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PM - Self Study > COMP TIA+ > Flashcards

COMP TIA+ Flashcards

1
Q

Project

A

A temporary endeavor that has definite beginning and ending dates, and it results in a unique product, service, or result.

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2
Q

4 criteria must be met for a project to be considered a project.

A

Unique, temporary, resources & quality, stakeholder satisfaction

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3
Q

1st step in the pre-project setup.

A

Identifying the project.

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4
Q

Once, the project is identified you will ___________ the project.

A

Validate

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5
Q

How are operations classified?

A

Ongoing and repetitive, no beginning or ending date.

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6
Q

What is a program?

A

A group of related projects that are managed together using coordinated processes and techniques.

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7
Q

What does PMO stand for?

A

Project Management Office

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8
Q

What is project management?

A

Is the ability to administer a series of chronological tasks resulting in a desired goal.

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9
Q

What does PMBOK stand for?

A

Project Management Body of Knowledge

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10
Q

What is a functional organization?

A

Classic organizational structure with the staff organized by department. Each department is managed independently with a limited span of control.

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11
Q

What authority does a project manager have in a functional organization?

A

Very little authority in this type of organization.

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12
Q

In this type of organization project managers have very little authority and each supervisor has a supervisor to report to.

A

Functional Organization

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13
Q

What are 3 types of matrix organizations?

A

Weak Matrix, Balanced Matrix, Strong Matrix

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14
Q

How are matrix organizations typically organized?

A

All department lines, like a functional organization.

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15
Q

The resources in a ______________ organization are accountable to the project manager

A

Matrix

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16
Q

The resources in a ______________ organization are not accountable to the project manager, but rather to their immediate supervisors.

A

Functional

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17
Q

Team members working in a ____________ generally report to two people, their functional manager and their project manager.

A

Matrix.

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18
Q

In a typical matrix organization _________ managers assign employees to the project, while __________ managers assign tasks associated with the project to the employee.

A

functional, project

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19
Q

In what type of organization does a project manager have low to moderate authority?

A

Matrix Organization

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20
Q

What is a strong matrix organization?

A

Emphasizes project work over functional duties. The project manager has the majority of power in this type of organization.

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21
Q

In this type of matrix organization, the project manager has the majority of power.

A

Strong Matrix.

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22
Q

What is a weak matrix organization?

A

Emphasizes functional work over project work and operates more like a functional hierarchy. The functional mangers have the majority of power in this type of organization.

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23
Q

In this type of matrix organization, the functional manager has the majority of power and the project manager has the least amount of power.

A

Weak Matrix

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24
Q

What is a balanced matrix organization?

A

Shares equal emphasis between projects and functional work. Both the project manager and the functional manager share power in this type of structure.

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25
Q

What is the least common form of an organization?

A

Projectized or Project-Based Organization

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26
Q

What type of organization is solely focused on projects?

A

Projectized

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27
Q

Project managers have the most power in which type of organization?

A

Projectized

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28
Q

What are the two components involved in validating a project?

A

Preparing the business case and identifying and analyzing the project stakeholders.

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29
Q

What is the first step involved in validating a project?

A

Preparing & validating the business case

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30
Q

What does the business case typically document?

A

The reasons the project came into existence.

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31
Q

What are the seven needs, requirements or reasons projects come into existence?

A

Market demand, strategic opportunity or business need, customer request, technological advance, legal requirement, ecological impact or social need

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32
Q

What is one of the things a project manager can do at the onset of a project?

A

Determine the business reason for the project.

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33
Q

Where is the business reason for a project discussed?

A

In the business case.

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34
Q

What is the business case?

A

A written document or report that helps executive management and key stakeholders determine the benefits and rewards of the project. It documents the business need or justification for the project and will often include high-level details regarding estimated budgets and timelines for completing the project.

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35
Q

What is a feasibility study?

A

A formal endeavor that is undertaken to determine whether there is a compelling reason to perform the proposed project.

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36
Q

What components are necessary when validating a project?

A

Validating the business case, doing a feasibility study, justification, alignment to the strategic plan, and identifying and analyzing project stakeholders.

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37
Q

______________________ are used to determine which proposed projects should receive approval and move forward.

A

Project selection methods.

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38
Q

What is a decision model?

A

A formal method of project selection that helps managers make decisions regarding the use of limited budgets and human resources.

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39
Q

What are the two primary categories of decision models?

A

Benefit measurement methods & Constrained optimization methods

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40
Q

Benefit measurement methods and constrained-optimization models are the two primary categories of what?

A

Decision Models.

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41
Q

Benefit measurement methods of decision making do what?

A

Provide a means to compare the benefits obtained from project requests by evaluating them using the same criteria.

