Comparative Flashcards

1
Q

Give 2 features of same method/task comparisons.

A

They are suitable for closely related species and species-specific adaptations make its applicability difficult.

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2
Q

Give 2 features of different method/task comparisons.

A

They have greater phylogenic applicability but low comparability.

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3
Q

Give 3 features of functionally equivalent method/task comparisons.

A

There are problems in dining functionally equivalent tasks, they have greater phylogenic applicability and allow test batteries on particular topics.

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4
Q

Give an advantage and a disadvantage of using functionally equivalent ages in comparisons.

A

Advantage: Adapted to the species being compared.
Disadvantage: Rules of thumb are not always right.

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5
Q

Give the 4 key words in Tinbergen’s four questions.

A

Mechanism, function, phylogeny and ontogeny.

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6
Q

An animal’s key function is to (______), through (genetic/endocrinological) control.

A

Survive and reproduce, genetic.

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7
Q

An animal’s key mechanism is to (______), through (genetic/endocrinological) control.

A

Seek pleasure and avoid pain, endrocinological.

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8
Q

Describe fission-fusion groups.

A

They vary in spatial cohesion and individual membership in subgroups, and groups are rarely all together.

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9
Q

On inhibitory control tasks, what is sometimes a better predictor of performance than phylogeny?

A

Sociality.

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10
Q

What 3 characteristics do polygamous males usually have, in comparison to monogamous males and females?

A

Larger home range, better spatial abilities and larger hippocampal volume.

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11
Q

What 2 characteristics do food storing birds usually have, in comparison to non-food storing birds?

A

Better spatial abilities and larger hippocampal volume.

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12
Q

What 3 characteristics do females which carry out brood parasitism usually have, in comparison to males?

A

Can keep track of multiple nest sites, better spatial abilities and larger hippocampal volume.

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13
Q

Which timing style allows animals to use short arbitrary durations to perform actions for specific periods, etc.?

A

Interval timing.

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14
Q

Which timing style allows animals to use short the tidal cycle, the light-dark cycle or seasons to keep time?

A

Circadian rhythms.

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15
Q

Define circadian rhythms.

A

Endogenous timing mechanisms that predict changes in the environment and synchronise physiology and behaviour accordingly.

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16
Q

Describe cropping.

A

Visiting food sources at or close to the moment of replenishment.

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17
Q

Define navigation.

A

An animal’s ability to male it’s way to a desired location.

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18
Q

Define homing.

A

The specific use of navigation to return home.

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19
Q

Define migration.

A

Seasonal movement of animals from one region to another.

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20
Q

Define path integration.

A

The ability to directly return to a starting point after visiting several locations without the aid of external cues.

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21
Q

What input signals do invertebrates use in path integration?

A

Number of steps and optic flow.

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22
Q

What input signals do vertebrates use in path integration?

A

Vestibular system, optic flow, proprioception and motor commands.

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23
Q

Define compasses.

A

The ability to use planetary and/or exo-planetary cues to efficiently move from one location to another.

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24
Q

Define landmarks.

A

An object or gradient in the environment that aids an individual to a navigate to a particular location.

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25
Q

Give 2 types of beacon landmarks.

A

Odour and social.

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26
Q

Give 3 types of en route landmarks.

A

Serial beaconing, landmarks bearings and following a landmark.

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27
Q

Give 3 types of position fixing landmarks.

A

View matching, vectors and relative distance.

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28
Q

In a rectangular room with food in one corner, why do rats and toddlers go to the diagonal opposite corner?

A

They use geometric cues in navigation.

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29
Q

Give 3 factors that could help adult humans overcome the geometric module of navigation.

A

Executive function, hippocampal development and experience.

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30
Q

Describe the bi-coordinate map.

A

Direction from one point.

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31
Q

Describe the mosaic map.

A

Direction from multiple points.

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32
Q

Describe the network map.

A

All known routes between locations.

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33
Q

Describe the Euclidean cognitive map.

A

Distance and direction from all known sites.

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34
Q

Which method of planning and inference helps animals travel efficiently between locations.

A

Least distance strategies.

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35
Q

Which method of planning and inference helps animals travel efficiently to new locations.

A

Detours and shortcuts.

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36
Q

Define adaptive specialisations.

A

Traits that are tailored to the current ecological niche occupied by a species.

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37
Q

Give 2 morphological specialisations New Caledonian Crows have for tool use.

A

Beak shape and forward vision.

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38
Q

What is the term for when an organism’s adaptations mean it can succeed in more than own niche?

A

Flexibility.

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39
Q

Define trial-and-error problem solving.

A

The gradual acquisition of a new response following a series of unsystematic and varied attempts.

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40
Q

Define insight in problem solving.

A

“The sudden production of a new adaptive response not arrived at by trial behaviour, but by the sudden adaptive reorganisation of experience.”

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41
Q

Define reasoning in problem solving.

A

Coming perceived with imagines events or associating spatio-temporally separate events.

