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Exotics & Lab Animal Medicine > Common Avian Diagnostics > Flashcards

Common Avian Diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

How are RBCs and WBCs assessed?

A

RBC - PCV, total RBC (manual), morphology

WBC - total WBC, differential, morphology

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2
Q

What WBC do avian species lack compared to reptiles?

A

azurophils

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3
Q

What is abnormal to find within avian RBCs?

A

mitotic figues

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4
Q

What are 2 unique functions of thrombocytes? What do they look like?

A
  1. hemostasis
  2. phagocytosis of bacteria

small, oval, basophilic nucleus with clear cytoplasm (arrowhead)

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5
Q

What cells are seen in this smear?

A

different stages of RBC maturation

  • a = immature, round, chromatin, basophilic nucleus
  • b = polychromatophilic, elliptical, basophilic nucleus
  • c = mature, elliptical, orange cytoplasm, basophilic nucleus
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6
Q

What is occurring in this blood smear? What can cause this?

A

cytoplasmic ballooning

lead poisoning (may also see basophilic stippling)

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7
Q

What is occurring in this blood smear? What can cause this?

A

hypochromic RBC with abnormal nuclei

zinc/lead poisoning

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8
Q

What is occurring in this blood smear? What can cause this?

A

Heinz body formation

petroleum toxicosis

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9
Q

What is considered anemic in birds? What indicates regeneration? What are 3 causes?

A

PCV < 35%

increased polychromasia and presence of reticulocytes/immature RBCs (usually <5% are polychromatic)

  1. loss - trauma, hemoparasites
  2. destruction - sepsis, hemoparasites
  3. decreased production - drug reaction, decreased EPO
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10
Q

What are the 2 types of polycythemia?

A
  1. primary - myeloproliferative disorder
  2. secondary (PCV > 70%) - chronic pulmonary disease, cardiac insufficiency, increased EPO associated with renal disease, dehydration (temporary)
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11
Q

What are toxic heterophils? What are 4 characteristics?

A

active heterophils in response to systemic illness

  1. basophilic cytoplasm
  2. abnormal granules
  3. degranulation
  4. vacuoles
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12
Q

What are 3 characteristics of lymphocytes?

A
  1. basophilic cytoplasm
  2. scalloped edges
  3. enlarged

(may look like monocytes!)

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13
Q

What are causes of leukocytosis and leukopenia? What is the best way to interpret on blood work?

A
  • LEUKOCYTOSIS = infection/inflammation (chronic Aspergillosis, Chlamydia, or Tuberculosis), neoplasia, stress
  • LEUKOPENIA = infection, immune dysfunction

leukogram trends, H:L ratio

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14
Q

What is the normal color of avian plasma? What are 3 common color changes?

A

clear

  1. GREEN = biliverdinemia - hepatic or renal failure
  2. YELLOW = lipemic - normal in hatchlings, post prandial in carnivorous birds, and reproductive females, or hepatic disease
  3. RED = hemolysis (artifact if PCV is normal)
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15
Q

When is lipemic plasma abnormal at all times?

A

in non-carnivorous birds

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16
Q

What are the 2 most helpful liver parameters used for avian biochemistry?

A
  1. AST - non-specific, elevated with vitamin E/selenium def, hepatocellular damage, toxins, presticides, or muscle damage
  2. bile acids - MOST RELIABLE, may not be raised with acute insult, 2 high readings indicate liver biopsy
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17
Q

What can cause false increase in bile acids? When are they most commonly low?

A

lipemia, hemolysis

cirrhosis

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18
Q

What 5 other liver enzymes can be helpful for avian biochemistry?1

A
  1. ALT - liver, muscle, kidneys; non-specific!
  2. ALP - liver, kidneys, intestines, bone; non-specific!
  3. GGT - biliary, renal epithelium; hepatic neoplasia (biliary carcinoma), cholestasis
  4. LDH - liver, kidneys, muscle
  5. GDH - elevated with severe liver disease
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19
Q

How is uric acid used for interpreting bloodwork in birds? What causes and increase and decrease?

A

produced in the liver and filtered by the kidneys (assessed renal function

  • INCREASE - dehydration, acute renal failure, postprandial (carnivore > herbivore), may result in gout!
  • DECREASE - hepatic disease
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20
Q

What is the most indicative of renal disease in birds?

A

elevated UA in at least two consecutive samples on a well hydrates and fasted bird

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21
Q

What are the most common causes of hyper/hyponatremia?