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42
Q

What is the most commonly used method of decision making models?

A

Benefit measurement methods

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43
Q

What are the four benefit measurement methods?

A

Cost-benefit analysis, scoring model, payback period, and economic model.

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44
Q

What type of decision making method is cost-benefit analysis?

A

Benefit measurement method

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45
Q

What is cost-benefit analysis based on?

A

It is a benefit measurement method. Compares the cost to produce the product or service to the financial gain (or benefit) the organization stands to make as a result of executing the project.

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46
Q

What is a scoring model based on?

A

It is a benefit measurement method. has a predefined list of criteria against which each project is rated. Each criterion is given both a scoring range and a weighting factor.

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47
Q

How does the economic model of decision making work?

A

It is based on cash flow techniques and provides data on the overall financials of the project.

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48
Q

What type of decision making model is the payback period?

A

A benefit measurement method.

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49
Q

The economic model of decision making methods considers what calculations?

A

Discounted cash flow, IRR and NPV.

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50
Q

Discounted cash flows, IRR and NPV are used in what decision making model?

A

The economic model, which is a benefit measurement method.

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51
Q

What are constrained optimization models?

A

It is a decision making method based on mathematical methods.

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52
Q

What type of decision making model is usually used with very complex projects?

A

Constrained optimization models

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53
Q

What is often used in conjunction with the two methods of decision making?

A

Expert judgement.

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54
Q

Tools and techniques used to complete projects are called __________.

A

Processes

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55
Q

What are Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A

Collections of individual processes that have elements in common.

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56
Q

What are the nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A

Project Integration Management, Project Scope Management, Project Time Management, Project Cost Management, Project Quality Management, Project Human Resource Management, Project Communications Management, Project Risk Management, Project Procurement Management

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57
Q

What skills are needed to manage a project beyond technical knowledge of the product?

A

Key general management skills include leadership, communication, problem solving, negotiation, organization, and time management.

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58
Q

What is the project life cycle?

A

The total composition of the multiple phases of a project - beginning, middle, end, etc.

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59
Q

How can the project life cycle be represented?

A

On a timeline

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60
Q

At the highest level, what should the project life cycle include?

A

Deliverables for each phase and a list of the categories of resources involved.

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61
Q

What is fast tracking?

A

Starting the next project phase before the prior phase has been completed.

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62
Q

What are the five process groups?

A

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

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63
Q

What is the output of the Initiating Process Group?

A

Planning

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64
Q

What are the inputs of the Planning Process Group?

A

Initiating and Controlling

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65
Q

What is the output of the Planning Process Group?

A

Executing

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66
Q

What are the inputs of the Executing Process Group?

A

Planning and Controlling

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67
Q

What is the output of the Executing Process Group?

A

Controlling

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68
Q

What is the input of the Controlling Process Group?

A

Executing

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69
Q

What is the output of the Controlling Process Group?

A

Planning, Executing and Closing

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70
Q

What is the input of the Closing Process Group?

A

Controlling

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71
Q

___________ is the formal authorization for a new project to begin or for an existing project to continue.

A

Initiation

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72
Q

The initiating process includes what?

A

All the activities that lead up to the final authorization to begin the project, starting with the original project request.

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73
Q

Documenting high-level requirements of a project is part of which process group?

A

Initiating Process Group.

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74
Q

Cost justification occurs during which process group?

A

Initiating Process Group

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75
Q

What happens during the Planning Process Group?

A

The project goals, objectives, and deliverables are refined and broken down into manageable units of work.

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76
Q

Project managers create time and cost estimates and determine resource requirements for each activity during which process group?

A

Planning Process Group.

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77
Q

Which process group is one of the most critical elements of managing a project?

A

Planning Process Group.

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78
Q

What happens during the executing processes?

A

This is when the work of the project is performed.

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79
Q

What processes do executing processes cover?

A

Actual execution, team development, quality assurance and information distribution.

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80
Q

Activities that monitor the progress of the project to identify any variances from the project plan are called ___________ processes.

A

Monitoring and controlling processes.

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81
Q

Requests for changes to the project scope are included in this process

A

Monitoring and controlling

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82
Q

This area is where corrective actions are taken to get the work of the project realigned to the project plan.

A

Monitoring and controlling

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83
Q

What process documents the formal acceptance of the project work and to hand off the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support.

A

The closing process.

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84
Q

IPECAC

A

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling (and Monitoring) And Closing

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85
Q

The Initiating Process Group covers from the ___________ thru the ______________.

A

Receipt of the project request. Authorization to start a project.

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86
Q

Authorization to start a project is established how?

A

Through the publication of the project charter.

