Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Wolfpacc Clues Complete > Complete Deck Part 1 > Flashcards

Complete Deck Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When should Intercourse be avoided during Pregnancy?

A

Cervical dilation, placenta previa, premature labor, vaginal bleeding, ruptured membranes, genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Type 2 RTA?

A

Proximal RTA: bad Carbonic Anhydrase, lost all HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Heavy Chain Disease?

A

IgA and Multiple Myeloma of the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Nihilism?

A

Feeling of “life is meaningless”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Forward Typing?

A

Uses Antibodies to detect Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is associated with Vibrio Vulnificus?

A

Raw Oyster - common in workers shucking the oysters, cellulitis in swimmer’s cuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA of Propranolol, Timolol?

A

B1 and B2 Blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease?

A

Mouth ulcersWill not eat or drinkPalm and sole rash caused by Coxsackie A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 2 kinds of partial seizures?

A

Simple (aware), complex (not aware)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an Omphalocele?

A

Intestines protrude out of the umbilicus covered by peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Clanging?

A

Words that sound alike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is exudate?

A

Effusion of mostly proteinToo much protein: Will have —Purulent (from Bacteria),Hemorrhagic (from trauma, CA, PE)Fibrinous (from collagen vascular disease), Granulomatous (non-bacterial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the Mimetic drugs?

A

Pramlintide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Stiff with visual hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of problem is there if serum Ca2+ and Serum PO4- change in same directions?

A

This is a secondary problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Pool Test?

A

Fluid in the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the indications for Odansetron?

A

Control vomiting in patients undergoing chemo therapy and postoperatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Kd?

A

Concentration of drug that binds 50% of receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is associated with H. Aegyptius?

A

Swollen eyeball with pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Overflow Incontinence?

A

Cannot completely empty bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does Gonorrhea present?

A

Palmar pustules, arthritis/joint pain, urethral discomfor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What makes Achalasia unique?

A

Decreased Peristalsis and increased LES pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MOA of Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine?

A

Sympathomimetic alpha-agonistsnon-prescription nasal decongestants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where does DHT come from?

A

Testicles at puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Intraductal Papilloma?

A

Bleeding from the nippleMost common Breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does temporal arteritis present?

A

Pain with chewing, blind in one eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What diseases have PIE syndrome?

A

Aspergillus, Loeffler’s, Churg-Strauss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is associated with Fusobacterium?

A

Painful mouth ulcers, gum pus, Vincent’s angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the MOA of ACE inhibitors?

A

Inhibits conversion of Ang I to Ang II, decreases Ang II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Central (neurogenic) diabetes insipidus?

A

Brain not making or producing enough ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Arnold-Chiari?

A

Foramen Magnum obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is 1st-order kinetics?

A

Constant drug percentage metabolism over time depends on drug concentration (rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does Vit B2 do?

A

FAD cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Clues for atypical pneumonia?

A

Atypical pneumonia: prolonged illness, low fever, usually >40 y/oX-ray: diffuse, H. Influenza, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does giving DDAVP during the Water deprivation tests tell you?

A

> 50% increase (central complete DI),10-50% increase (central partial DI),<10% (psychogenic polydipsia),no change (nephrogenic DI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What will you see with Alpha Thalassemia?

A

Seen in African Americans and Asian Americans (Chromosome 16- deletion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the simple Gram Negative Bugs?

A

They lack Lipopolysaccharides,”Simple HE”H - H. InfluenzaE - E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a Neutrophil?

A

The Phagocyte (it has Antimicrobials, most abundant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the MOA of Glucocorticoids?

A

Decrease production of Leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Transference?

A

Patient views doctor as parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where is the most common site of a Clavicle fracture due to birth?

A

Middle third of the Clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the indications for Niacin?

A

Decrease LDL and TriglyceridesStrong increase HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Perseveration?

A

Keeps repeating the same words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the parathyroid cells secrete?

A

PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is associated with Actinomyces?

A

Face Fistulas, Sulfur Granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a Rolling Hiatal Hernia?

A

Bowel Protruded through a defect in the Diaphragm. This can strangulate the bowel and can cause Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Mesenteric Ischemia?

A

Abdominal pain of of proportion to physical exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the MOA of Diazoxide?

A

K+ channel opener, hyperpolarizes and relaxes smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

Anti-smooth muscle antibody (20-50%), bile ducts are scarred from inflammation, there is beading and onion skinning, it’s associated with UC and P-ANCA (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the viral load tell you?

A

Progression of HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which enlarged lymph nodes are most likely malignant?

A

Supraclavicular, Epitrochlear (above the elbow), inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Velamentous Cord Insertion?

A

Fetal vessels insert between chorion and amnion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Common Variable Immuno. Def?

A

Young adults with B cells that do not work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the Indications for Oxytocin?

A

Induces labor and Controls uterine hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does Mg2+ do?

A

PTH and kinase cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the risk factors for Lung CA?

A

Smoking, Radon, second hand smoke, pneumoconiosis (except Anthracosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the Adverse Effect for first generation Sulfonylureas?

A

Disulfiram like effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Multiple osteolytic lesionsIncreased IgG and kappa light chainsRouleaux formation seen on slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Clues for Typical pneumonia?

