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Texas Pesticide Applicator > Commercial Pest Control Category > Flashcards

Commercial Pest Control Category Flashcards

1
Q

If you observe a medium to large sized, glossy dark brown to black cockroach with wings shorter than the abdomen, it is the

A

Oriental Cockroach

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2
Q

Insects that damage stored food by chewing in both the immature and adult stages are:

A

Flour beetle

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3
Q

Of these, which is the adult insect that has wings and can fly? Confused flour beetle; Granary weevil; Indian meal moth; Slilverfish

A

Indian meal moth

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4
Q

Which of these is described here? Confused flour beetle; Red flour beetle; drugstore beetle; lesser grain beetle
The beetle that is elongated, flat, shiny reddish brown, about 1/8 inch long, can fly, and has the last three antennal segments enlarged abruptly into a club is the:

A

Red flour beetle

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5
Q

Insects with complete metamorphosis go through 4 life stages, which are:

A

egg, larvae, pupae, adult

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6
Q

Infested flour shows large amounts of webbing with larvae actively feeding. Small, reddish-gray moths are the adult form. Larvae are not spotted. The insect is:

A

Indian meal moth

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7
Q

Ground beetles prey on:

A

Other insects

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8
Q

When considering pest management of house flies and related species of flies, consider chemical control only after you have established a sound program including:

A

Sanitation and Exclusion

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9
Q

German cockroaches and Asian cockroaches can be distinguished from one another by:

A

habitat and flight

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10
Q

True or False: The granary weevil attacks grain before harvest and storage.

A

True

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11
Q

True or False: The larvae of the Angoumois grain moth feed or flour.

A

False

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12
Q

True or False: Smoky brown cockroaches prefer an outside habitat but move indoors during seasonal migration and adverse weather conditions.

A

True

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13
Q

True or False: The larval stage of a fly is called a maggot.

A

True

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14
Q

True or False: The larvae of the House fly develop in animal waste or rotting fruits and vegetables.

A

True

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15
Q

True or False: Dermestid beetles can attack and destroy pantry materials, such as grain and flour, as well as on woolens, furs, and feathers.

A

True

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16
Q

True or False: Control of fleas on pets should be left to the owner or veterinarian.

A

True

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17
Q

The life cycle of a tick involves four distinct stages:

A

Egg, larvae, nymph, adult

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18
Q

True or False: The three species of lice that attack people are head lice, body lice, and crab lice.

A

True

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19
Q

True or False: Earwigs have a distinctive pincer-like structure on the end of the abdomen.

A

True

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20
Q

Centipedes have two pair of legs per body segment, while millipedes have one pairs of legs per body segment.

A

False

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21
Q

Ants belong to insect family?

A

Formicidae

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22
Q

Control of ants is accomplished through:

A

Application of insecticides to areas where ants gain entry to the house (weep holes, doorways, baseboards, etc.); Treating the nest and surrounding area directly; Use of baits

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23
Q

Which cricket species are considered a pest of golf courses due to their tunneling and feeding behavior?

A

Mole cricket

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24
Q

Which species of lice lives primarily in the clothing of its human host except when feeding?

A

Body lice

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25
Q

Which arthropods are pests of human or animals and can negatively affect their well-being through their feeding behavior and ability to transmit various diseases?

A

lice; fleas; ticks; mites; kissing bugs

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26
Q

The family to which mosquitoes belong is:

A

Culicidae

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27
Q

The following stages of a mosquito’s life cycle are considered to be aquatic:

A

egg, larva, pupa,

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28
Q

True or False: Both male and female mosquitoes are blood feeders in the adult stage.

A

False

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29
Q

The egg-laying and larval development sites of this species of standing water-breeding mosquito species are typically transient pools of standing water fouled with human and/or animal waste such as septic water.

A

Culex quinquefasciatus

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30
Q

A species of mosquito most commonly found associated with bodies of standing water that are more permanent in nature such as ponds or lakes and that contain much surface vegetation is:

A

Anopheles quadrimaculatus

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31
Q

These species of floodwater mosquitoes lay their eggs singly on mud in land surface depressions which are flooded periodically by brackish water or by water high in sulphate content such as occurs in the coastal marshlands of Texas:

A

Aedes sollicitans, Aedes taeniorhynchus

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32
Q

In the United States, this species of floodwater mosquito oviposits almost exclusively in artificial containers such as discarded tires, tin cans and flower pots:

A

Aedes aegypti

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33
Q

The historical vector for malaria was of the Rocky Mountains is:

A

Anopheles quadrimaculatus

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34
Q

What are 3 diseases associated with the most common mosquito vectors in the U.S.