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87
Q

The project request process happens during which process group?

A

Initiating Process Group

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88
Q

To clarify a project request, you need to develop a ____________, which is also known as high-level requirements.

A

product description

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89
Q

A product description is also commonly known as ____________.

A

High-level requirements.

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90
Q

What describes the relationship between the business need and the product or service requested?

A

High-level requirements.

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91
Q

What describes the major characteristics of the product or service of the project?

A

High-level requirements.

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92
Q

What are the three types of requirements for the project outcome?

A

Functional, Business & Technical Requirements.

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93
Q

What are functional requirements?

A

They define what the product, service or results of the project will do.

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94
Q

_________ requirements focus on how the end user will interact with the product.

A

Functional

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95
Q

What are business requirements?

A

The big-picture results of fulfilling a project.

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96
Q

What are technical requirements?

A

The product characteristics needed for the product to perform the functional requirements.

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97
Q

What are technical requirements also known as?

A

Nonfunctional requirements.

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98
Q

What does RFP stand for?

A

Request For Proposal

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99
Q

What does SOW stand for?

A

Statement of Work

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100
Q

What is a stakeholder?

A

A person or an organization that has something to gain or lose as a result of performing the project.

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101
Q

What is a project sponsor?

A

Usually an executive in the organization who has the authority to assign money and resources to the project.

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102
Q

What is a project champion?

A

Usually one of the key stakeholders that act as a cheerleader of sorts.

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103
Q

What is a political stakeholder?

A

Influential people in the organization who have expressed a desire to be involved in this project, without a direct or obvious connection.

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104
Q

What is the result of the Initiating process?

A

The Project Charter

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105
Q

This document provides formal approval for the project to begin and authorizes the project manager to apply resources to the project.

A

The project charter.

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106
Q

The ________________ is the person who authorizes and approves the project charter.

A

project sponsor

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107
Q

The _______________ documents the high-level goals and objectives of the project.

A

project charter

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108
Q

What is a stakeholder matrix?

A

A database that lists all of the stakeholders, contact info, needs, concerns, involvement, influence, etc.

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109
Q

What are software developers?

A

Specialize in writing software or web-based programs that provide computer-related solutions to business problems, productivity issues, entertainment, and more.

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110
Q

What are server administrators?

A

These team members are responsible for configuring and supporting the servers that will host your project.

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111
Q

What are database administrators?

A

DBAs are responsible for creating the database schema and their associated requirements. They also plan the backup and recovery methodologies for the data.

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112
Q

What are internetworking specialists?

A

Handle the routers, switches, LAN cabling, and WAN connections.

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113
Q

What are telephony specialists?

A

The people who manage the company’s telephone equipment and operations

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114
Q

What are systems analysts?

A

Operate at the functional level of taking the system requirements and breaking them down into a system design specification that the system developers can use to build the project.

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115
Q

What are business analysts?

A

Understand the workflow processes and the needs of the business unit but are also able to interface with the IT folks to help them understand what it is the business unit really wants.

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116
Q

What are system architects?

A

Have a very technical level of knowledge about systems and are able to draft the blueprint for infrastructure of the proposed system.

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117
Q

What are security analysts?

A

The person who makes certain that all security requirements for the project are implemented.

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118
Q

What are technical writers?

A

Responsible for writing all of the documentation for the system. This includes training documents as well as user manuals, help-desk cheat sheets, and other documentation.

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119
Q

What is the project description?

A

It documents the key characteristics of the product, service or result that will be created by the project.

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120
Q

At what stage is the project description written?

A

Initiating Process Group

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121
Q

At what stage do you need high-level cost estimates?

A

During the Initiating Process Group.

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122
Q

Where can you find the high-level cost estimate of a project?

A

In the project charter.

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123
Q

What are triple constraints?

A

Time, budget and quality constraints.

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124
Q

Where should high-level risks be documented?

A

In the project charter.

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125
Q

Where is the project approach found?

A

In the project charter, which is developed in during the Initiating Process Group.

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126
Q

Issuing the project charter moves the project from the ___________ phase into the __________ phase.

A

Initiating. Planning.

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127
Q

What is the primary output of the Initiating Process Group?

A

The Project Charter

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128
Q

What does the project charter contain?

A

Prject description, project approach, stakeholders, goals and objectives, problem statement, high-level deliverables, milestones, costs, assumptions, constraints and risks.

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129
Q

What is project scope?

A

It includes all the components that make up the product or service of the project and the results the project intends to produce.

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130
Q

To complete scope planning what 3 scope components must be completed?

A

The scope management plan, the scope statement and the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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131
Q

At what stage is the project scope completed?

A

The Planning Process Group

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132
Q

What is the scope management plan?