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42
Q

Define planning.

A

“The cognitive process implicated in the formulation, evaluation and selection of a sequence of thoughts and/or actions to achieve a desired goal.”

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43
Q

What process is associated with the mid-dorsolateral frontal cortex and interrupted by injury of the cortico-striatal pathway?

A

Planning.

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44
Q

Define innovation.

A

“The invention of a new behaviour pattern or modification of a previously learned one in a novel context.”

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45
Q

In Reader and Laland’s (2002) study, how did executive brain ratio affect innovation and social learning.

A

Increased executive brain ratio increased both.

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46
Q

Describe the life-dinner principle.

A

For predators, only dinner is stake, but for prey life is at stake.

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47
Q

Describe genetic preference/predisposition in prey selection.

A

Preference for a particular type of prey.

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48
Q

Describe individual learning in prey selection.

A

Sampling new items.

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49
Q

Describe social learning in prey selection.

A

Learning to eat what others eat.

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50
Q

Give an example of an animal that can see infrared.

A

Snakes.

51
Q

Give an example of an animal that can see ultraviolet.

A

Bees.

52
Q

Define Umwelt.

A

“The perceptual world in which an organism exists and acts as a subject.”

53
Q

What is the principle of proper mass?

A

Larger cortical sensory regions are associate with enhanced discriminative abilities.

54
Q

Give 3 methods of prey capture.

A

Anatomical, tool-assisted and cooperative.

55
Q

Give 4 examples of primary anti-predatory tactics?

A

Immobilisation, camouflage, mimicry and alarm calling.

56
Q

Give 4 examples of secondary anti-predatory tactics?

A

Immobilisation (faking death), flight, chemical defence (toxin sequestering) and attack (mobbing).

57
Q

Describe and give the other name for the Garcia effect?

A

Taste aversion: “A form of classical conditioning where a particular taste is associated with nausea, sickness and/or vomiting.”

58
Q

Give 2 benefits of acute stress.

A

Benefit mobilisation and fight-or-flight response.

59
Q

Give 4 disadvantages of chronic stress.

A

Reproductive suppression, depressed immune response, arrested and eventual premature death.

60
Q

Briefly define a social interaction.

A

A behavioural exchange between 2 or more individuals.

61
Q

Briefly define a social relationship.

A

The sum of social interactions over a period of time.

62
Q

Briefly define a social structure.

A

The network of existing relationships in a social group.

63
Q

Define altruism.

A

A behaviour that reduces the actor’s fitness while increasing another’s.

64
Q

Define kin selection.

A

The evolutionary strategy that favours the reproductive success of an organism’s relatives (even at personal reproduction and survival cost).

65
Q

Which type of fitness is the genetic contribution of an individual to the next generation’s gene pool.

A

Darwinian.

66
Q

Which type of fitness is the survival and reproductive success of kin, being valued by the probability of shared genetic information?

A

Inclusive.

67
Q

Describe eusocial species.

A

Cooperative brood care, multiple generations of adults and division of (reproductive and non-reproductive) labour.

68
Q

Define reciprocal altruism.

A

An evolutionary strategy that favours the reproductive success of an organism by receiving payback for the services offered at an earlier time.

69
Q

Which style of reciprocity is based on a tally of exchanges, high cognitive burden and considers multiple exchanges?

A

Calculated.

70
Q

Which style of reciprocity is based on relationship quality, low cognitive burden and considers the most recent exchange?

A

Attitudinal.

71
Q

Describe the social brain hypothesis of sociality.

A

Group size and % neocortex positively correlate, in order to keep track of social relations.

72
Q

Describe sequential tool use and give 2 examples of animals that can use it.

A

Using tools to obtain other tools - birds (rooks) and chimpanzees.

73
Q

Describe tool selectivity.

A

Selecting appropriate tools, rather than using them all/any.

74
Q

Give 4 tasks in which animals (e.g. chimps and birds) can use future planning.

A

Tool use, object exchange, spatial navigation and food caching.

75
Q

What is the aim and acts of Machiavellian intelligence?

A

Outcompeting conspecifics and tactical deception.

76
Q

In ToM, what aspects of seeking and knowing can chimps display?

A

Knowing what others can and cannot see, what they might have seen and what is mismatched with actual conditions.

77
Q

In ToM, what aspects of goals and intentions can chimps display?

A

Distinguishing unwilling and unable actors and using this knowledge to decide whether to punish others.

78
Q

In ToM, what aspects of metacognition can chimps display?

A

Knowing what they have seen and know (e.g. in a seeking information paradigm).

79
Q

What separates communication from action?

A

Motor ineffectiveness, response waiting, gaze alternation and repetition and elaboration.

80
Q

Give 3 features of ontogenetic ritualisation.

A

Repeated interactions transform action into gesture, individual of pair specificity and flexibility.

81
Q

Give 3 features of phylogenetic ritualisation.