A

Typical pneumonia: short illness, high fever, usually >40 y/o, X-ray: one lobe, Streptococcus Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Polycythemia Vera?

A

Hematocrit (Hct) >60% Decreased EPO, Budd-ChiariPruritis after bathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the MOA of Mimetics?

A

Decreases Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Ascending Cholangitis?

A

Common bile duct infection due to stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does Growth Hormone (GH) do?

A

Stimulates growth, sends Somatomedin to growth plates, Gluconeogenesis by proteolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is Anderson’s?

A

Branching enzyme deficiency, long chains of glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Sympathetic System?

A

Fight -or- Flight, speeds stuff up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a Double Footling Breech?

A

Two feet sticking outside the cervical OS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What vessel has the thickest layer of smooth muscle?

A

Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Competitive Inhibition?

A

Fights for active site, no change in Vmax, potency decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does blood type O tell you?

A

They have no antigens (Universal donor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does high WBC and B Cells tell you?

A

Bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the Rapidly Dividing Cells of the Energy State?

A

Skin: dryNails: BrittleHair: AlopeciaLow Bone Marrow: SuppressedVasculature: Endothelium breaks downLungs: Infection / SOBKidney: PCT effecfted firstGI: N/V/DBladder: Decreased toneSperm: DecreasedGerm Cells: Predisposed to cancerBreasts: AtrophicEndometrium: Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What diseases are cause by the Ixodes Ticks?

A

Lyme Disease - bull’s eye lesionBabesiosis - Hemolytic AnemiaEhrlichiosis - puncture near eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does a Dehydrogenase do?

A

Catalyzes Oxidation-Reduction reactions (gaining or losing an electron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is Unconjugated Bilirubin?

A

Fat soluble and indirect Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a transition?

A

Changes one purine to another purine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar Type I?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin buildupNewborn or infantsNo UDP-GTPhenobarbital yields no change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 difference after excercise?

A

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the bugs that cause gastroenteritis within 8 hours of eating the preformed toxin?

A

Staph Aureus (potato salad)Clostridium Perfringens (holiday turkey/ham)Bacillus Cereus (fried rice syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the most common places to metastasize to the brain?

A

From the lung, breast, and skin, present at the White-Grey Junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is Polyhydramnios?

A

Too much amniotic fluid (baby can’t swallow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the function of GnRH?

A

Stimulates release of LH & FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the risk factors for Esophageal / Gastric CA?

A

Smoking, alcohol and nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

A

Gradual or acute separation of the proximal femoral growth plate with femur head slipping off femoral neck and rotating into inferior-posterior position. Most common during puberty and more in overweight individuals, present with a limp and pain recurring often to the kneeLimited hip internal rotation and outward rotation of lump with hip flexionx-ray: epiphyseal displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

FEV1/FVC in Restrictive lung disease

A

Normal or elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What has Waxy Casts?

A

Chronic Renal Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the only Gram-negative diplococci?

A

Neisseriamoraxella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How does a VIPoma present?

A

Watery diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the indications for the Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

Decrease AP duration, acute ventricular Arrhythmias, local anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What defines Diarrhea?

A

> 200 grams of stool per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What defines constipation?

A

Less than 3 bowel movements per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What defines ALL?

A

0-15 year old males, bone pain, + PAS stain and +TdT. CALLA antigen positiveT (12;21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the MOA of Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

Na+ channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is a Duodenal Ulcer?

A

Pain 20-30 minutes after eating, relieved with food, caused by H. Pylori infection 80-90% of the time and weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is a Female Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

XX with LOW 21-OHase and HIGH Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the adverse effects of Acid Resins?

A

Tastes bad and causes GI discomfortbile decreases absorption of fat soluble vitaminscholesterol gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is Hurler’s?

A

Alph-L-Iduronidase deficiencyworse formGargoylismCorneal cloudingaccumulation of Heparin and Dermatan Sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the indications for fibrates?

A

Strong decrease of triglyceridesslight decrease of LDLslight increase in HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the classifications of MHC-2?

A

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is Cori’s?

A

Debranching, a-1,6 glucosidase enzyme deficiencyshort branches of glycogenmilder form of von Gierke with normal lactate levelslimit-dextrin’s accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How does Choanal Atresia Present?

A

Baby turns blue with feeding, pinks up when breast of bottle is removed (blocked nasal passages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the job of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule?

A

Reabsorb Glucose, Amino Acids, Salt, Bicarb. >60-80% Reabsorption occurs here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is Bronchiectasis?

A

Bad breath, purulent sputum, and hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What electrolytes does the low volume state have?

A

Increased total Na+ (NET)Decreased serum Na (dilution effect)Decreased serum K+Increased serum pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

In what layers does a pseudo aortic aneurysm occur?

A

Intima and media layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Who makes the Syncytiotrophoblast?

A

Mom and baby production of HCG and HPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is Metorrhagia

A

Bleeding or spotting in btwn periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How does Spastic Colon present?

A

Intermittent severe cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is selective IgG2 Deficiency?

A

Seen in patients with recurrent encapsulated infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What diseases have respiratory acidosis?

A

Obstructive lung diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is Prinzmetal’s angina?

A

Coronary Artery Spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What does high WBC and High PMN’s tell you?

A

Stress demargination. (Stress response - post trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What causes a Cleft Palate?