A

It documents how the project scope will be defined and verified and how scope will be monitored and controlled throughout the life of the project.

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133
Q

What is the scope statement?

A

It provides a common understanding of the project by documenting the project objectives and deliverables.

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134
Q

What is the work breakdown structure?

A

It breaks the project deliverables down into smaller components from which you can estimate task durations, assign resources, and estimate costs.

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135
Q

Who signs the project scope statement?

A

The key stakeholders

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136
Q

The _____________ describes how the project team will define project scope, verify the work of the project, and manage and control scope.

A

Scope Management Plan

137
Q

What is scope creep?

A

The term commonly used to describe the changes and additions that seem to make their way onto the project to the point where you’re not managing the same project anymore.

138
Q

When developing a scope management plan it is important to consider 3 key items. What are they?

A

Stability of the scope, Impact of scope changes, the scope change process.

139
Q

Scope change processes at a minimum needs what components?

A

A change request form, an analysis of the impact, an approval process, a communications plan to keep stakeholders informed, and a method to incorporate approved changes.

140
Q

The primary outputs of scope planning are what?

A

The scope management plan, the scope statement, and the work breakdown structure.

141
Q

What is an agreement between the project and the project customer that states precisely what the work of the project will produce.

A

The project scope statement.

142
Q

Success criteria is also known as?

A

Acceptance criteria.

143
Q

_______________ include the process and criteria you’ll use to determine that the deliverables are complete and satisfactorily meet expectations.

A

Success criteria

144
Q

What are KPIs?

A

Key Performance Indicators

145
Q

Deliverables and requirements are sometimes referred to as ____________.

A

Critical success factors.

146
Q

Critical success factors are those elements that must be completed __________ and __________ in order for the project to be considered complete.

A

accurately and on schedule

147
Q

Order of magnitude estimates are based on?

A

Actual duration and cost of similar projects or the expert judgement of someone familiar with the work or the project.

148
Q

Do assumptions needs to be documented and validated?

A

Yes.

149
Q

What is the final element that must be included in the project scope statement?

A

A constraints list.

150
Q

Once the scope statement is complete, the next step is what?

A

Present the scope statement to the stakeholders and have the project sponsor and stakeholders sign off.

151
Q

What is used as the basis for estimating activity duration, assigning resources to activities, estimating work effort, and creating a budget?

A

The work breakdown structure.

152
Q

The lowest level of any WBS is called ______________.

A

work package level

153
Q

What is a code of accounts?

A

Numeric identifiers that are assigned to the work package level of the work breakdown structure.

154
Q

What is the WBS Dictionary?

A

This is where the WBS levels and work component descriptions are documented.

155
Q

Scope planning uses the output of the _________ phase, the project charter, to create the _____________ and the scope management plan.

A

Initiating. Scope Statement.

156
Q

Once the WBS is completed, what the next planning document developed?

A

The project schedule

157
Q

When is the project schedule completed?

A

After the WBS is completed.

158
Q

The key to Activity Definition is to __________.

A

identify all the tasks required to produce the work packages (and ultimately the deliverables)

159
Q

What is an activity list?

A

This list should include every activity needed to complete the work of the project, along with an identifier or code so that you can track each activity independently.

160
Q

What are the three categories of dependencies in activity sequencing?

A

Mandatory dependencies, discretionary dependencies and external dependencies.

161
Q

At what stage does the project schedule get completed?

A

The Planning Process Group.

162
Q

What is a mandatory dependency?

A

One activity is dependent on another activity.

163
Q

What is a discretionary dependency?

A

Usually process-or procedure-driven and may include best-practice techniques. An example is a decision to require sign-off on certain types of activities to conform to an established corporate practice.

164
Q

What are external dependencies?

A

A relationship between a project task and some factor outside the project that drives the scheduling of that task.

165
Q

Once you identify a dependency between two activities, you need to determine what _____________ is so that you can sequence the activities properly.

A

the logical relationship

166
Q

What is a predecessor activity?

A

One that comes before another activity.

167
Q

What is a successor activity?

A

One that comes after the activity in question.

168
Q

Four possible logical relationships can exist between the predecessor activity and the successor activity. What are they?

A

Finish to start, start to finish, finish to finish, start to start

169
Q

What is a finish to start relationship?

A

The successor activity cannot begin until the predecessor activity has completed.

170
Q

What is a start to finish relationship?

A

The predecessor activity must start before the successor activity can finish.

171
Q

What is a finish to finish relationship?

A

The predecessor activity must finish before the successor activity finishes.

172
Q

What is a start to start relationship?

A

The predecessor activity depends on starting before the successive activity can start.

173
Q

What does PDM stand for?

