ray?

A

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

1219
Q

What is the MOA of H2 blockers?

A

Reversible block of histamine H2 receptors to decrease H+ secretion by parietal cells

1220
Q

What are the Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors?

A

Acarbose and Miglitol

1221
Q

What is Early Deceleration?

A

Normal due to head compression

1222
Q

What is Hepatorenal Syndrome?

A

Build up of liver toxins that cause renal failure

1223
Q

What organ has the lower AVO2 difference?

A

Kidney

1224
Q

What bug causes multiple liver abscesses?

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

1225
Q

What is Conversion?

A

Neurological manifestations of internal conflict, indifferent to disability, blindness/mutism triggered by a stressor. Patient is unconcerned about his impairmentTx: Psychotherapy

1226
Q

What is a Xanthelasma?

A

Triglyceride build up and is seen under the eyes (Xanthoma subtype)

1227
Q

What are the indications for Prazosin?

A

Pheochromocytoma, HTN

1228
Q

What is Cystinuria?

A

Defect of AA transporter in PCT and GIm prevents reabsorption of Cysteine, Ornithine, Lysine, Arginine (COLA)Hexagonal (Cysteine) stones in urine (urinary Cyanide nitroprusside test is Dx)

1229
Q

What are the indications for antileukotriene?

A

Asthma, aspirin induced asthma

1230
Q

What is Regression?

A

Immature behavior, go back in development

1231
Q

What are the sounds made from diastolic murmurs?

A

Blowing and rumbling

1232
Q

what is the Central Nervous System?

A

Brain and spinal cord, Myelination by the oligodendrocytes

1233
Q

What is Laryngomalacia?

A

Epiglottis rolls in from side to side

1234
Q

Where does a Type A thoracic aortic dissection occur?

A

Ascending Aorta, (occurs in Cystic medial necrosis and Syphilis)

1235
Q

What diagnosis has primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid Adenoma

1236
Q

What does a mid-systolic click tell you?

A

MVP- Mitral valve prolapse

1237
Q

What is a Schwannoma?

A

CN-8 tumor, unilateral deafness

1238
Q

What does auscultation of stridor tell you?

A

Extrathoracic narrowing (seen on inspiration on X-Ray)

1239
Q

What is ADHD?

A

Over activity, short attention span, difficulty in school, must be identified in two different locations (home and school). Tx: First line- methylphenidate and dectroamphetamine; Second line- Atomoxetine (SNRI)

1240
Q

What are the indications for Sulfonylureas?

A

NIDDM (Type 2)

1241
Q

When is Beta HCG found in Urine?

A

2 weeks after fertilization

1242
Q

What does auscultation of crackles tell you?

A

Blowing collapsed alveoli open (restrictive lung disease)

1243
Q

What is a Xenograft?

A

1 species to another species (pig heart into humans)

1244
Q

What makes Esophageal Spasms Unique?

A

Increased Peristalsis

1245
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Gluconeogenesis?

A

Fructose - 1,6 Bisphophatase

1246
Q

What is the most common cause of first trimester maternal death?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

1247
Q

What does Vit K do?

A

ClottingSynthesized by intestinal flora

1248
Q

What serum pH does emesis have?

A

Alkalotic because you vomit out HCl-

1249
Q

What is the MOA of coricosteroids?

A

Inhibits leukotriene synthesis -> reduces inflammation and leads to bronchodilation

1250
Q

What bugs can cause walking pneumonia?

A

“Come My Love for a Walk”0-2 mos: Chlamydia Pneumonia10-30 years old: Mycoplasma Pneumonia>40 years old: Legionella pneumoniaAIDS and PREMIES: Pnemonia Carinii

1251
Q

What is associated with R. Tsutsugamushi?

A

Chiggers (Mites) = Scrub Typhus

1252
Q

What is the MOA of Hexamethonium?

A

Nicotinic Ganglionic blocker

1253
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in TCA Cycle?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

1254
Q

What are the Gram Negative Capsules?

A

“Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules”S - SalmonellaK - KlebsiellaH - H. Influenza B (HiB)P - PseudomonasN - NeisseriaC - Citrobacter

1255
Q

What causes Cryoglobulinemia?

A

“I AM He”I - InfluenzaA - AdenovirusM - MycoplasmaH - Hepatitis B and C

1256
Q

What is the indication for muscarinic antagonist?

A

Asthma, COPD

1257
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Octreotide?

A

Nausea, cramps, steatorrhea

1258
Q

What serum pH does diarrhea have?

A

Acidosis because stool has bicarb

1259
Q

What are the indications for adenosine?

A

Dx. and tx. of AV nodal arrhythmias

1260
Q

What is Word Salad?

A

Unrelated combinations of words

1261
Q

What are the Vasodilators?

A

Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Nifedipine, Verapamil, Nitroprusside, Diazoxide

1262
Q

What is Frotteurism?

A

Rubs penis against fully clothed women

1263
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase-1 (CPS-1)

1264
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of PTU and Methimazole?