A

Maxillary shelves did not fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is Rouleaux formation?

A

Seen in Multiple Myeloma (Stacked coin look)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is Neologisms?

A

New words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is Nephrotic Kidney Disease?

A

Lostbasement membrange chargeProteinuria >3.5hypercoagulablelipiduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What does a Phosphatase do?

A

Removes Phosphate from substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What bug loves the parietal lobe?

A

Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What bug is associated with Cat Scratch?

A

Bartonella Henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is Selective IgA Deficiency?

A

Seen in transfusion, anaphylaxis, and mucus membrane infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the Trough level?

A

2 hours before next dose (too high - give less often)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is VHL?

A

Predisposes individuals to bnign and malignant tumors, AVM in the head, and retina (AD inheritance in Chromosome 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What causes a Cleft Lip?

A

Medial nasal prominence did not fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the MOA of Reserpine?

A

Prevents the storage of monoamines in synaptic vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the 3 tests used to screen for HIV?

A

ELISA: Detects IgG Ab to p24 AgWestern Blot: ProteinsPCR: Detects Virus (used in babies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is Materninty Blues?

A

Postpartum crying and irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the inidications for PPIs?

A

Peptic ulcer, gastritis, mid-esophageal Reflux and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the Ca2+ channel blockers?

A

Verapamil, Diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is Conn’s Syndrome?

A

High Aldosterone (primary tumor), Cpatopril test makes it worse, and increase’s secretin hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What color is stool with a Lower GI Bleed?

A

Bright Red Blood (Hematochezia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is Type 5 Hypderlipidemia?

A

Defective enzyme and receptor (C-II) Elevated VLDL and ChylomicronsAssociated with DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the RBC lifespan when there is a problem?

A

60-90 days (same time as the shelf life of blood bank units)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What sound radiates to the back?

A

Pulmonic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the MOA of Prazosin?

A

Alpha 1-Blocker, vasodilation, decreases TPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is Sandhoff’s?

A

Hexosaminidase A/B deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the MOA of Octreotide (Synthetic analog of Somatostatin)?

A

Decreases release of GH, Gastrin, CCK, Carcinoid, VUP, Glucagon and Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How is Smallpox different from Chickenpox?

A

Smallpox is on the face, same stage of development and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is Diffusion?

A

From high to low concentration No ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the Fibrates?

A

Gemfibrozil, Clofibrate, Bezafibrate, Fenofibrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is Anthracosis?

A

Coal workers, extensive fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is Conduct Disorder?

A

Younger than 18 y/o with traits of antisocial disorder: aggressive, disregard for authority/rules, no sense of guilt/remorse, harms animals, illegal activity “bite is worse than bark”. Behavioral therapy and antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the names of the B vitamins?

A

“The Rich Never Lie about Panning Pyrite Filled Creeks”Vit B1 = ThiamineVit B2 = RiboflavinVit B3 = NiacinVit B4 = Lipoic acidVit B5 = Pantothenic acidVit B6 = PyridoxineVit B7 = BiotinVit B9 = FolateVit B12 = Cobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What 5 bugs cause heart block infections?

A

“Don’t TeLL Chaga”D- DiphtheriaT- Typhoid Fever (Salmonella Typhi)L- LegionellaL- Lyme DiseaseC- Chagas Disease (Whipple’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is a Complete Abortion?

A

Cervix is closed, no fetal remnants, check B-HCG level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is a “Blue Bloater”?

A

Chronic Bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the Indications for ACE inhibitors?

A

HTN, CHF, post MI and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is the MOA osmotic Laxatives?

A

Provide osmotic load to draw water outLactulose treats Hepatic encephalopathy: gut flora degrades it into metabolites (lactic acid and acetic acid) that promote Nitrogen excretion as NH4+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the treatment for hypercholesterolemia?

A

Statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the adverse effects of Minoxidil?

A

Hypertrichosis and Pericardial Effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the adverse effects of adenosine?

A

flushing, hypotension, and chest pain very short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are the Glucocorticoid drugs?

A

Hydrocortisone, Triamcinolone, Dexamethasone, Prednisone, Beclomethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Whatis Pheochromocytoma?

A

Adrenal medulla tumor in adults, they will have five P’s: Palpitations, Perspiration, Pallor, Pressure (HTN), and Pain (headache)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is Byssinosis?

A

Cotton workers, textile workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is Chediak Higashi?

A

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome(Lysosomes are slow to fuse around bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is Korsakoff Psychosis?

A

Alcoholic Thiamine deficiency. Presents with confusion, Opthalmoplegia, ataxia, memory loss, confabulation and personality changeTx: Vit B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What type of Kidney Stones have Coffin-Lid Crystals?

A

Triple Phosphate (Struvite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is the difference between carotid body and carotid sinus?

A

Carotid Body: ChemoreceptorCarotid Sinus: Baroreceptor

157
Q

What is Meconium?

A

Green baby poop (first poop)

158
Q

What does Insulin do?

A

Pushes glucose into cells and K+ follows

159
Q

What causes Granuloma Inguinale?

A

CalymmatobacteriumGranulomatosisKlebsiella Granulomatis

160
Q

What is the MOA of Carvedilol?