A

Precendence Diagramming Method

174
Q

What does ADM stand for?

A

Arrow Diagramming Method

175
Q

What does CDM stand for?

A

Conditional Diagramming Method

176
Q

During what stage does network diagramming take place?

A

Planning Process Group

177
Q

What does CCM stand for?

A

Critical Chain Method

178
Q

What is activity duration?

A

The process of estimating the time to complete each item on the activity list.

179
Q

What is analogous or top down estimating?

A

The use of actual durations from similar activities on a previous project to determine activity duration estimates.

180
Q

What is parametric estimating?

A

A quantitatively based activity duration estimating method that multiplies the quantity of work by the rate. You must know the productivity rate of the resource performing the task or have a company or industry standard that can be applied to the task in question.

181
Q

What are three-point estimates?

A

An average of the most likely estimate, the optimistic estimate, and the pessimistic estimate for the activity.

182
Q

What is PERT?

A

Program Evaluation and Review Technique used to estimate activity duration.

183
Q

What are the three most common techniques used for developing project schedules?

A

The critical path method, duration compression, and project management software.

184
Q

What is the critical path?

A

The longest full path on the project.

185
Q

In the CPM, what is an early start?

A

The earliest date an activity can begin

186
Q

In CPM, what is an early finish?

A

The earliest date an activity can finish.

187
Q

How are early starts and early finishes determined in CPM?

A

By doing a forward pass on the diagram.

188
Q

How are late finishes and late starts determined in CPM?

A

By doing a backward pass of the diagram.

189
Q

Float time is also known as?

A

Slack time.

190
Q

What is float time?

A

The amount of time the early start of a task may be delayed without delaying the finish date of the project.

191
Q

What is duration compression?

A

The use of techniques such as fast-tracking or crashing to shorten the planned duration of a project or to resolve schedule slippage.

192
Q

What is crashing?

A

This is a schedule compression technique that adds resources to the project to reduce the time it takes to complete the project.

193
Q

What is fast tracking?

A

Performing two tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially.

194
Q

What is the purpose of the project schedule?

A

to determine the start and finish dates for each of the project activities.

195
Q

What are common ways to display the project schedule?

A

Network Diagrams, Milestone Charts, Gantt Charts

196
Q

What is the schedule baseline?

A

The final, approved version of the project schedule that includes the baseline start and finish dates and resource assignments.

197
Q

Once the scope statement and the WBS are developed, your next step in the planning phase is ____________.

A

Determining the resource requirements for the project.

198
Q

What is Communications Planning?

A

the process of identifying what people or groups need to receive information regarding your project, what information each group needs, and how the information will be distributed.

199
Q

During what stage does communications planning occur?

A

Planning Process Group

200
Q

According to PMI, project managers should spend as much as _____ % of their time communicating.

A

90%

201
Q

What is the basic communication model comprised of?

A

Sender, message, and receiver

202
Q

What is the Communications Plan?

A

Defines who needs info on the project, the types of info they need, what format and method should be used to communicate, who is responsible for delivering the communication and when and how often it will occur.

203
Q

What is a stakeholder engagement plan?

A

It identifies which aspects of the project plan to communicate, lists any known or probable benefits or concerns from the stakeholder and determines the key message to convey to each stakeholder.

204
Q

The stakeholder engagement plan is part of what plan?

A

The Communications Plan

205
Q

What is resource planning?

A

the process of determining the resources you’ll need for the project, including human, equipment, and material resources.

206
Q

What are the three types of resources used during projects?

A

Human Resources, Equipment & Materials.

207
Q

Where do you document your resource requirements?

A

In a Resource Requirement Form

208
Q

What is a resource pool description?

A

A listing of all the job titles within a company or department with a brief description of the job. It may also identify the number of people currently employed in each job title.

209
Q

What is a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?

A

A resource chart that defines the WBS identifier, the resource type needed for the WBS element, and the quantity of resources needed for the task. A WBS is displayed in chart form.

210
Q

A ______ is a chart that matches WBS elements with the required resources.

A

Responsibility Assignment Matrix.

211
Q

What is a RACI chart?

A

Another form of a responsibility assignment matrix which identifies the task to be performed, the individual or organization assigned to the task, and what level of responsibility or involvement they have for this task.

212
Q

What does RACI stand for?

A

Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform

213
Q

What is a roles and responsibilities document?

A

lists each group or individual team member on the project and their responsibilities.

214
Q

The roles and responsibilities document is part of what plan?

A

The resource planning phase of the planning group process.

215
Q

What is a project organization chart?

A

it provide a snapshot of who is working on the project, but it also shows the reporting structure.

216
Q

What is the staffing management plan?