A

Agranulocytosis, skin rash and Aplastic Anemia

1265
Q

What is Molluscum Contagiosum

A

Flesh colored papules with a central dimple

1266
Q

What is the indication for Albuterol?

A

Acute exacerbation

1267
Q

What does Gastrin do?

A

Stimulates parietal cells to release intrinsic factor (IF) and H+

1268
Q

What is Turner’s Syndrome (XO)?

A

High FSH, LOW E2, Ovarian Dysgenesis, Webbed Neck, Coarctation of the Aorta, Cystic Hydroma, bicuspid Aortic valve

1269
Q

What murmur has Pulsus Tardus?

A

Aortic stenosis

1270
Q

How do you predict a due date with Nagele’s rule?

A

Subtract 3 mo. from LMP (last menstrual period)Add 7 days, if her cycle is 28 days (i.e: LMP Jan 7, 2016 would have an estimated date of Oct. 14, 2016)If her cycle is more than 28 days add 1 day for each extra day of the cycle

1271
Q

What is the Acrosomal reaction?

A

Sperm release enzymes to eat the Corona Radiata

1272
Q

Function of what cells is necessary for the action of Sulfonylureas?

A

Requires some islet cell function so drugs used less in Type 1 DM

1273
Q

What is Conjugated Bilirubin?

A

Water soluble and direct Bilirubin

1274
Q

What is the MOA of the Ca2+ blockers?

A

Decreases conduction velocity of the AV node, increases ERP and PR interval

1275
Q

What is associated with Legionella Pneumoniae?

A

Found in AC ducts, silver stains lung, CYEAPontiac Fever, Legionnaire’sPneumonia

1276
Q

What are the Megaloblastic Anemias?

A

Vitamin B-12 Deficiencyfolate deficiencyalcohol

1277
Q

What is Double Depression?

A

Depression followed by dysthymia

1278
Q

What is familial Hypocalciuria Hypercalcemia?

A

Patients with decreased calcium excretion

1279
Q

What are some causes of Cold Autoimmune?

A

MonoMycoplasma infectionAntibody (IgM) bind to RBC’s membranecold temp and causes agglutination

1280
Q

What has Muddy Brown Casts?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

1281
Q

What are the indications for Bosentan?

A

Pulmonary HTN

1282
Q

What is Circumstantiality?

A

Digresses but finally gets back to the point

1283
Q

What are the adverse effects of B-blockers?

A

Impotence, asthma, bradycardia, AV block, heart failure, sedation, sleep alterations

1284
Q

What are the Steroid Hormones?

A

Progesterone, Estradiol (E2), Testosterone, Cortisol, and Aldosterone

1285
Q

What is associated with Bacteroides Fragilis?

A

Post Op bowel abscess, grows in blood clots

1286
Q

Explain Restrictive Lung Disease:

A

Restrictive: Interstitial problem that causes trouble breathing in (small stiff lungs)Pulmonary Function Test’s: FEV1/FVC greater than 0.8, decrease vital capacityABG: decreased pH, decreased PO2, decreased PcO2 (increased respiratory rate)Chest X-Ray: reticulonodular pattern, ground glass appearanceMost common cause of death is Cor-pulmonaleTreatment: PEEP ventilator, increased O2, increased respiratory time

1287
Q

When performing a high dose dex. Test, if positive…

A

Patient has a pituitary tumor

1288
Q

What does the Prostate Secrete?

A

The prostate HAZ it.H- HyaluronidaseA- Acid PhosphataseZ- Zinc

1289
Q

What are the Gram-negative exotoxins?

A

H. InfluenzaBordatella Pertussis

1290
Q

What is Meniere’s Disease?

A

Same presentation as Labyrinthitis but is a chronic condition with remitting and relapsing episodes

1291
Q

How does Granuloma Inguinale present?

A

Spreading ulcer, Donovan bodies, due to Klebsiella Granulomatis (rod shaped), oval organism that can be seen in the Cytoplasms of Phagocytes or in tissue of people with grauloma inguinale

1292
Q

What are the Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s drugs?

A

Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone

1293
Q

What is Concrete Thinking?

A

Can’t interpret abstract proverbs, only sees the facts

1294
Q

Explain Obstructive Lung Disease:

A

Obstructive: Airway structure problem that causes trouble breathing out (mucus filled lungs)PFT’s: FEV/FVC is less tha 0.8, increased RV; Reid index increased (thick airway)ABD: decreased pH, normal to low PO2, increased PCO2Most common cause of Death is BronchiectasisTreatment: ventilator to increase respiratory rate and expiratory time, increase oxygen only if needed

1295
Q

What is the MOA of Methyldopa?

A

Alpha 2 agonist = decreases peripheral resistance

1296
Q

What drugs cause Pulmonary Eosinophilia?

A

Nitrofurantoin and Sulfonamides

1297
Q

What is Hirschprungs Disease?