A

HYPERNATREMIA - increased intake, dehydration

HYPONATREMIA - renal disease, GI loss, end-stage liver disease, CHF, endocrine disease

(Na = major extracellular cation ingested in the diet and excreted by kidneys)

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22
Q

What are the most common causes of hyper/hypokalemia?

A

HYPERKALEMIA - increased intake, renal disease, severe tissue damage, adrenal disease, acidosis, dehydration, hemolytic anemia

HYPOKALEMIA - reduced intake, GI or renal loss

(K = major intracellular cation ingested in the diet and excreted by kidneys)

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23
Q

What are the major causes of hyper/hypochloremia?

A

HYPERCHLOREMIA - severe dehydration, excessive dietary salt intake

HYPOCHLOREIA - prolonged regurgitation/vomiting, DI disease, edema, CHF, excessive urinary loss, metabolic alkalosis

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24
Q

What are the major causes of hyper/hypophosphatemia

A

HYPERPHOSPHATEMIA - severe renal disease, nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism, hypervitaminosis D, excessive intake, normal in young animals

HYPOPHOSPHATEMIA - anorexia, hypovitaminosis D, malabsorption, long-term glucocorticoids

(P = related to Ca levels, eliminated by kidneys)

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25
Q

How is total calcium calculated? What are levels interpreted with?

A

tCa = iCa (active, varies depending on sample, storage, and pH) + protein bound Ca, chelated Ca

albumin and protein

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26
Q

What are 6 causes of hypercalcemia?

A
  1. excessive vitamin D3 supplementation
  2. pre-egg laying (polyostotoic hyperostosis)
  3. osteolytic bone disease
  4. primary/secondary hyperparathyroidism
  5. neoplasia
  6. granulomatous disease
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27
Q

What are 6 causes of hypocalcemia?

A
  1. alkalosis
  2. malabsorption
  3. pancreatitis
  4. chronic egg laying
  5. renal failure
  6. nutritional
28
Q

What are the most common causes of elevated amylase? CK?

A

AMYLASE - acute pancreatitis, neuropathic gastric dilatation, severe enteritis

CK - traumatic venipuncture or muscle trauma/pathology

29
Q

What are the most common causes of hyper/hypoglycemia?

A

HYPERGLYCEMIA - post-prandial, excitement/stress, corticosteroid therapy, pancreatitis, DM (rare in birds)

HYPOGLYCEMIA - anorexia, malnutrition, severe hepatic disease, septicemia

30
Q

What makes up total protein?

A

ALB + GLOB + fibrinogen fractions

  • compare ALP to GLOB
31
Q

What causes increased/decreased ALB?

A

INCREASED = dehydration, normal in reproductively active females

DECREASED = reduced amino acid intake, reduced production, increased GI/renal loss, burns, chronic infection, hepatic disease

(produced in the liver, responsible for colloidal oncotic pressure)

32
Q

What are the most common causes of hyper/hypoglobulinemia?

A

HYPER - inflammation

HYPO - rare!

(responsible for immunity, can calculated, commonly combined with protein electrophoresis for a more detailed diagnosis)

33
Q

What are the most common causes of increased alpha beta, and gamma inflammatory proteins?

A

ALPHA - systemic inflammation, malnutrition, renal disease

BETA - chronic liver/renal disease, chronic inflammatory disease (Aspergillosis, Chlamydia), egg production

GAMMA - monoclonal = egg laying hands, lymphoid/plasma cell neoplasia

34
Q

What are the most common causes of decreased alpha and beta inflammatory proteins?

A
  • hepatic insufficiency
  • starvation
  • blood loss
  • protein loss
35
Q

What types of inflammation are associated with alpha, beta and gamma proteins?

A

ALPHA + BETA = acute, severer inflammation/infection

BETA + GAMMA = chronic, acitve inflammation/infection

ALPHA + BETA + GAMMA = severe, chronic/active or acute severe inflammation/infection

36
Q

What are pathopneumonic changes of blood work in egg-laying females?

A
  • 1.5-2x inflammatory protein increase
  • increased iCa
37
Q

When is cytology an especially helpful diagnostic in avian species?

A

GI disease

  • oral swab for Trichomonas spp
  • crop wash for Candidal albicans
38
Q

What is commonly required for the proper diagnostic views on avian radiographs?

A

brief anesthesia or sedation

  • commonly use gas anesthesia
39
Q

What 2 contrasts are commonly used for avian radiography?