A

Documents when and how human resources will be added to and released from the project team and what they will be working on while they are part of the team.

217
Q

What occurs during the staff acquisition process?

A

you’ll choose the team members (or organizations) who will work on the project.

218
Q

What is procurement planning?

A

the process of identifying the goods and services required for your project that will be purchased from outside the organization.

219
Q

The ____________ details the goods or services you want to procure.

A

Statement of Work

220
Q

What are the two components of Human Resources Planning?

A

Organizational Planning amd Staff Acquisitions

221
Q

Analogous estimating is also known as?

A

Top-Down Estimating.

222
Q

Cost estimating occurs during which of the five process groups?

A

Planning Process Group

223
Q

What is the least accurate of all the cost estimating techniques?

A

Top-down estimating.

224
Q

What cost estimating technique is best to use in the beginning planning stages of any project?

A

Top-down estimating.

225
Q

What is bottom-up estimating?

A

It assigns a cost estimate to each work package on the project.

226
Q

What is the most accurate type of cost estimating?

A

Bottom-up estimating.

227
Q

What is work effort?

A

The total time it will take for a person to complete the task if they do nothing else from the time they start until the task is complete.

228
Q

A work effort estimate is also referred to as a ________________.

A

Person-hour estimate.

229
Q

In a bottom-up estimate the total cost of each task is figured by multiplying __________ by ____________.

A

Work Effort by Rate

230
Q

What is the Cost Budgeting Process?

A

The process of aggregating all the cost estimates and establishing a cost baseline for the project.

231
Q

What is the cost baseline?

A

The total expected cost for the project.

232
Q

The __________ is used throughout the remainder of the project to measure the overall cost performance.

A

cost baseline

233
Q

The ____________ is used to track the actual expenses incurred against the estimates.

A

Project Budget

234
Q

Project budgets are usually broken down by specific _______________ that are defined by the accounting department.

A

cost categories

235
Q

Salary, hardware, software, travel, training, and materials are examples of __________________ used in project budgets.

A

specific cost categories

236
Q

What is a contingency reserve?

A

a certain amount of money set aside to cover costs resulting from possible adverse events on the project.

237
Q

A contingency reserve is usually a ____________ of the total project cost.

A

percentage

238
Q

What is a management reserve?

A

An amount set aside by upper management to cover future situations that can’t be predicted.

239
Q

The contingency reserve is usually under the discretion of the _______________, while the management reserve is under the discretion of __________________.

A

project manager, upper management

240
Q

Management reserves (are/are not) part of the project budget or cost baseline.

A

are not

241
Q

All future expenditures and variances will be measured against _____________.

A

the cost baseline

242
Q

What is quality planning?

A

the process of identifying quality standards that are applicable to your project and determining how your project will meet these standards.

243
Q

The four most common quality tools and techniques are?

A

Cost-benefit analysis, benchmarking, flowcharting, and cost of quality

244
Q

What is cost of quality?

A

The total cost of all the work required to assure the project meets the quality standards.

245
Q

The three types of costs associated with quality are?

A

Prevention, Appraisal and Failure.

246
Q

What are prevention costs?

A

The costs of keeping defects out of the hands of the customers.

247
Q

What are appraisal costs?

A

The activities performed to examine the product or process and make certain the quality requirements are being met.

248
Q

What are failure costs?

A

The cost of activities needed if the product fails.

249
Q

What are external failure costs?

A

when the product has reached the customer and they determine it doesn’t meet their requirements.

250
Q

The specific quality techniques you’ll use on the project should be documented in the _______________.

A

Quality management plan.

251
Q

What is the quality management plan?

A

It describes how the project team will carry out the quality policy.

252
Q

When is the quality management plan constructed?

A

During the Planning Process Group.

253
Q

This plan will be the basis for performing quality control when you are in project execution.

A

Quality management plan.

254
Q

What methods are commonly used when measuring whether quality standards have been met?

A

Quality metrics, quality checklists, exit criteria

255
Q

A _________ is a potential future event that can have either negative or positive impacts on the project.

A

risk

256
Q

What is risk planning?

A

Deals with how you manage the areas of uncertainty in your project.

257
Q

What are the three major components of risk planning?

A

identifying the potential risks to your project, analyzing the potential impact of each risk, and developing an appropriate response for those risks with the greatest probability and impact.

258
Q

What is risk identification?

A

the process of determining and documenting the potential risks that could occur on your project.

259
Q

What is risk analysis?

A

the process of identifying those risks that have the greatest possibility of occurring and the greatest impact to the project if they do occur.

260
Q

What is the output from risk identification?

A

A risk list.

261
Q

What two ways can you approach risk analysis?