A

Failure of innervation to the rectum (No Auerbach’s Plexus), lack of meconium passage in the newborn, Neural crest cell migration problem

1298
Q

What is the MOA of Guanethidine?

A

Interferes with norepinephrine release

1299
Q

What is pseudo-pseudo-hypoparathyroidsm?

A

G-Protein defect, and there is no calcium problem

1300
Q

What is Malingering?

A

Fake illness for monetary gain or getting out of jail, avoids medical treatmentTx: Supportive Psychotherapy

1301
Q

What does alpha one anti-trypsin do?

A

Inhibits Elastase

1302
Q

What GI disease has a String Sign on X-Ray?

A

Pyrloric Stenosis and Crohn’s Disease

1303
Q

What is DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

No Thymus, inferior Parathyroid and low calcium

1304
Q

What is a Meningocele?

A

Sacral pocket with meninges in it

1305
Q

What does auscultation of rhonchi tell you?

A

Mucus in the airway (obstructive airway disease)

1306
Q

What is the indication for Osmotic Laxatives?

A

Constipation

1307
Q

What is Suppression?

A

Consciously block memory

1308
Q

What is Placenta Previa?

A

The placenta is implanted wholly or partially in lower uterine segment

1309
Q

Which of your cells express MHC-1?

A

All nucleated cells except the immune-privileged cells/tissues, RBC’s and Platelets

1310
Q

What are the Indications for Desmopressin (DDAVP)/ADH?

A

Antidiuresis and Central (pituitary) DI

1311
Q

What are the atypical (no cell wall) Bacteria?

A

“CLUMsy”C - ChlamydiaL - LegionellaU - UreaplasmaM - Mycoplasma

1312
Q

When performing a low does dexamethasone test, a depression in ACTH levels occur, what does that tell you?

A

Patient is either depressed, obese, or it’s a normal variant, if the low dose Dexamethasone test does not suppress…

1313
Q

What is seen in Warm Autoimmune?

A

Anti-Rh Ab Dapsone, PTU, antimalarials, and sulfa drugsAntibody (IgG) binds to RBC’s membrane in warm temp

1314
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

Early stop codon

1315
Q

What bug loves the posterior fossa?

A

TB

1316
Q

Banana-shape on x-ray?

A

IHSS

1317
Q

What is a Hyperacute Rejection?

A

Autoimmune response within 12 hours, preformed antibodies respondedThis is a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

1318
Q

What is Sadism?

A

Gives physical and psychological pain

1319
Q

What is persistent eye drainage since birth usually due to?

A

Blocked Duct

1320
Q

What is a Tamponade?

A

Decreased breathe sounds and blood pressure, distant muffled heart soundsicnreased JVD

1321
Q

What is Whipple’s Disease?

A

Tropheryma Whipplei (T. Whipplei) destroy the GI tractCausing Malabsorption/Arthralgia, PAS (+)

1322
Q

What is Pneumonia?

A

Consolidation of airway

1323
Q

What are the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Lovastatin, Pravastatin, Simvastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin

1324
Q

What is associated with S. Pneumoniae?

A

Otitis Media, red bulging TM

1325
Q

What is the MOA of Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors?

A

Inhibits intestinal brush border Alpha-Glucosidases, Delays sugar hydrolysis and Glucose absorption from the guy, Decreases postprandial hyperglycemia

1326
Q

What do white diaper crystals suggest?

A

Excess Orotic acid

1327
Q

Where is a Morgagni Hernia?

A

Anterior/middle of diaphragm, bowel sounds in thorax, seen on US in uterosurgery to fix immediately after birth

1328
Q

How do you measure efferent renal function?

A

BUN or PAH

1329
Q

What is Pityriasis Rosea?

A

Herald Patch that migrates along skin lines in a Christmas Tree appearance

1330
Q

What are the indications for B-blockers

A

HTN, Angina, MI, Antiarrhythmic

1331
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia III (2B)?

A

Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid, Mucosal Neuromas/ Marfanoid body habitus. (tumor marker RET)

1332
Q

What is Congenital Hip Dysplasia?

A

Hip dislocation may be developed in uterus during delivery, found during new born eval, gluteal fold asymmetricThe Barlow/Ortolani maneuver test: there is a palpable “clunk: or click as the hip is dislocated in a posterior-superior direction

1333
Q

What does a Northern blot detect?

A

RNA, “sNow, dRop”

1334
Q

What is associated with EIEC?

A

Inflammatory = loose stool

1335
Q

What is Cullen’s SIgn?

A

Bruising around the umbilicusCaused by hemorrhagic pancreatitis (late sign)

1336
Q

What Hepatitis B labs indicate an acute recent infection?

A

HBcAg+, HBsAg+, (HBcAb+/-)

1337
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier?

A

Baby with bleeding from skin and mucosa(Big platelets and LOW GP-1b)

1338
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

Gluconeogenesis by proteolysis and thins the skin, prevents and immune response, and decrease bone mass

1339
Q

What are the most common infections of the Low Energy State?