A

Actions or cues are co-opted/modified into signals, species specificity and stability.

82
Q

Define aggression.

A

“A suite of behaviours allowing an individual to convey strength to or physically defeat a conspecific.”

83
Q

Define a dominance hierarchy.

A

A social relationship that ranks individuals in terms of the access that they have to resources, with dominant individuals having preferential access.

84
Q

How do dominance hierarchies develop?

A

Through repeated interactions and outcomes of social exchanges and fights.

85
Q

Signals and displays are subjected to (individual/group) selection.

A

Individual.

86
Q

When can conflict get out of hand?

A

When contestants are evenly matched, there is a large benefit and cost is small.

87
Q

Define conflict resolution.

A

“The outcome of actions that eliminate the incompatibility of goals, interests and attitudes of conflicting individuals.”

88
Q

Give 2 pre-conflict mechanisms of resolution.

A

Dispersion and signals.

89
Q

Define reconciliation.

A

Exchange of affiliation behaviour between 2 former opponents.

90
Q

Define triadic reconciliation and aggression.

A

Exchange of affiliation/aggression between the aggressor or the victim and other individuals.

91
Q

Define territoriality.

A

“The defence of maintenance of an area to the exclusion of others, typically same-sex conspecifics.”

92
Q

Give 3 territorial behaviours.

A

Patrolling, fighting and advertising.

93
Q

Give 5 costs of defending territory.

A

Injury, energy expenditure, reduced foraging, predation and reduced parental care.

94
Q

Give 3 benefits of defending territory.

A

Food abundance and familiarity, mate attraction and maintenance and offspring protection.

95
Q

Which quantitative mechanism is based on perceptual estimation and has a 7 item limit?

A

Subitizing.

96
Q

Which quantitative mechanism is based on precise representation of discrete items and has a 4 item limit?

A

Object file system.

97
Q

Define analog magnitude systems.

A

Cognitive mechanisms used to estimate whether 2 quantities differ in magnitude.

98
Q

Define parental behaviour.

A

“Activities on the part of the parents that influence the development of their offspring from conception to complete independence.”

99
Q

Define maternal care.

A

“Behaviour that continuities to the growth, development, survival, and subsequent fitness of offspring.”

100
Q

Give 5 functions of parental behaviour.

A

Shelter construction, grooming, thermoregulation, nourishment and protection.

101
Q

Define maternal expenditure.

A

The mother’s effort required for infant care within a specific reproductive event.

102
Q

Define maternal investment.

A

Behaviour in the form of care/effort that is invested in the current offspring which reduces the mother’s capacity to invest in future offspring.

103
Q

Give 3 maternal life history decisions.

A

Rate of nutrient delivery, response to infant signals and parental conflict (infant need vs. mother give).

104
Q

(Precocial/altricial) infants are fully developed at birth.

A

Precocial.

105
Q

(Precocial/altricial) infants are underdeveloped at birth.

A

Altricial.

106
Q

In which maternal style is the mother responsible for approach, contact and nursing?

A

Protective.

107
Q

In which maternal style is the mother in control of proximity and contact?

A

Restrictive.

108
Q

In which maternal style is the mother and infant responsible for approaches?

A

Relaxed.

109
Q

In which maternal style does the mother prevent nursing and limit contact?

A

Rejecting.

110
Q

Give 4 infant responses to brief separation from their mother.

A

Approach and follow her, produce signals, HPA activation and increased heat rate.

111
Q

Give 2 infant responses to prolonged separation from their mother.

A

Reduced cardiovascular response and reduced growth hormone secretion (saving energy in absence of mother).

112
Q

Give an example of intra-sexual selection.

A

Mate competition.

113
Q

Give 2 examples of inter-sexual selection.

A

Mate choice and courtship.

114
Q

Give 6 factors that differ with parental investment.

A

Nutrients in gametes, gestation, lactation, direct provisioning, defence against predators and inheritance of territory.

115
Q

Briefly describe the sexy sons hypothesis of passing on good genes.

A

Displays are selected to be attractive, and then sexy fathers produce sexy sons.

116
Q

Briefly describe the handicap principle of passing on good genes.

A

Only successful individuals can afford costly traits.

117
Q

Give 5 ways animals assess potential mates.

A

Using novel traits, copying others, comparisons, elaborated traits and multiple cues.

118
Q

Give 3 ways to develop mate preferences.

A

Genetically fixed, sexually imprinted and learned.

119
Q

Give a key factor for defining something as culture.

A

It cannot (totally) be explained by ecological determinants.

120
Q

What type of learning is copying the outcome of actions?

A

Emulation.

121
Q

What type of learning is copying actions themselves?

A

Imitative.

122
Q

Define observation dear conditioning.

A

“Acquisition of a dear response towards a particular stimulus by observing a conspecific in an aversive circumstance, rather than through direct experience.”

123
Q

Give 3 drives of social learning.

A

The majority, prestige and rank.