A

Qualitative or Quantitative.

262
Q

The first step after identifying the risks in the risk list is to determine their _______________ and ___________.

A

probability and impact

263
Q

What is a probability impact matrix?

A

Used to calculate the final risk score for each of the risks on your list.

264
Q

The final risk score on the probability impact matrix is determined by multiplying ___________ by _______________.

A

probability x impact

265
Q

The closer the risk score is to 1.0, the (more likely/less likely) the risk will occur and have a significant impact on the project.

A

more likely

266
Q

The last step in the risk process is _______________.

A

Risk Response Planning.

267
Q

What is risk response planning?

A

The process of reviewing the risk analysis and determining what, if any, action should be taken to reduce negative impacts and take advantage of opportunities as a result of a risk event occurring.

268
Q

What are the strategies for dealing with negative risks?

A

Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept.

269
Q

What are the strategies for dealing with positive risks?

A

Exploit, share, enhance.

270
Q

What is contingency planning in regard to risk response?

A

Involves planning alternatives to deal with risks should they occur.

271
Q

What is a risk register?

A

Includes the risk description, probability, impact, risk score, whether the risk has a response plan and the risk owner.

272
Q

What is a risk owner?

A

Someone responsible for monitoring the risks assigned to them and watching for risk triggers.

273
Q

Use the _____________ to communicate the project risks and action plans to other stakeholders.

A

risk register

274
Q

The _________________________ is the final, approved documented plan that you’ll use throughout the remainder of the project to measure project progress and, ultimately, project success.

A

project management plan

275
Q

When is the project management plan done?

A

During the Planning Process Group

276
Q

The key components of the project management plan include what 8 components?

A

Scope statement, Project schedule, Communications plan, Resource plan, Procurement plan, Project budget, Quality management plan, Risk management plan

277
Q

This completed plan serves as the baseline for project progress.

A

Project Management Plan

278
Q

The completion of the comprehensive project plan signals the transition from the ____________ phase to the ____________ process group.

A

planning, executing

279
Q

What is the transition plan?

A

This plan describes how the transition of the final product or service of the project will be transitioned to the organization.

280
Q

When is the transition plan created?

A

During the Planning Process Group.

281
Q

What is forming?

A

the beginning stage of team formation, when all the members are brought together, introduced, and told the objectives of the project.

282
Q

What is storming?

A

Where the action begins. Team members become confrontational with each other as they’re vying for position and control during this stage.

283
Q

What is norming?

A

Things begin to calm down. Team members know each other fairly well by now. They’re comfortable with their positions in the team, and they begin to deal with project problems instead of people problems.

284
Q

What is performing?

A

This stage is where the team is productive and effective. The level of trust among team members is high, and great things are achieved. This is the mature development stage.

285
Q

What is adjourning?

A

Breaking up the team after the work is completed.

286
Q

During this stage, team members tend to be formal and reserved and take on an “all-business” approach.

A

Forming Stage.

287
Q

What are some common ways of managing conflict between team members?

A

Smoothing, forcing, compromise, confronting, avoiding, negotiating.

288
Q

What is smoothing?

A

a temporary way to resolve conflict; the areas of agreement are emphasized over the areas of difference, so the real issue stays buried.

289
Q

Confronting is also called?

A

Problem solving.

290
Q

Organizational governance includes what components?

A

Standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval.

291
Q

What is phase gate approval?

A

This involves formally reviewing the project at specific points to determine whether the project should proceed.

292
Q

When does phase gate approval occur?

A

Executing Process Group

293
Q

The project plan is put into action and the work of the project is performed during what stage?

A

Executing

294
Q

The ten components of the project plan that you’ll be following during the Executing processes include…

A

Risk register, Communications plan, Issues log, Change management form, Quality management metrics, Project schedule, WBS, Budget, Resource requirements, Scope statement

295
Q

The majority of the project budget is spent during the ____________ processes

A

executing

296
Q

_________________ looks at the overall impact of change and manages updates across all elements of the project plan.

A

Integrated Change Control

297
Q

________________ includes understanding the impact of a scope change, taking appropriate action, and managing a process to review and approve or reject requests for scope changes.

A

Scope Change Control

298
Q

________________ entails determining that a change to the schedule is needed, taking the appropriate action to deal with the schedule change, and updating the schedule based on changes in other areas of the project plan.

A

Schedule Control

299
Q

_______________ implements the risk prevention strategies or contingency plans developed in your risk response plan, monitors the results of preventative actions, and assesses new risks to the project.

A

Risk control

300
Q

What are corrective actions?

A

They bring the work of the project into alignment with the project plan.

301
Q

What are preventive actions?