A

UTI and respiratory infections

1340
Q

What are the Comma (curved) shaped bugs?

A

Vibrio, Campylobacter, Listeria, H. Pylori

1341
Q

What is Dysmenorrhea?

A

PG-F causes painful menstrual cramps. (Teenagers miss school / work)

1342
Q

What is Asperger’s?

A

Good communication skills, impaired relationships, no mental retardation

1343
Q

What is the most common cause of first trimester spontaneous abortions?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities

1344
Q

What is Familial Polyposis?

A

100% ridk of Colon Cancer, APC gene defect and annual Colonoscopy start at 5 years of age

1345
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

Located in the Substantia Nigra, bradykinesia, pill rolling tremor, shuffling gait, Lewy Bodies

1346
Q

What is associated with Bordetella Pertussis?

A

Whooping cough, ADP ribosylates Gi

1347
Q

When can you tell the sex of the baby by US?

A

Week 16

1348
Q

What is Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Anti-islet cell antibody /GAD (Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase) antibody.

1349
Q

What hormones produce Acidophilus?

A

“GAP”: GH, Acidophilus, and Prolactin

1350
Q

What are the most common causes of third trimester spontaneous abortions?

A

Anti-Cardiolipin Ab, placenta probelms, infection, incompetent cervix

1351
Q

What is the most common cause of a White Reflex?

A

Retinoblastoma

1352
Q

What is Truncus arteriosus?

A

Spiral membrane did not develop, there is one Aortic Pulmonary trunk, mixed blood, needs PDA

1353
Q

What is an Epstein’s Pearl?

A

White pearls on hard palate

1354
Q

What is seen in RPGN?

A

Crescents

1355
Q

What does a Synthase do?

A

Consumes two substrates

1356
Q

What is asthma?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease of the airwayscharacterized by variable and recurring symptoms, wheezing on expiration, elevated IgE and Eosinophils

1357
Q

What is Autism?

A

Poor eye contact, repetitive movements, lack of verbal skills and bonding, symptoms since birthTx: Behavioral modification, use antipsychotic if have aggressive behavior

1358
Q

What are Mongolian spots?

A

Melanocytes on lower back

1359
Q

What is a Factor V - Leiden?

A

Protein C cannot break down Factor V

1360
Q

What disease has exophthalmos?

A

Grave’s disease

1361
Q

When can you first detect fetal heart tones?

A

Week 20

1362
Q

What is Multiple Personality Disorder?

A

They have 5-10 alters, usually associated with incest

1363
Q

What is the job of the TAL of Henle?

A

Makes the concentration gradient by reabsorbing Na, K, Cl, Mg, and Ca without water. (Impermeable to H2O)

1364
Q

What is the most common Nephrotic disease complication with cancer?

A

Amyloidosis

1365
Q

What are CD4 cells?

A

T-helper cell - Responds to MHC-2 (foreign attack)

1366
Q

What is the APGAR test?

A

Neonatal Rating Scale (0-10) Greater than 7Test @ 1 minute and 5 minutesA - Appearance (Color)P - PulseG - GrimaceA - ActivityR - Respiration

1367
Q

What symptoms does a “more likely to depolarize” state have?

A

Brain: Psychosis, seizures, jitterinessSkeletal Muscle: muscle spasms, tetanySmooth Muscle: diarrhea, then constipationCardiac: tachycardia, arrhythmia

1368
Q

Whata re the anabolic pathways that store energy? (occur in the cytoplasm)

A

Fatty acid synthesis, Glycolysis, HMP shunt, translation

1369
Q

Whata re the indications for Guanethidine?

A

Severe HTN

1370
Q

Which cytokines do T-helper cells stimulate?

A

All IL’s except IL-1

1371
Q

What is seen in newborn with HSV-2 in utero infections?

A

Temporal Lobe encephalitis, must offer C-section to mom with active lesions

1372
Q

What is the Primary Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

A

Too much water (urinates a lot)

1373
Q

What is Merocrine?

A

Cell is maintained. (exocytosis)

1374
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Thyroidectomy

1375
Q

What are the Silver Stainer’s?

A

“HaLV-C”H - H. PyloriL - ListeriaV - VicrioC - Campylobacter

1376
Q

What has WBC Casts and RBC Casts?

A

Glomerulonephritis

1377
Q

What are the 3 kinds of generalized seizures?

A

Tonic-clonic “Grand Mal”Absence “Petit Mal”Status Epilepticus

1378
Q

What are the side effects of Progesterone?

A

Acne, depression, HTN, increase appetite, acne causes dilution anemia, quiescent uterus, PICA, hypotension, melisma (AKA Chloasma)

1379
Q

What is Ficticious Disorder by Proxy?

A

Mom makes the child or another person ill for emotional support, noted to move frequently

1380
Q

What is associated with ETEC?

A

Traveler’s Diarrhea = rice water diarrhea

1381
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Levothyroxine (T4)/Triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Tachycardia, heat intolerance, tremors and Arrhythmias

1382
Q

What is the Somatic Nervous System?