A

Alpha and B-Blocker

161
Q

What is the MOA of Levothyroxine (T4)/Triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Thyroxine replacement

162
Q

What is Anisocytosis?

A

RBC’s with different sizes

163
Q

What is Pain Disorder?

A

Prolonged pain not explained by physical causes

164
Q

What causes Congenital Blindness?

A

CMV

165
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

Esophageal webs, Iron-deficiency anemia, dysphagia

166
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis?

A

Cafe’ au laut spots (hyperpigmentation)Peripheral nerve tumors, axillary frecklesType 1: Von Recklinghausen’s– Chromosome 17, peripheral, optic glioma, Lisch nodules, scoliosisType 2: Acoustic Neuroma, Central, Chromosome 22, cataracts, bilateral deafness

167
Q

What is associated with Strep Viridans, Strep Mutans, and Strep Salivarius?

A

Subacute bacterial Endocarditis, green pigment, Alpha HemolyticStrep Mutans - dental cariesStrep Salivarius - cold agglutinates

168
Q

What are the adverse effects of Dextromethorphan?

A

Mild opioid effect so mild abuse potential

169
Q

What is the most common cause of Epididymitis?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis, N. Gonorrhea, E. Coli

170
Q

What is Charcot’s Triad?

A

Jaundice, Fever (usually with rigors) and RUQ pain

171
Q

What is seen with Manganese deficiency?

A

Lose xanthine oxidase function

172
Q

What is Psychogenic Polydipsia?

A

Drinking a lot of water, diluting Na in blood

173
Q

What is seen in newborns with Syphilis in utero infection?

A

Rhages (lip fissue), Saber shin legs (anterior bowing of the tibia), Hutchinson’s Razor teeth,Mulberry Molars

174
Q

What is the afferent arteriole’s job?

A

Monitor pressure (JG cells-Renin release)

175
Q

How do you detect a Pulmonary Embolus?

A

Tachypneaincreased V/Q scanECG may show signs of right heart strain or acute cor pulmonale in cases of Large Pes - large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III and an inverted T wave in lead IIIS1Q3T3

176
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

Insert or delete any number of bases, not divisible by 3, causes misreading of all downstream nucleotides

177
Q

What is the Isoelectric Point?

A

The pH at which there is no net charge

178
Q

What does an opening snap tell you?

A

Mitral or Tricuspid Stenosis

179
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in FA synthesis?

A

Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase (ACC)

180
Q

What does a Phosphorylase do?

A

Adds inorganic Phosphate to substrate, No ATP used

181
Q

What is associated with EHEC?

A

Hemorrhagic = renal failure

182
Q

What are the Bile acid resins?

A

CholestyramineColestipolColesevelam

183
Q

What is associated with Enterococcus?

A

UTI, infective Endocarditis post GI/GU procedure

184
Q

What is Voyeurism?

A

Watching other people without their permission

185
Q

What does CCK (Cholecystokinin) do?

A

Stimulates bile release and gallbladder contraction, inhibits gastric motility (closes sphincters), and made by I-cell of duodenum

186
Q

What does LDL do?

A

It carries Cholesterol (only one to do this)

187
Q

What is TORCH Infection?

A

Toxoplasmosis: Hydrocephalus with generalized intracranial calcification and choriogenesis.Others= HIV, Syphilis, Varicella, B-19HIV= Most infected are asymptomatic, clinical symptoms– Lymphadenopathy/HepatosplenomegalySyphilis= Osteochondritis and Peridotites; skin rash on palms and soles, snufflesVaricells = Pneumonia (neonatal); limb hypoplasia, cutaneous scar, seizure, MRB-19 = Hydrops FetalisRubella = Cataracts, deafness and heart defects, blueberry muffin spotsCMV = Microcephaly with periventricular calcification, petechia with thrombocytopenia, sensorineural hearing lossHerpes = 1st week: Pneumonia/shock2nd week: Skin vesicles, keratoconjunctivitis3rd week: Acute Meningoencephalitis

188
Q

What does Dopamine (DA) do?

A

Inhibits Prolactin (PRL) release

189
Q

What is Bipolar II?

A

Depression and Hypomania (no psychosis)

190
Q

What is the Capacitation reaction?

A

Allow binding btwn sperm & egg

191
Q

What is associated with Klebsiella Pneumonia?

A

Alcoholics, Currant Jelly Sputum, UTI, Lung fissures

192
Q

What is the Indication for Demeclocycline?

A

SIADH

193
Q

What lysosomal diseases have a Gargoyle face?

A

Gaucher’sHurler’s

194
Q

What is a Footling Breech/Incomplete breech?

A

Butt down. Thigh flexed, one toe is sticking out of the cervical OS

195
Q

What is the MOA of Glitazones/Thiazolidinedione’s?

A

Increases Insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Transaction modulation by Peroxisome Proliferator Activated Receptor Gamma in Nuclus

196
Q

What makes B-HCG?

A

Placenta (synctiotrophoblast)

197
Q

What does erythropoietin (EPO) do?

A

Makes RBC’s (prolong RBC life)

198
Q

What is Erythrasma?

A

Rash in the skin folds, coral-red under Wood’s Lamp

199
Q

What do stomach chief cells secrete?

A

Pepsin

200
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Sulfasalazine?