A

They are implemented to help reduce the probability of a negative risk event.

302
Q

What are defect repairs?

A

Correct or replace components that are substandard or are malfunctioning.

303
Q

________________ are documented procedures that describe how the deliverables of the project are controlled, changed, and approved.

A

Change control systems

304
Q

What is integrated change control?

A

A process that influences the factors that cause change, determines that a change is needed or has happened, and manages and monitors change. All other change control processes are integrated with this process.

305
Q

The change management process includes what components?

A

Change request forms, Change request log, Analysis of the impacts of change, Change control board (CCB), Coordination and communication with appropriate stakeholders, Updating the affected project-planning documents

306
Q

What is a change request log?

A

It includes the date the change request was made, the requestor, the status, disposition and implementation or close date.

307
Q

After the change request is recorded in the tracking log, the next step is __________________.

A

analysis of the change request

308
Q

What are resource changes?

A

Whenever a project team member is added or leaves, it is important to document the reason for the change, the name of the replacement, the person requesting the change, and any impact the change will have on the project.

309
Q

Managing and reporting on the work of the project is the primary focus of the __________________.

A

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

310
Q

What are infrastructure changes?

A

Infrastructure is the element of a project that will remain permanently after the project is completed.

311
Q

What is scope control?

A

involves monitoring the status of the project scope, monitoring changes to the project scope, and monitoring work results to ensure that they match expected outcomes.

312
Q

Any modification to the agreed-upon WBS is considered a ________ change.

A

scope change

313
Q

What is scope verification?

A

Involves stakeholders formally accepting completed deliverables and obtaining sign-off indicating the deliverables are satisfactory and meet stakeholders’ expectations.

314
Q

Verifying ________ is where the acceptance of the work formally occurs.

A

scope

315
Q

What is schedule control?

A

involves determining the status of the project schedule, determining whether changes have occurred or should occur, and influencing and managing schedule changes.

316
Q

Changes to project scope always require changes to the __________.

A

project schedule

317
Q

___________ monitors the project deliverables against the project requirements and the quality baseline to ensure that the project is delivering according to plan.

A

Quality control

318
Q

Quality Control monitors the project ___________ against the project ____________ and the quality baseline to ensure that the project is delivering according to plan.

A

deliverables, requirements

319
Q

___________ monitors the expenses on the project and assures costs stay in alignment with the performance baseline.

A

Cost control

320
Q

What is quality control?

A

The process of reviewing project results and determining whether they comply with the standards documented in the quality management plan and making any appropriate changes to remove the causes of unacceptable quality when the standards are not met.

321
Q

What is inspection?

A

a Quality Control tool that involves examining, measuring, or testing work results to determine whether they conform to the quality standards and plan.

322
Q

Some of the costs associated with inspection include ?

A

rework, labor costs, material costs, and potential loss of customers.

323
Q

What are tolerable results?

A

When measurements fall within a specified range during quality control inspection.

324
Q

What is attribute sampling?

A

A quality control inspection technique which determines whether the results are conforming or nonconforming to the requirements.

325
Q

What is prevention in regard to quality control?

A

Prevention keeps errors from reaching the customers or from occurring in the first place.

326
Q

What is a Pareto diagram?

A

It is used to rank the importance of a problem based on its frequency of occurrence over time.

327
Q

What type of histogram displays the relative importance of defects?

A

Pareto diagram

328
Q

What is a histogram?

A

Abar chart that depicts variables on the horizontal and vertical axes.

329
Q

What are control charts?

A

Masure and display the variance of several samples of the same process over time.

330
Q

What type of technique is commonly used in quality control testing of manufacturing?

A

Control Chart

331
Q

A _______________ is based on a mean, an upper control limit, and a lower control limit.

A

control chart

332
Q

The upper control limit of a control chart is the point beyond which ___________.

A

preventing additional defects becomes cost-prohibitive.

333
Q

The lower level of a control chart is the limit at which the customer or end user will _____________

A

reject the product because of the defects.

334
Q

What is statistical sampling?

A

you gather a subset of all the applicable work results and randomly select a small number for testing or examination. The results for this subset represent the whole.

335
Q

What is trend analysis?

A

a mathematical technique that can be used to predict future defects based on historical results.

336
Q

What are run charts?

A

Used to show variations in the process over time or to show trends (such as improvements or the lack of improvements) in the process.

337
Q

What is an Ishikawa Diagram?

A

It shows the relationship between the effects of problems and their causes.

338
Q

An Ishikawa Diagram is also known as ?

A

A cause-and-effect diagram or a fishbone diagram.

339
Q

What are the most common actions taken as a result of quality activities?

A

Rework, Process Adjustments, and Acceptance

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