A

Moving your muscles

1383
Q

What state does Estrogen mimic?

A

The Neuromuscular disease stateEstrogen is a muscle relaxant

1384
Q

What is the most common Nephrotic disease in diabetics?

A

Nodular Sclerosis

1385
Q

What is Placenta Accreta?

A

Placenta is attached to the endometrium

1386
Q

What is Polymenorrhea?

A

Too many periods

1387
Q

What do you see in CMV in utero infections?

A

Spastic diplegia of legs, hepatosplenomegaly, blindness, central calcifications

1388
Q

What diseases have Hemoptysis?

A

Bronchiectasis, Bronchitis, Pneumonia, TB, Lung CA, Goodpasture’s, Wegener’s

1389
Q

What are the Immuno-privileged sites?

A

Areas of the body that have no lymphatic flow, no antigens, and these areas can be transplanted without fear of rejection (brain, cornea, thymus, and testes) they do not express MHC-1

1390
Q

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Leukemia’s?

A

Acute: started out in the bone marrow, squeezes RBC out of the marrowChronic: started in the periphery, not constrained and will expand

1391
Q

What is Lochia?

A

Endometrial slough. (normal discharge and uterus after birth)

1392
Q

What does fixed wide S-2 splitting tell you?

A

ASD

1393
Q

What is Cryptorchidism?

A

Testes never descended out of abdomen, sterility after 15 months, predisposed to seminomas and CA

1394
Q

What is the MOA of Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Na+ channel blocker

1395
Q

What is the function of ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)?

A

Stimulates Cortisol and Androgen releases from the adrenal gland

1396
Q

What is the indication for Salmeterol?

A

Long acting agent for prophylaxis

1397
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Beta Oxidation?

A

Carnitine Acyltransferase -1 (CAT-1)

1398
Q

What do the IgA protease bugs cause?

A

Sinusitis, Otitis Media, Pneumonia/Bronchitis

1399
Q

What are the causes of Hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Sepsis, ABO Incompatibility, Hypothyroidism and Breast-feeding

1400
Q

What does a Hydroxylase do?

A

Adds-OH group onto substrate

1401
Q

What is Mittelschmerz

A

Pain with ovulation

1402
Q

What is the MOA of Ezetimibe?

A

Prevents cholesterol reabsorption at small intestine brush border

1403
Q

What is Barrett’s Esophagus?

A

Metaplasia of the lower esophagus increased risk of Adenocarcinoma

1404
Q

How do you diagnose Rheumatic Fever?

A

JONES Criteria

J - Joint Involvement

O - Myocarditis

N- Nodules, subcutaneous

E - Erythema Marginatum

S- Sydenham Chorea

1405
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

Mistaken amino acid substitution (i.e. SS disease Valine for Glutamic Acid)

1406
Q

What are the adverse effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Hepatotoxicity (increase LFT’s)Rhabdo

1407
Q

What is Masochism?

A

Receives pain (Humiliation)

1408
Q

What other diseases can have exophthalmos?

A

Horner’s and Marfan’s

1409
Q

What vessels have the highest capacitance?

A

Veins and Venules

1410
Q

Waht does the Surface Ag tell you?

A

Alone it means it’s been occupied/ with other markers it means it is a current infection, if present for > 6 months it’s chronic

1411
Q

What is seen in iron deficiency?

A

Anemia

1412
Q

What is Celiac Sprue?

A

Found in the JejunumWheat AllergyVillous atrophAnti-gluter-gliadin antibodies

1413
Q

What is uremia?

A

Azotemia (renal failure) with symptoms

1414
Q

What is Urge incontinence?

A

Urgency leads to complete voiding detrusor spasticity leads to small bladder volume

1415
Q

What does epinephrine (Epi) do?

A

Drives gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

1416
Q

What bug is associated with cat saliva?

A

Pasteurella Multocida

1417
Q

What is a Corticotrope?

A

ACTH

1418
Q

What is Ductal Carcinoma?

A

Worst prognosis Breast CA

1419
Q

What is associated with C. Tetani?

A

Rusty nail wounds - inhibits GLY release, respiratory failure, Risus Sardonicus, tennis racquet shaped appearance

1420
Q

What is Meig’s Syndrome?

A

Pleural effusion, ovarian fibroma, ascites

1421
Q

What blood level should be monitored in patients taking statins?

A

Liver enzymes every 3 months and Serum Cr

1422
Q

What is the most common cause of Polyhydramnios?

A

Neuromuscular problem: Werdnig HoffmanGI problem: Duodenal atresia

1423
Q

What is Hairy Cell Leukemia?

A

Cells have a fried egg/ Sunburst appearance and TRAP +

1424
Q

What does motilin do?

A

Stimulates segmentation, primary peristalsis, and migrating motor complexes (MMC)

1425
Q

What is Pneumothorax?

A

Absent breath sounds on one side

1426
Q

What is Identification?