A

Malaise, nausea, Sulfonamide toxicity, reversible Oligospermia

201
Q

What are the indications for Class IC antiarrhythmic?

A

Ventricular tachy progressing to V. fib, last resort

202
Q

What is Tracheomalacia?

A

Soft cartilage and stridor since birth

203
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfasalazine?

A

A combination of sulfapyridine (antibacterial) and 5-aminosalicylic acid (anti-inflammtory) activated by colonig bacteria

204
Q

What are the Indications for Biguanides?

A

First line therapy in Type 2 DM

205
Q

What is Choledocholithiasis?

A

Gallstone obstructs the bile duct

206
Q

What bug loves the frontal lobe?

A

Rubella

207
Q

What is a Platelet?

A

The clotter (has no nuclei and smallest cells)

208
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin E Deficiency?

A

Increased free radical damage, hemolytic anemia, ataxia gait, impaired position and vibration sense

209
Q

What is Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

external genitalia problem

210
Q

What is Niemann-Pick?

A

Sphingomyelinase deficiencyAreflexiaHepatosplenomegalyfoam cells (Lipid Laden macrophages)

211
Q

What is Efficacy?

A

Maximal effect drug can produce regardless of dose (lower w/ non-competitive antagonist)

212
Q

What are the Indications for Alpha-Glucosidase inhibitors?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

213
Q

What type of kidney stones have hexagonal crystals?

A

Cysteine

214
Q

What does Oxytocin do?

A

Milk letdown and uterine contractions

215
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, tooth pain worsens upon bending forward

216
Q

What is duodenal Atresia?

A

Bilious vomiting with first feeding, double bubble sign on x-ray, associated with Downs Syndrome

217
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia I?

A

“Wermer’s” 3 P’s: Pancreas, Pituitary, Parathyroid adenoma

218
Q

What GI diseases has a RLQ Sausage mass?

A

Intussusception

219
Q

What is a Dohle Body?

A

PMN Leukocytosis(caused by infections, steroids, tumor)

220
Q

What does an ejection click tell you?

A

Aortic or Pulmonic Stenosis

221
Q

What is associated with Clostridium Perfringens?

A

Holiday ham and turkey - left out on counter and Clostridium jumps on and waits, enterotoxin causes Gastroenteritis, food gets reheated - bug is loving life, DM patients get Gas Gangrene due to the alpha toxin, also found in soil and feces

222
Q

What Is Lesch-Nyhan?

A

HGPRT deficiencygrout neuropathyself-mutilationDystoniaXLRPrange sand crystals in diaper

223
Q

What is a Bite Cell?

A

Unstable Hb inclusions (seen in G6PD Deficiency)

224
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Lie, cheat, steal, destroy property, impulsive without remorse, illegal activity, aggressive towards others. Must be over 18 y/o

225
Q

What are the Adverse Effects of Odansetron?

A

Headache, constipation, dizziness

226
Q

What does Southwestern blot detect?

A

DNA-binding Proteins (combines south and western blots)

227
Q

What does a paradoxical S-2 split tell you?

A

Aortic Stenosis or LBBB

228
Q

What is Pre-Eclampsia?

A

Ischemia to the placenta causes HTN greater than 140/90

229
Q

What is the MOA of FIbrates?

A

Upregulate LPL, increase triglyceride clearance

230
Q

What is the Crystallization reaction?

A

Wall formed after one sperm enters to prevent polyspermy

231
Q

What does auscaltation of wheezing tell you?

A

Intrathoracic narrowing (seen on expiration on x-ray)

232
Q

What are Ideas of Reference?

A

Believes the media is monitoring you

233
Q

What does the Citrate shuttle do?

A

FA transport out of the mitochondria

234
Q

What conditions cause weight gain?

A

Obesity, Hypothyroidism, Depression, Cushing’s, Anasarca

235
Q

What does Vit B5 do?

A

Part of Acetyl-CoA, no known diseases

236
Q

What is Spina bifida aperta?

A

Has opening (High AFP)

237
Q

What is HELLP Syndrome?

A

Hepatic injury causing:H- HemolysisEL- Elevated Liver EnzymeLP- Low Platelets

238
Q

What is the MOA of Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Na+ channel blocker

239
Q

What is the fucntion of LH (Luteinizing hormone)?

A

Stimulates Testosterone release from the testis, Androgens and Progesterone release from the ovary

240
Q

What is the Parasympathetic System?

A

Rest and digest, slows stuff down

241
Q

When do you see silent thyroiditis?

A

Post-partum patients

242
Q

What are the adverse effects of Reserpine?

A

Mental depression

243
Q

What is associated with Paseurella Multocida?

A

Cat/Dog saliva => Cellulits with lymphadenitis

244
Q

What is Gigantism?

A

Childhood form of Acromegaly

245
Q

What form of Estrogen is highest at Menopause?

A

E1: Estrone (Made by Fat)E2: Estradiol (Made by the ovaries)E3: Estriol (Made by the placenta)

246
Q

What are the adverse effects of Losartan?

A

Fetal renal toxicityHyperkalemia

247
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Systolic minus diastolic pressure

248
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Autoimmune destruction of adrenal cortex, causes hyperpigmentation (looks tan), and increased ACTH

249
Q

What is the muscarinic antagonist drug used for asthma?