A
  • Western equine encephalitis: Culex tarsalis
  • Malaria: anopheles quadrimaculatus
  • Dengue: Aedes aegypti
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35
Q

What are some true statements about mosquito surveys

A
  • Surveys point out problem areas
  • Surveys provide data for evaluating control effectiveness
  • Surveys should include collections of all stages of a mosquito’s life cycle when and wherever possible
  • Surveys give an index of mosquito populations size, but usually not absolute numbers of mosquitoes present at any given point in time
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36
Q

Oviposition traps are particularly useful for assessing the population density of such container and/or tree-hole breeding flood water mosquito species as:

A

Aedes aegypti; Aedes albopictus

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37
Q

Skimming the water surface with a sampling dipper is a good way to collect the larvae of:

A

Anopheles species

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38
Q

To be effective, integrated mosquito management (IMM) programs should include:

A
  • Accurate and complete assessments of the mosquito problems to be dealt with
  • Continual surveillance
  • Multiple control measures
  • Continual program evaluation and modification when and where necessary
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39
Q

What are some ways to control immature mosquitoes?

A
  • Citizens can help reduce local mosquito problems by removing and properly disposing of all artificial containers from their premises.
  • Naturally occurring predators, parasites and/or microbial disease-causing agents make important contributions to the control of mosquitos in their immature stages.
  • Propriety surface oils and molecular surface films offer control of the larval stages of mosquito species belonging to the genera Mansonia.
40
Q

True or False: It is advisable to use the same chemical insecticide to control populations of mosquitoes in their immature stages is being used to control the same populations in their adult stages.

A

False

41
Q

Name factors when the goal is to control adult mosquitoes in their adult stages.

A

Landscaping and lighting can help manage certain problems associated with adult populations of mosquitoes.

42
Q

List some facts about the ULV approach to applying insecticides against adult mosquito populations?

A
  • ULV stands for Ultra Low Volume
  • ULV rates for adult mosquito control usually range between .5 to 3 oz of active ingredients per acre.
  • ULV dispensing equipment mist be calibrated to produce a required droplet size as specified on the label of the insecticide formulation being used.
43
Q

True or False: Space spraying for adult mosquitoes - whether thermal fogging, ULV cold fogging, misting or dusting - does not provide a permanent solution to a local adult mosquito problem.

A

True

44
Q

Which mosquito species is the primary vector of St. Louis encephalitis and West Nile virus in Texas?

A

Culex quinquefasciatus

45
Q

What does the incorporation of an insecticide resistance monitoring program provide a mosquito control agency?

A
  • Provides an early warning system to detect initial development of insecticide resistance in the mosquito population.
  • Determing the effectiveness of chemical mosquito control being practiced
  • Provides data to make informed adjustments to the chemical control program to ensure the success of the operational program.
46
Q

True or False: Calendar spraying is an effective way to prevent the development of insecticide resistance in the mosquito population.

A

False

47
Q

What are the distinctive characteristics that separate mosquitoes from other flies?

A
  • long, many segmented antennae
  • Piercing-sucking mouthparts
  • Scales on the wing veins and margins
48
Q

True or False: The larval stage of the mosquito life cycle are commonly called “tumblers”.

A

True

49
Q

This adult mosquito trap is the most commonly used trap for disease surveillance in Texas because of its effectiveness in catching the primary disease vectoring mosquito, culex quinquefasciatus.

A

Gravid Trap

50
Q

True or False: Insecticide resistance in the target mosquito population can result in ineffective control and/or complete operational failure.

A

True

51
Q

Before you can control rodents, it is important to:

A

Identify the rodent species correctly

52
Q

True or False: Vision in rodents appears to be highly developed along with the ability to differentiate between colors.

A

False

53
Q

Excluding rodents from buildings is very important. To prevent entry, there should be no openings larger than:

A

1/4 inch

54
Q

You have found rodent droppings with blunt ends that are about 3/4 inch long. They are probably from a:

A

Norway rat

55
Q

Plague is caused by bacteria spread from rats to people by:

A

Fleas

56
Q

The roof rat’s tail is:

A

Longer than its head and body

57
Q

A characteristic that contributes to high rat and/or mouse populations is:

A

High reproductive potential

58
Q

Anticoagulants are poisons that:

A

slow the clotting of blood

59
Q

An advantage of anticoagulant bait over acute single dose bait is:

A
  • rat shyness rarely develops when a good-quality bait is used
  • an effective antidote is available
  • They pose fewer hazards to non-target species
60
Q

Rodent infestation signs include:

A
  • Urine
  • Fecal droppings
  • Gnaw marks
61
Q

Rodent pest management includes the following steps:

A
  • Rodent proofing
  • trapping and baiting
  • proper sanitation
62
Q

The three commensal rodents may be distinguished from native rodents by:

A

Their tails

63
Q

The following senses are well developed in commensal rodents:

A

touch, smell, hearing, balance

64
Q

True or False: Planning rodent control work is relatively easy, since rodents are active day or night and are not secretive:

A

False

65
Q

True or False: Commensal rodents are responsible for many diseases affecting people, livestock, poultry, and pets:

A

True

66
Q

True or False: Commercial black lights are often used to detect the presence of commensal rodents because dried rodent urine will fluoresce bluish white to yellowish white under UV light:

A

True

67
Q

Mice, unlike rats, are known to:

A
  • be inquisitive and explore their environment

- Investigate a newly placed trap

68
Q

Rodenticides can be anticoagulants and non-anticoagulants. Examples of non-anticoagulants are:

A

Bromethalin, Cholecalciferol, and Zinc Phosphide

69
Q

True or False: Non-anticoagulants do not have a readily available and effective antidote.