A

To be like or to become like another (aspect, property or attribute of another)

1427
Q

What is the most common cause of post-coital Vaginal Bleeding in Pregnant women?

A

Placenta previa

1428
Q

What are the adverse effects of Hydralazine?

A

Compensatory tachycardia, fluid retention, Lupus like syndrome, contraindicated in Angina/CAD because of compensatory tachy

1429
Q

What does an AFI >20 indicate?

A

Polyhydramnios (DM)

1430
Q

What is Somatization?

A

Psychological trigger gets them sick, but no medical finding (Pain in 4 parts, 2 GI problems)Tx: Psychotherapy

1431
Q

What is the second generation Sulfonylureas?

A

Glyburide, Glimepiride, and Glipizide

1432
Q

What can you measure to test afferent arteriole’s function?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or Inulin

1433
Q

What does a wide S-2 split tell you?

A

Increases OxygenIncreased right ventricular volumeDelayed pulmonic vlave opening

1434
Q

What are the indications for administering Potassium?

A

Digoxin toxicity, activated charcoal: binds digoxin in the intestineDigibind: binds to digoxin in the bloodstream

1435
Q

What is Tracheitis?

A

“Acute URI”Patients look toxicGrey PseudomembraneLeukocytosis

1436
Q

What is the common side effect of the ERCP procedure?

A

Pacreatitis from blocking the pancreatic duct during the procedure

1437
Q

What amino acid turns yellow on Ninhydrin reaction?

A

Pro

1438
Q

What is the job of the late Distal Tubule and Collecting Duct?

A

Final concentration of urine by reabsorbing water and excretion of acid

1439
Q

What separates unconjugated bilirubin from albumin?

A

Sulfur (no Sulfur Rx in pregnancy)

1440
Q

What is Caput Succedaneum?

A

Bleeding under scalp (edema will cross suture lines)

1441
Q

What are the indications for Levothyroxine (T4)/Triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Hypothyroidism and Myxedema

1442
Q

What is an Autograft?

A

Twin to twin (spare parts)

1443
Q

What are the H2 blockers?

A

Cimetidine, Ranitidine, Famotidine, and Nizatidine

1444
Q

How does a Subdural Hematoma present?

A

Headache 4 weeks after trauma, elderly (loose brain)

1445
Q

What GI disease has a RUQ Olive Mass?

A

Pyloric Stenosis

1446
Q

How would you know the patient has a Vitamin A (retinoic Acid) Deficiency?

A

Poor night vision, Hypoparathyroidism, dry skin

1447
Q

What is Histiocytosis X?

A

Histiocyte proliferation Kid with Eczema, skill lesionsHand-Schuller-Christian disease

1448
Q

What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

A

Imagined physical defect, causing impaired function in a social or occupational activityTx: SSRI

1449
Q

What happens when there is a biotin Deficiency?

A

Loss of carboxylase function

1450
Q

What is the MOA of Methylxanthines?

A

Inhibit Phosphodiesterase -> decreases cAMP hydrolysis promoting bronchodilation

1451
Q

How does a Somatostatinoma present?

A

Constipation

1452
Q

What are the types of VWD?

A

Type 1 (AD): Decreased VW FActor ProductionType 2 (AD): Decreased VW Activity(+ Ristocetin Aggregation test)Type 3 (AR): No VWF

1453
Q

What does Calcitonin do?

A

Inhibits Osteoclasts and binds to calcium

1454
Q

What is Countertransference?

A

Doctor views patient as child

1455
Q

What does Sudan Black Stain test for?

A

Steatorrhea (fat malabsorption), patient seen with chronic pale, greasy, malodorous diarrhea and no evidence of infection

1456
Q

What tests are used for following Pancreatitis?

A

Amylase (sensitive) breaks down Carbohydrates and Lipase (specific) breaks down Triglycerides

1457
Q

What is Postpartum Psychosis

A

Hallucinations, suicidal/infaticidal thoughts

1458
Q

What color is stool with an Upper GI Bleed?

A

Black (Dark Red) (Melena)

1459
Q

What are the most common signs of the Low Energy State?

A

Tachypnea and Dyspnea

1460
Q

What is the Adverse Effect of Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s?

A

Weight gain, edema, hepatotoxicity, increases LDL and triglycerides, CHF and Contraindicated

1461
Q

What is the MOA of Octreotide?

A

Long-acting somatostatin analog

1462
Q

What is Plummer’s Syndrome?

A

Hyperthyroid adenoma

1463
Q

What is aspergillosis?

A

Mold, compost piles, associated with peanuts

1464
Q

How does Diverticulitis present?

A

Pain in LLQ, no visible blood and may cause peritonitis

1465
Q

What has WBC Casts?

A

Nephritis

1466
Q

What are the cholesterol Absorption blockers?

A

Ezetimibe

1467
Q

What murmurs occur during systole?

A

Holosystolic or pansystolic

1468
Q

What is Acting out?