A

Ipratropium

250
Q

What is the function of Prolactin (PRL)?

A

Milk production

251
Q

What is associated with Chlamydia Trachomatis?

A

Neonatal in-turned eyelashes, Corneal Ulcers

252
Q

How do I know the patient has a Vitamin D Deficiency?

A

Rickets (children), Osteomalacia (adults)

253
Q

What is Zenker’s Diverticulum?

A

Cough up undigested food from above the UES, Halitosis, motor dysfunction problem

254
Q

What is a Male Hermaphrodite?

A

XY with no MIF

255
Q

What is Dissociative Fugue?

A

No past memory at all, even if they see someone from the past - they have no ideaTravel to a new place, usually due to trauma

256
Q

What is an Allograft?

A

Human to human transplant

257
Q

What are the indications for the Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Increase AP duration, icnrease effective refractory period (ERP) QT interval, affect reentrant and ectopic SVT and ventricular tachy

258
Q

What is Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

Weight gain and enlarged ovaries after clomiphene use for infertility

259
Q

What is the first generation Sulfonylureas?

A

Chlorpropamide and Tolbutamide?

260
Q

What is the difference between Myeloid and Lymphoid Leukemia’s?

A

Myeloid: increased RBC, WBC, platelets, macrophages (decreased Luymphoid cells) and bone marrow biopsyLymphoid: increased NK, T, B cells (decreased Myeloid cells) and do lymph node biopsy

261
Q

What are the indications for corticosteroids?

A

Chronic asthma, COPD

262
Q

What are the acidic amino acids?

A

Asp, Glu

263
Q

What is the Indication for GLP-1 Analogs?

A

NIDDM. (Type 2)

264
Q

What does Fremitus, Egophony and Bronchophony tell you?

A

Consolidation (pathognomonic for pneumonia)

265
Q

What diseases have high eosinophils?

A

“NAACP”N - Neoplasm (Lymphoma)A - Allergy/ AsthmaA - Addison’s disease (no cortisol -relative eosinophilia)C - Collagen Vascular diseaseP - Parasites

266
Q

What does “Penia” tell you?

A

Low Levels - (Usually due to virus or drugs)

267
Q

What happens with Rubella infections in utero?

A

Cataracts, hearing loss, PDA, “blueberry muffin” rash (Rash on face that spreads to trunk)

268
Q

What is a complete molar pregnancy?

A

2 Sperm and no egg (46, XX) both are paternal, bunch of graps, dad eats grapes, no embryo(GROSS!)

269
Q

Where does Testosterone come from?

A

Adrenal gland and testicles

270
Q

What antibody shows past Hep A infection?

A

IgG

271
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate recent immunization within >2/52wks?

A

HBsAg+

272
Q

What is Thought Blocking?

A

Stops mid-sentence

273
Q

What is Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis?

A

T-cell defect against Candida Albicans and chronic fatigue

274
Q

What is Budd-Chiari

A

Hepatic vein obstruction

275
Q

What does “Cythemia” tell you?

A

High levels

276
Q

What are the degrees of Vaginal Lacerations?

A

1st Degree: Skin2nd Degree: Muscle3rd Degree: Anus4th Degree: Rectum

277
Q

What are the Indications for GH?

A

GH deficiency in children, Turner syndrome, and Burn victims

278
Q

What does a Kinase do?

A

Adds Phosphate group to substrate using ATP

279
Q

What will Ranson’s criteria tell you and what will you see at 48 hours?

A

Prognosis of Pancreatitis patients BUN >5 mg/dL (decreased RBF)Calcium <8mg/dL (saponification)HCT drops >10% (bleeding into pancreas)sequester > 6 liters of fluid (3rd spacing)Oxygen pO2 <60 mmHg (fluid/protein leak, leads to ARDS)base deficit >4 mEq/L (diarrhea due to no pancreatic enzymes)

280
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A

HTN, Bradycardia, irregular breathing

281
Q

What is Seborrheic Dermatitis?

A

Red rash with oily skin and dry flaky hairline, crusty lesion

282
Q

What receptors do Steroid Hormones use?

A

Nuclear membrane receptors (except cortisol cytoplasmic receptor)

283
Q

What is the MOA of Antileukotriene?

A

5-lipoxygenase inhibitor -> inhibits conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene -> prevents bronchoconstriction and inflammatory cell infiltrate

284
Q

What lysosomal diseases have a cherry-red macula?

A

Tay-sachs, Niemann-Pick

285
Q

What is a Meduloblastoma?

A

Pseudorosettes compressing the brain, early morning vomiting

286
Q

What antibody shows current Hep A infection?

A

IgM

287
Q

What does Vit B3 do?

A

NAD cofactor

288
Q

What are the essential amino acids?

A

Phynlalanine, Valine, Threonine(PVT)Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Methionine(TIM)Histidine, Arginine, Leucine, Lysine(HALL)

289
Q

What is the Dawn Phenomenon?

A

Morning hyperglycemia secondary to Growth Hormone

290
Q

What is Hepatorenal Syndrome?

A

High urea from the Liver leads to: increased Glutaminase, Ammonia, GABA- Kidney shuts down

291
Q

What is Nevus Flammeus?