A

True

70
Q

The advantages of rodent trapping rather than baiting with rodenticides.

A
  • No poisoning of non-target species
  • Capable of killing rodents quickly after they enter a building
  • Removal of dead carcasses without danger of dead rodents in walls or attic
71
Q

Which 3 birds are commonly considered to be pests?

A
  • House sparrows
  • Pigeons
  • Blackbirds
72
Q

Bats are considered:

A
  • hazardous because some carry rabies
  • Beneficial because they eat insects
  • hazardous because they can transmit histoplasmosis
73
Q

True or False: One of the best ways to alleviate bird problems in and around buildings is to deprive them of food, water, and shelter:

A

True

74
Q

True or False: Grackles, starlings, and blackbirds that are causing damage or creating a nuisance are not protected by either state or federal law and may be taken at any time.

A

True

75
Q

When birds are removed in a pest management program:

A
  • Ectoparasites such as mites or bed bugs, made homeless when birds are removed, may migrate into areas where people live and work.
  • Insecticide ar acaracide treatments to the old
76
Q

True or False: People working in bat roosts should always wear respirators and other protective clothing.

A

True

77
Q

The best strategies for mammalian pest control are:

A
  • Exclusion
  • Repellents
  • trapping
78
Q

Successful bat proofing includes:

A
  • Observing all entry and exit points being used by bats
  • Closing all openings bats are using to gain entry, with screen wire or sheet metal
  • Utilizing funnels and other excluder measures that allow bats to exit, and not re-enter the structure
79
Q

True or False: The best permanent bat control is bat proofing.

A

True

80
Q

True or False: If avicides are used in a bird management program, dead birds should be collected and disposed of immediately.

A

True

81
Q

Good practice and most labels call for using 1 gallon of fogging compound per:

A

50,000 cubic feet

82
Q

Ultra Low Dosage (ULD) involves the use of higher than normal concentrations and:

A

Lower than normal application rates

83
Q

True or False: In an effort to clean a nozzle tip, inserting a straight pin or other sharp, metal wire into the end of it can mar the machined orifice, distorting the spray pattern.

A

True

84
Q

The strainer assembly of any compressed air sprayer is important because:

A
  • It filters out particles that would clog nozzle tips

- It filters out particles that would interfere with shutoff closure

85
Q

The knapsack sprayer is a good choice for pesticide application because:

A
  • The larger volume of spray can be advantageous
  • They are easier to carry when walking is difficult
  • they are better suited for spraying a solid stream for some distance
86
Q

Power sprayers:

A
  • Can deliver high volumes of spray material
  • Can deliver spray material at high pressure
  • Are typically transported by vehicle because of their size and weight
87
Q

True or False: When using dusters, there is no need to clean screens and all other small openings to ensure they do not get clogged.

A

False

88
Q

True or False: Any insecticide used to fill a space must first be broken down into fine particles or droplets to allow their suspension in air.

A

True

89
Q

In a rodent control program, pre-baiting (application of various foods and attractants that are unpoisoned, or without setting the trap):

A
  • Can overcome the shyness and neophobia of strange or new traps.
  • Helps determine which foods are most readily accepted by rodent populations.
  • Helps determine the location of foraging rodents
90
Q

True or False: In a rodent control program, bait stations are not necessary in order to protect against accidental poisoning of people or domestic animals.

A

False

91
Q

The principles of integrated pest management (IPM) are:

A
  • Identification of the pest problems
  • Develop an appropriate treatment program
  • implement the treatment program
  • Evaluate the program and modify as needed
92
Q

True or False: Under Reduced Impact Pest Control Service guidelines, pest control specialists do not need to perform an inspection before beginning treatment.

A

False

93
Q

True or False: Businesses designated as Reduced Impact Pest Control Services (RIS) seek to control pests effectively and to satisfy customers while minimizing an individual’s exposure to chemical pesticides.

A

True

94
Q

The customer contract of a RIS program:

A
  • Must authorize the proposed treatment in writing
  • Must include specific pesticides that are not to be used or include a statement that no pesticides are to be used in providing the service.
  • Must contain information regarding the proposed treatment before service is initiated, and must be kept in the pest control use records.
95
Q

True or False: A copy of the written inspection report does not need to be provided a the time of each pest control service.

A

False

Texas Pesticide Applicator (3 decks)

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