A

expression of impulse, “Temper Tantrums”

1469
Q

What is the Intermediate Acting Insulin drug?

A

NPH and Lente

1470
Q

What is Schatzki’s Ring?

A

Esophageal webs in the lower EsophagusDysphagia (mucosal tissue)

1471
Q

What is McArdle’s?

A

Myophosphorylase deficiency(skeletal muscle Glycogen Phosphorylase)muscle cramps w/ exercise, increased Glycogen in muscle only, blood glucose NLSecond wind phenomenon

1472
Q

What is inevitable Abortion?

A

Cervix is open, baby is intact

1473
Q

What is pseudo-hypoparathyroidism?

A

Bad kidney, PTH receptor, decreased urinary, cAMP

1474
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

Iron deposits in organsleads to hyperpigmentation, bronze diabetes, and arthritis

1475
Q

What do B cell deficiency patients die of?

A

Bacterial infection?

1476
Q

What are the adverse effects of Guanethidine?

A

Contraindicated in patients taking TCA’s

1477
Q

What affects Potency?

A

Km (EC50)

1478
Q

What does blood type A tell you?

A

They have the A antigen and B antibodies

1479
Q

What does Vit B4 do?

A

Glycolysis, no known diseases

1480
Q

What is Illusion?

A

Misinterprets stimulus

1481
Q

What is Repression?

A

Subconsciously block memory

1482
Q

What is Thought Withdrawal?

A

Believes that others are taking thoughts out of his head

1483
Q

What does S-2 splitting tell you?

A

Normal on inspirationPulmonic valve closing later

1484
Q

What is open-angle glaucoma?

A

Overproduction of fluid, painless Ipsilateral dilated pupil, gradual tunnel vision, optic disc cupping

1485
Q

What is Pseudomembranous Colitis?

A

Overgrowth of C. DiffDue to normal flora being killed off from long term antibiotic use

1486
Q

What are the indications for H2 blockers?

A

Peptic ulcer, gastritis and esophageal reflux

1487
Q

What is a Necrophile?

A

Someone who has sex with corpses

1488
Q

What is associated with R. Rickettsii?

A

Ticks = Rocky Mountain spotted fever

1489
Q

What is associated with Shigella?

A

Day care outbreaks, seizures, destroys the 60S ribosome, infects M-cells

1490
Q

What is Post-Renal Failure?

A

Obstruction (hydronephrosis)

1491
Q

What is a Bezoar?

A

Mass of non-digestible product (i.e. Hair) causing an occlusion at the pylorus

1492
Q

What is a Hemangioblastoma?

A

In the cerebellum, associated with VHL

1493
Q

What will you see with Iron Deficiency Anemia?

A

Increased TIBC associated with menses, GI bleeding, and Koilonychia

1494
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin B5 (Pantothenic Acid) Deficiency?

A

No deficiency state

1495
Q

What is a fetish?

A

High attraction for inanimate objects

1496
Q

What is a possible cause if pulse rises more than 10 bpm in repositioning from lying to sitting?

A

Hypervolemia

1497
Q

What does the Hep B Core Ag tell you?

A

Gone before patient has symptoms (present from 0-2 months)

1498
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss?

A

Tearing of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), associated with chronic vomiting, cough up a little blood and possible visible varices

1499
Q

What is Cushing’s disease?

A

High ACTH due to pituitary tumor or Small cell carcinoma of the lungs

1500
Q

What is a Craniopharyngioma?

A

Motor oil biopsy, tooth enamel, Rathke’s Pouch, ADH problem, Bitemporal Hemianopsia

1501
Q

What Does Vit E do?

A

Antioxidantacts as an tagonist to Vit K in high levels

1502
Q

What are the Foot Ulcer Risk Factors?

A

Poor glycemic control (HbA1C >7), smoking, bony abnormalities, previous ulcers

1503
Q

What GI disease has a Thumb Print on X-Ray?

A

Toxic Megacolon

1504
Q

What is Silicosis?

A

Sandblasters and glassblowers

1505
Q

What is Tropical Sprue?

A

Found in the distal iliumCaused by bacterial or viral, amoeba or parasitic infectionVillous atrophy

1506
Q

What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids?

A

Osteoporosis, Cushingoid reaction, psychosis, glucose intolerance, infection, HTN, cataracts

1507
Q

What is Holocrine?

A

The whole cell is secreted. (except sebaceous gland)

1508
Q

What is Acromegaly?

A

Growth hormone tumor producing increased IGF-1 causing: bone growth in adults, coarse facial features, large furrowed tongue, deep husky voice, jaw protrusion

1509
Q

When is B-HCG found in Blood?

A

8-10 days after fertilization

1510
Q

What does Chymotrypsin cut?

A

Phe, Tyr, Trp

1511
Q

What is Backward Typing?

A

Used Antigens to detect Antibodies

1512
Q

What are the ketogenic amino acids?

A

Lys, Leu

1513
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of GLP-1 Analogs?