A

Port Wine Stain - Permanent- Unilateral of face or neck- Vascular malformation - Sturge - Weber syndrome - Vasculitis- Mgt: Pulsed laser therapy

292
Q

What defines CML?

A

30-50 y/o females t(9;22)Philadelphia Chromosomebcr-abl

293
Q

What is a Kleihauer-Betke Test?

A

Detects percentage of fetal blood in maternal circulation (Dilution test)

294
Q

What is Kallmann’s Syndrome?

A

No GnRH and Anosmia. (They can’t smell)

295
Q

What are the aromatic amino acids?

A

Phe, Tyr, Trp

296
Q

What structures have one-way valves?

A

Urethra and ejaculatory duct

297
Q

How fast should fundal height change?

A

Uterus grows 1 cm/week

298
Q

What GI disease has an Abrupt Cut off on X-Ray?

A

Volvulus

299
Q

What is associated with Pseudomonas Aeruginosa?

A

Otitis Externa, Ecthyma Gangrenosum, loves rubber, Whirlpool Folliculitis, exotoxin (ADP ribosylates EF-2)

300
Q

What is normal blood loss during a Vaginal Deliver?

A

500 mL

301
Q

What is Achalasia?

A

Increased LES Pressure (no Auerbach’s Plexus), Bird’s Beak on X-Ray and also seen in Chagas Disease

302
Q

What are the most common causes of Oligohydramnios?

A

Abdominal Muscle Problem: Prune Belly Renal Agenesis: Potters Syndrome

303
Q

What causes anterior leg bowing?

A

Neonatal syphilis

304
Q

What are the Intravascular Hemolytic Anemias?

A

IgM G6PD deficiencycold autoimmune

305
Q

What are the adverse effects of the Class IA antiarrhythmic?

A

Quinidine: CinchonismProcainamide: Torsades de Pointes

306
Q

What does Trypsin cut?

A

Arg, Lys

307
Q

What is a Dandy Walker malformation?

A

No cerebellum, distended 4th and lateral ventricles

308
Q

What is Synesthesia?

A

Smells colors

309
Q

Where is a Bochdalek Hernia?

A

Occur more commonly on the posterior left side (diaphragm), most common congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH)

310
Q

What is Menetrier’s Disease?

A

Loss of protein through the rugal folds. Causes generalized edema. CMV association in children and H. Pylorus in Adults

311
Q

What is a True Hermaphrodite?

A

Internal genitalia problem (has both sexes)

312
Q

What gives urine its yellow color?

A

Urobilinogen being oxidized to urobilin

313
Q

What is a Schistocyte?

A

Broken RBC (seen in DIC and artificial heart vlaves and others)

314
Q

What does vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) do?

A

Inhibits secretin, motilin, and CCK, and opens Sphincters

315
Q

What are the adverse effects of Digoxin?

A

Cholinergic, ECG: icnrease PR, decrease QT worsened by renal failureQuinidine displaces Digoxin from tissue binding sites

316
Q

What is Amnesia?

A

Can’t recall important facts

317
Q

What is Type A gastritis?

A

Upper GI bleed, autoimmune (anti-parietal cell antibodies), Atrophic / Achlorhydria and increased risk for adenocarcinoma (body & fundus region of the stomach)

318
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 difference after a meal?

A

GI tract

319
Q

What is Inflammatory Carcinoma?

A

Infiltrates Lymphatics, pulls on Cooper’s Ligaments “Peau d’Orange”

320
Q

What is associated with Propionibacterium acnes?

A

Acne, Progesterone => Propionic acid

321
Q

What type of immunity does TH2 provide?

A

Enhances humoral immunity

322
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Male >40 with lower back painSerum M protein (IgG)Bence-Jones Proteins in the urineRouleaux formationPunched out lesions on x-ray

323
Q

What is the function of TRH?

A

Stimulates TSH release

324
Q

What are some causes of G6PD Deficiency?

A

Sulfa drugs, mothballs, fava beans, sudden drop in Hb

325
Q

What is Erythema Toxicum?

A

White wheal on red area rash has Eosinophils

326
Q

What is Pseudocyesis

A

Fake pregnancy with all the signs and symptoms

327
Q

How does Herpes present?

A

Primary: Painful grouped vesicles on red baseSecondary: Painful solitary lesion

328
Q

What is squamous cell CA?

A

Seen in smokers, high PTH and Ca2+

329
Q

What is the cell-mediated immune response?

A

T-cells and Macrophages patrol the tissues looking for non-bacteria

330
Q

What is a Thyrotrope?

A

TSH

331
Q

What is seen / causes in Aplastic Anemia?

A

PancytopeniaAutoimmuneBenzeneAZTChloramphenicolRadiation

332
Q

What is the function of CRH?

A

Stimulates ACTH release

333
Q

What is the Gram Positive Capsule?

A

S. Pneumonia

334
Q

What does Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO) and Thymosin do?

A

Help T-cells mature

335
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in Heme synthesis?

A

Delta-ALA Synthase

336
Q

What is Borderline Personality Disorder?

A

“Perpetual Teenager”, splitting (love/hate), projection, acting out, self-mutiliation, unstable relationships, impulsive

337
Q

What does Rh+ tell you?

A

Has D Antigen

338
Q

Can you die during ETOH withdrawal?

A

Yes

339
Q

What Kidney complications can Lithium cause to the person taking the drug?