A
  1. PO barium - highlights GIT (SI by 30-60 mins, LI by 60-120 mins, faster in raptors)
  2. IV iodine - urophragy or angiography
40
Q

What fractures are most common in avian pets and raptors?

A

PETS = tibiotarsal

RAPOTRS = coracoid (+/- other girdle bones)

41
Q

Fractured coracoid:

A

slight displacement appreciated

  • typically highlighted by a 45 degree craniocaudal/DV view
42
Q

What 3 disease processes are diagnosed on radiographs?

A
  1. metabolic bone disease - check long bones, like tibiotarsus
  2. polyostotic hyperostosis
  3. (septic) arthritis
43
Q

In what birds is polyostotic hyperostosis most common? How does it appear on radiographs?

A

ovulating females

increased opacity of medulla in pelvic > thoracic limbs due to calcium deposition

44
Q

How does septic arthritis appear on radiographs?

A
  • enlarged joint space
  • proximal/distal soft tissue swelling
  • lysis of articular bones
45
Q

What makes interpreting the coelomic cavity of birds difficult? What structures are labeled?

A

no diaphragm = increased summation

  1. lung
  2. heart
  3. liver
  4. gizzard - gravel within is normal
  5. intestines
  6. glandular stomach (proventriculus)
  7. spleen
  8. kidney
  9. gonad
46
Q

What structures are highlighted in this radiograph?

A
  1. lungs
  2. heart
  3. liver
  4. ventriculus - L pelvic acetabulum
  5. intestines
    (radiolucency = air sacs)

liver + heart - cardiohepatic silhouette interpreted together

47
Q

What position is preferred for evaluating dorsal lung fields? How does it normally appear?

A

lateral

honeycomb - loss = infiltrative disease (pneumonia)

48
Q

How does the trachea compare in different species? What location is of clinical importance?

A

length varies

SYRINX - found at tracheal bifurcation, male waterfowl have an osseous bulla for sound resonance

49
Q

How are air sacs best appreciated on radiographs? How do they appear?

A

DV - lateral to cardiohepatic silhouette

thin-walled and empty

50
Q

What is occurring in this radiograph?

A

complete soft tissue opacity within coelom —> cannot see air sacs, likely air sacculitits

51
Q

What is occurring in these radiographs?

A

thickened air sac walls = air sacculitis —> Aspergillosis

52
Q

What is unique about radiographs in pelicans?

A

have natural SQ emphysema

  • may be indicative of air sac rupture in other birds
53
Q

Where is the avian heart located in the coelomic cavity during radiographs?

A

cranial coelomic cavity

54
Q

How is the avian heart assessed on radiographs?

A

VD - hourglass shape of the cardiohepatic silhouette

  • caudal masses will push GIT cranially, altering the cardiohepatic silhouette
55
Q

Cardiomegaly:

A

less defined cardiohepatic silhouette - more of a rectangle compared to the normal hourglass

56
Q

What other part of the cardiovascular system can be appreciated on radiographs?

A

great vessels - atherosclerosis common in birds fed high fat diet with a sedentary lifestyle

57
Q

How is the crop most commonly appreciated on radiographs?

A

with contrast - can identify food material and FB

  • not present in all species
58
Q

Where is the proventriculus found on radiographs?

A
  • LATERAL = dorsal to the heart
  • VD = left side of the hepatic portion of the cardiohepatic silhouette
59
Q

Where is the ventriculus found on radiographs?

A

left of midline at the level of the acetabulum on VD

  • normally contains grit (bone opacity)
  • asses for FB
60
Q

Proventriculus, radiograph:

A

contains normal amount of grit

61
Q

What is required to assess other parts of the avian GIT?

A

contrast —> intestines, cecum, cloaca

  • highly superimposed and not well-highlighted
62
Q

What is the normal size of the cardiohepatic silhouette?

A

should fit between borders of the scapulae

63
Q

When is the avian spleen most commonly seen? How does it appear?

A

splenomegaly associated with certain disease processes —> Chlamydia

round soft tissue opacity cranial to the femur just above the proventriculus

64
Q

Where are kidneys and gonads found on radiographs?

A

KIDNEYS = ventral to the spine with the cranial subdivision cranial to the acetabulum, surrounded by gas opacity (can be mineralized with gout)

GONADS = not always visible, cranioventral to the cranial division of the kidney

65
Q

Is ultrasound commonly used as a diagnostic in avian species?

A

not typically - birds have a lot of air within their body, which does not show well

Exotics & Lab Animal Medicine (20 decks)

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