A

Nausea, Vomiting and Pancreatitis

1514
Q

What makes Scleroderma Unique?

A

Can have a decreased LES pressure or and increased LES pressure

1515
Q

What is epiglottitis?

A

inflammation of the epiglottisthumb sign on x-rayexcessive drooling

1516
Q

Waht is associated with Brucella?

A

Seen in farmers/ Vets, Animal placentas are the vector, Spiking fever 5 times a day

1517
Q

What GI disease has Barium Clumping on X-Ray?

A

Celiac Sprue

1518
Q

What are the Short Acting Insulin drugs?

A

Aspart and Lispro

1519
Q

What is seen in Measles (Rubeola)?

A

CCCK: Cough, Coryza (runny nose), Conjunctivitis, Koplik SpotMorbilliform blotchy rash

1520
Q

What is an Insulinoma?

A

Insulin secreting tumor, labs show increased insulin and C-peptide

1521
Q

What ion has the greatest movement at rest?

A

Potassium

1522
Q

What is seen with Fluoride deficiency?

A

Poor teeth and bone growth

1523
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate immunization >2/52 weeks?

A

HBsAb+

1524
Q

What valves make noise at the end of systole?

A

Aortic and Pulmonic

1525
Q

What is Riedel’s Struma?

A

“Woody” connective tissue in neck, death due to suffocation and must rule out CA

1526
Q

What is the MOA of Digoxin?

A

Direct inhibition of Na+/K= ATPase leads to indirect inhibition of Na+/Ca2+ exchanger, positive inotrope, stimulates vagus nerve

1527
Q

What does a Thio do?

A

Breaks S bonds

1528
Q

What is Hungry Bone Syndrome?

A

Removal of PTH and the bone sucks in calcium

1529
Q

What do high GABA levels lead to?

A

Bradycardia, lethargy, constipation, impotence, memory loss

1530
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia?

A

Head is out of vagina, shoulder is stuck. (Occurs in late term deliveries and DM in mom)

1531
Q

What structures have Fake sphincters?

A

Ureters, LES, Ileocecal valve

1532
Q

What does Endocrine mean?

A

Secreted into bood

1533
Q

What are the indications for Misoprostol?

A

Prevents NSAID-induced peptic ulcers, maintenance of a Patent Ductus ArteriosusInduce labor

1534
Q

What is the Indication for PTU and Methimazole?

A

Hyperthyroidism

1535
Q

What are the expectorants?

A

Guaifenesin, N-acetylcysteine

1536
Q

What does an epimerase do?

A

Creates an epimer, which differs around one chiral carbon

1537
Q

What is the MOA of Guaifenesin?

A

Removes excess sputum but does not suppress cough reflex

1538
Q

What are the indications for Pseudoephedrine, Phenylephrine?

A

Reduces Hyperemesis, edema, nasal congestion, and opens obstructed Eustachian tubes

1539
Q

What has Crescents?

A

RPGN

1540
Q

What are wide sutures due to?

A

Hypothyroidism and Down’s Syndrome

1541
Q

What is a Transvestite?

A

Dress up as opposite sex, no identity crisis

1542
Q

What does SAM donated methyl groups for?

A

All other reactions

1543
Q

When do valves make noise under normal physiology?

A

When the valves close

1544
Q

What is systole?

A

Ejection of blood from the heart, Decreased blood flow to Coronary arteries, more extraction of Oxygen Phase 1 Korotkoff

1545
Q

What is Homocystinuria?

A

No Homocysteine -> Cysteine(Cystathionine Synthase Deficiency)or Homocysteine Methyltransferase(Methionine Synthase) Deficiency or decreased Affinity of Cystathionine Synthase for Pyridoxal PhosphateIncreased Homocysteine in urinMarfanoid Habitusdownward dislocation of lensincreased risk stroke/MI

1546
Q

What is associated with Bacillus Anthracis?

A

Black Eschar, Wool Sorter’s Lung diseaseD-Glu, boxcar-like spore, treat with Cipro

1547
Q

What type of immunity does TH1 provide?

A

Enhances cell mediated immunity

1548
Q

What are the adverse effects of Prazosin?

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

1549
Q

What is the most common cause of post-coital Vaginal Bleeding?

A

Cervical CA

1550
Q

What are the Leopold Maneuvers?

A

To determine the position of the babyFeel the fundusFeel the baby’s neckFeel the pelvic inletFeel the baby’s head

1551
Q

What is the function of Inhibin?

A

Inhibits FSH so there is no menstruation

1552
Q

What is a Transsexual?

A

Gender Identity crisis

1553
Q

What are the Survival Hormones?

A

Cortisol: permissive under stress. TSH: permissive under normal

1554
Q

What is the cause of Symmetrically small babies?

A

In Early onset: Chromosomal Abnormalities or TORCHES

1555
Q

What will you see in Lead Poisoning?

A

Decreased dALA dehydrogenasedecreased Ferrochelataseblue lines on x-rayhistory of eating old paint chips