A

Destroy the collecting ducts V2 aquaporin receptors, causing Nephrogenic DI

340
Q

What is a Biophysical Profile (BPP)?

A

By US look for:Non-stress testAFIFetal heart toneFetal ActivityBreathing Movement

341
Q

What do you see in Grave’s Disease?

A

Exophthalmos, Pretibial myxedema, anti-TSH receptor antibodies

342
Q

What bug loves the hippocampus?

A

Rabies

343
Q

What diseases have metabolic acidosis?

A

“MUDPILES” and diarrhea

344
Q

What unstable angina?

A

Pain at rest (transient clots MCC)

345
Q

What is a Pinealoma?

A

Loss of upward gaze, loss of circadian rhythms lead to precocious puberty

346
Q

What does THF donate methyl groups for?

A

Nucleotides

347
Q

What is the MOA of Misoprostol?

A

PGE1 analog, increase production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier, decreased acid production

348
Q

What is Lichen Sclerosis?

A

Paper like vulva, itching, CA risk

349
Q

What is an Eosinophil?

A

The parasite destroyer and allergy inducer

350
Q

What is seen in Paroxysmal Cold Auto Autoimmune?

A

Bleeds after cold exposure Donath-Landsteiner Ab

351
Q

What does the E Ag tell you?

A

Transmissibility/ Infectivity

352
Q

What is Intussusception?

A

Currant Jelly Stool, Stacked Coin Enema, sausage shaped mass and knees to chest for comfort

353
Q

What is Type 1 Hyperlipidemia?

A

Defective Liver Lipoprotein Lipase (chylomicrons are elevated)

354
Q

What is Uterus Rupture?

A

Tearing sensation, halt of delivery

355
Q

What is associated with (PCP) Pneumocystis Carinii pnemonia?

A

AIDS and preemies, rusty sputum, silver stains the lungs, increased LDH, Treat with steroids

356
Q

Why do pregnant women get Anemia?

A

Due to the dilution effect: RBC rises 30%, but body volume rises 50%

357
Q

What is associated with Vibrio Cholera?

A

Rice Water Diarrhea, ADP- Ribosylates Gs = High cAMP, Turning the on… on

358
Q

What vessel has the highest compliance?

A

Veins

359
Q

What is the smallest amino acid?

A

Gly

360
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

Changes one base

361
Q

What are Esophageal Varices?

A

Due to Portal HTN, vomit large amounts of blood when they rupture

362
Q

What is MGM?

A

BM spikes, granular/linear supepithelial spikes and closes

363
Q

What type of kidney stones have Rosette Crystals?

A

Uric acid

364
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia II (2A)?

A

“Sipple’s” Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid, Parathyroid Adenoma. (tumor marker RET)

365
Q

What are Spur Cells / Acanthocytes?

A

Lipid bilayer disease

366
Q

How does Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) present?

A

Alternating diarrhea/ constipationHistory of stressNo abnormalities on colonoscopy

367
Q

What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob?

A

Prion induced disease, death within 1 year, post cornea transplant

368
Q

What bug causes Acute Bacterial Endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (attacks healthy valves)

369
Q

What are the spore forming Gram-positive bacteria?

A

BacillusClostridium

370
Q

What is the function of B-HCG?

A

Maintains Corpus Luteum, sensitizes TSH receptors to make body hyperthyroid (to raise BMR)

371
Q

What disease has Iridocyclitis?

A

Juvenile TA

372
Q

What is the Rapid Acting Insulin drug?

A

Regular Insulin

373
Q

What are the Class IB antiarrhythmic?

A

Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Tocainide

374
Q

What is Sarcoma Botryoides?

A

Vaginal CA, looks like a ball of grapes

375
Q

What is Hidradenoma?

A

Sweat gland cysts

376
Q

What is Variable Deceleration?

A

Cord Compression

377
Q

What is a Traction Diverticulum?

A

Out pouch between the UES and LES

378
Q

What are the adverse of Methyldopa?

A

Sedation and Hemolytic Anemia(+) Coombs test

379
Q

What is Intellectualization?

A

Act like a “know it all” to avoid feeling situational emotions, gets all information available to be over-informed

380
Q

What bugs cause Monocytosis?

A

“STELS”S - SyphilisT - TBE - EBVL - ListeriaS - Salmonella

381
Q

What is Spina bifida occulta?

A

Covered by skin with a tuft of hair

382
Q

What is PKU?

A

No Phe -> Tyr (via decreased Tetrahydrobiopterin Cofactor or decreased Phe Hydroxylase)NutraSweet (Aspartame) sensitivitymental retardationpaleblond hairblue eyesmusty odor

383
Q

What is Wright’s Stain?

A

Detects nucleated fetal RBC in mom’s vagina

384
Q

What is Hemophilia A?

A

Defective Factor VIII (<40% Activity)Bleed into cavities (head, abd, etc)

385
Q

What hepatitis B labs indicate infectious state?

A

HBeAg+

386
Q

What organ has the highest AVO2 Difference at rest?

A

heart

387
Q

What is Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

A

Pompous, no empathy, thinks they deserve everything

388
Q

What does a Carboxylase do?

A

Transfers CO2 groups with the help of Biotin

Wolfpacc Clues Complete (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions