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Explosive Breaching > Combo of all Chapters (Minus Math and Diagrams) > Flashcards

Combo of all Chapters (Minus Math and Diagrams) Flashcards

1
Q

List 6 methods of tactical breaching described in the manual.

A 
Manual 
Mechanical
Ballistic
Thermal
Explosive
Surreptitious
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2
Q

Define Tactical Breaching and how it applies to the use of explosives:

A

Using the minimum amount of force necessary in order to achieve effective penetration into the selected objective.

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a policy guideline for regulation of a Breacher Team?

A) Written Mission Statement

B) Written Description of standards outlining team guidelines for “qualifications” and “re qualifications.”

C) Written guideline identifying / justifying essential equipment and supplies required to maintain proficiency.

D) Written Protocol for evaluating that the team’s capabilities are following current trends and contemporary standards.

E) All are coorect

A

E) All are coorect

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT administrative duties of the breacher?

A) Familiarize, maintain and properly use tools, explosives, and equipment related to breaching operations.

B) Be prepared to brief command staff and other officials as to the concepts of the explosive breaching as well as the procedures and capabilities of the team.

C) Aggressively build load data and maintain contemporary standards.

D) Train additional personnel to become explosive breachers.

E) All of the above.

A

D) Train additional personnel to become explosive breachers.

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5
Q

Define what an explosive is…

A

A substance that, through chemical reaction, rapidly and violently changes to gas, accompanied by high temperatures, extreme over-pressure, shock and loud noise.

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6
Q

List two categories in which explosives are classified…

A
  1. High

2. Low

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7
Q

According to the manual, what speed distinguishes between “burning” and “detonation” ?

A 
Speed of sound through the material. 
Sub Sonic (Low)
Super Sonic (High)
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8
Q

What are the three rates of combustion?

A
  1. Ordinary
  2. Deflagration
  3. Detonation
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9
Q

Of the the three types of explosions, which applies to explosive breaching?

A

Chemical

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10
Q

What three physical effects are produced as a result of the combustion process?

A
  1. Heat
  2. Light
  3. Release of Gas
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11
Q

Define an oxidizer and it’s relationship with explosive compounds…

A
  • Chemical that decompose during the chemical reaction creating oxygen.

(A Chemical explosion requires enough oxygen to initiate and maintain instantaneous combustion. Adequate supply cannot be drawn from air, so a source must be incorporated into the chemical makeup.)

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12
Q

What is generally required for a low explosive to detonate?

A

Confinement of the explosion and initiation.

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13
Q

What is generally required for a high explosive to detonate?

A

Shockwave of considerable force.

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14
Q

What type of work effect is associated with low explosives?

A

They have pushing or heaving power.

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15
Q

What type of work effect is associated with high explosives?

A

They have shattering power

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16
Q

List three work effects achieved when utilizing explosives for breaching operations…

A
  1. Blast
  2. Cut
  3. Push
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17
Q

What is high order detonation?

A

A complete detonation of the explosive at it’s highest possible velocity.

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18
Q

What is low order detonation?

A

It is either an incomplete detonation of the explosive or a complete detonation of the explosive at a lower than maximum velocity.

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19
Q

What five factors can cause low order detonation?

A
  1. Detonator of inadequate power
  2. Deterioration of the explosive.
  3. Poor Contact between the detonator and explosive.
  4. Lack of continuity in the explosives (airspace).
  5. Critical diameter less than required.
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20
Q

Define “Tamping” (as it applies to explosives) and explain its application to tactical explosive breaching…

A

A method of increasing efficiency of a charge by focusing the pressure in the direction of the breach point without increasing the N.E.W.

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21
Q

Explain what is meant by “Reflective Pressure” and how it relates to explosive breaching…

A

Created when incident overpressure waves are reflected off solid surfaces. The incident overpressure wave bounces off these surfaces and creates reflective overpressure waves. The pressure behind the incident overpressure wave by minimum of double the pressure wave.

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22
Q

Give an example of how the “Diffracted Loading” process may affect the entry team stack…

A

As a leading edge of the pressure wave strikes the object, a portion is reflected from the front of the surface as the remainder diffracts around the object.

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23
Q

Explain the definition of an Explosive Train…

A

A series of chemical reactions arranged to achieve a desired end result.

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24
Q

A license to conduct blasting operations in the State of California is issue by…

A

Cal Osha

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25
Q

List two factors which determine damage and casualties from over pressure.

A
  1. Amount of Explosives

2. Separation Distance

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26
Q

What manual is a source for determining damage to various structures for different PSI values?

A

Navy EODB

Army TM

Air Force 60a 1-1-4

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27
Q

Explain the purpose of plotting various PSI distances on graph paper prior to deploying a charge.

A

To accurately plot the various pressure valve distances from the detonation point ranging from 10psi to .5psi

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28
Q

List four factors that determines a person’s ability to withstand exposure to blast pressure.

A
  1. Duration of the overpressure exposure.
  2. The valve of the psi and distance from detonation point.
  3. The position of the person in relation to the blast overpressure wave (standing vs. prone).
  4. Age / Health
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29
Q

Which of the following are LEAST susceptible to injury from a pressure wave?

  1. Ears
  2. Lungs
  3. Upper Respiratory Tract
  4. Muscular Skeletal
  5. Sinuses
A
  1. Muscular Skeletal
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30
Q

Whenever conflicts between Federal, State and / or local explosives regulations are encountered, which jurisdiction or agency authority must be adhered to?

A

The most stringent.

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31
Q

What PSI value has been determined to be the maximum a team with appropriate safety equipment should be exposed to?

A

4psi

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32
Q

One advantage of explosive breaching over manual entry tools is that it is usually unnecessary to identify or plan alternate breach points. (T or F?)

A

False

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33
Q

What ordinance item can be mistaken for detonation cord?

A

Time fuse (time delay fuse)

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34
Q

Which of the following are the responsibility of the breacher during mission planning and preparation?

A) Analyze all info to determine breach points and methods required.

B) Preparation of required tools and charges.

C) Preparation of Operation Briefing documentation

D) All of the Above

E) Both A and C

A

D) All of the Above

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35
Q

Which individuals are responsible for developing a breaching plan prior to an operation?

A

Tactical Team Leader & Primary Breacher

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36
Q

How often must public safety agencies inspect their magazines for unlawful or attempted entry or theft; and under what section(s) is this required?

A

7 days

ATF P 5400.7

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37
Q

What three items of information (at a minimum) must be submitted to the local fire protection agency regarding explosive materials stored in their jurisdiction?

A
  1. Permit to types of explosives
  2. Magazine Inventory
  3. Magazine Location
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38
Q

Which type of magazine is authorized for temporary storage of explosives while attended?

A

Type 3 magazine with proper locks (Day Box)

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39
Q

Explosive Breaching charges constructed by Law Enforcement are classified as “Destructive Devices” and regulated by ATF? (T or F?)

A

False

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40
Q

Material Safety Data Sheet requirements on explosive materials in an Agency’s possession are regulated by…

A

OSHA

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41
Q

In the event of a blasting accident or unusual incident which may affect the safety of workers, a report of the incident must be forwarded to…

A

Cal-OSHA

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42
Q

List the three basic effects of an explosion…

A
  1. Blast pressure effect / incident overpressure.
  2. Fragmentation effect
  3. Incendiary Thermal effect.
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43
Q

What is meant by “sensitivity of an explosive” and the two groups in which explosives are classified relative to their sensitivity?

A

Amount of external force or effort needed to cause a detonation or can be induced to react chemically.

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
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44
Q

What are four types of ancillary (secondary) effects from an explosion?

A
  1. Reflected Overpressure
  2. Diffracted Loading
  3. Ground, Earth, Water shock and tamping effect
  4. Fumes
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45
Q

List examples of primary and secondary hazards of explosives…

A

Primary: Blast Overpressure, Fragmentation, Incendiary Heat.

Secondary: Fire, Structure Damage, Light, Smoke.

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46
Q

What calculation is used for determining the distance of PSI value from detonation point?

A

D=K(Cube Root of TNT N.E.W.)

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47
Q

Explain the proper procedures for cleaning magazine floors from leakage stains of explosive material

A

Clean in accordance with manufacturers instructions.

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48
Q

If the magazine placement is unacceptably limited by the presence of roads, occupied buildings, adjacent magazines or other factors; what steps can be taken to alleviate this?

A

Reduce H.E. in magazine, barricade, re-locate, or bury / excavate.

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49
Q

What ATF document details compliance procedures for storage of explosives?

A

ATF P5400.7

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50
Q

During normal business hours, ATF has the authority to conduct warrant-less inspections of ANY explosive magazine, inventory and records pertaining to explosives. (T or F)

A

False

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51
Q

Law enforcement explosive handlers are currently required to possess a permit to use explosives by Federal Law (T or F)

A

False

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52
Q

What are the Federal Guidelines for the storage of shock tube?

A

May be stored as a high or low explosive, when detonator is not attached to shock tube.

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53
Q

“ECT” is an appropriate explosive for breaching operations due to its high fragmentation hazard (T or F)

A

False

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54
Q

Explosives that are deteriorated or damaged are still useable? (T or F)

A

False

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55
Q

Why shouldn’t packaging of explosives be burned in a stove, fireplace, or other confined space?

A

The explosives (residue) could detonate / cause poisonous fumes / cause accidents.

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56
Q

Under what conditions should personnel attempt to fight fire after the fore comes in contact with stored explosives?

A

Never

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57
Q

Smoking around explosives and explosive transports are permitted if the smokers are careful (T or F)

A

False

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58
Q

ATF regulations provide an allowance for public safety explosive teams to store explosives overnight within unattended “official response” vehicles. (T or F)

A

True

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59
Q

Blasting caps and detonators can be in the same box or magazine with other explosives. (T or F)

A

False

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60
Q

The area surrounding an outside explosives magazine shall be kept clear of brush, dried leaves and grass and other combustible materials for a distance of _____.

A

50 ft

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61
Q

What could occur if a detonator / blasting cap is tampered with, cut open or roughly handled?

A

It could detonate.

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62
Q

To minimize injury should a detonation occur while handling, how should a blasting cap be held?

A

Away from the body

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63
Q

Define a “medium” and its use in breaching charge construction.

A

The ability to withstand detonation without disintegration and maintain its form to penetrate the objective. (Non compressible / HGH density material to create push effect)

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64
Q

Preparations of initiators should be performed at what minimum safe distance from other detonators / blasting caps and explosives?

A

25 ft

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65
Q

List five characteristics of explosives used for breaching…

A
  1. Readily available
  2. Relatively insensitive to shock, yet easy to detonate.
  3. Shattering effect
  4. High density
  5. Minimum toricity.
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66
Q

Commercial detonators vary in their net explosive weight, depending on the manufacturer and type, while military blasting caps have consistent NEW’s. (T or F)

A

True

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67
Q

When breaching framed or mass construction roofs, the charge should be placed at least ____ feet from the roof’s edge.

A

4 feet

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68
Q

Explain why breaching explosives are compared to TNT.

A

TNT is the standard for calculating structure material damage and personnel casualties resulting from detonation.
(TNT is the global standard all explosives are compared to in all T/B charts)

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69
Q

During training with explosives, who gives the approval or signal for the detonation of a charge?

A

RSO / Tactical Breacher

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70
Q

Reflective over-pressure can be a major hazard in both internal and external detonations (T or F)

A

True

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71
Q

“Outward Opening” doors open away from the entry team into the objective. (T or F)

A

False

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72
Q

Strength of reflected over-pressure, as well as duration and location of intersection points can be determined with the use of PSI calculations. (T or F)

A

False

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73
Q

After a detonation of an explosive charge, what should the area be searched for and why?

A

Any remaining explosives, explosive components, and unsafe conditions.

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74
Q

Who is responsible for conducting misfire procedures?

A

RSO / Tactical Breacher

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75
Q

During breaching training, what is the standard time frame to wait before inspecting a misfired explosive charge?

A

30 mins

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76
Q

ATF regulations exempt “public safety” explosive response teams from the requirement of maintaining an inventory on explosives stored in official vehicles, if parked within a secure government building. (T or F)

A

False

77
Q

What explosives are used to produce a cutting effect?

A
  1. FLSC

2. ECT (low hazard flexible linear shape charge)

78
Q

What explosives are used to produce a pushing effect?

A
  1. Det Cord

2. Explosive Sheet

79
Q

List three examples of pushing “mediums” used…

A
  1. IV bags
  2. Poly
  3. Rubber
80
Q

What type of explosives are used to produce a blasting effect?

A
  1. Explosive Sheet
  2. C-4 (Composition C4)
  3. Det Cord
81
Q

Explain a situation where an oval configuration would be a desirable charge selection on a door instead of a strip configuration.

A

Significantly barricaded door.

82
Q

List examples of specific breach points on an objective which detailed information is collected on.

A
  1. Doors
  2. Door frames, hinges and locks
  3. Windows and window frames
  4. exterior / interior walls
  5. Roofs and Floors
83
Q

What is the purpose of structural analysis?

A

To be able to identify indicators that show the type of construction, evaluation of weak and strong points, possible floor plan layout.

84
Q

Explain how to determine if a door opens in or out.

A

Out = hinges are visible

In = Hinges flush or not visible.

85
Q

The following are all considerations when developing a plan for breaching windows (T or F):

Residential structures have blinds and curtains that must be dealt with.

Residential windows usually break in large glass shards that create dangerous conditions for team personnel.

Small, opaque windows usually indicate a bathroom.

Large patio doors or picture windows are usually tempered glass.

A

True

86
Q

List 5 problems associated with breaching walls.

A
  1. Electrical wires, plumbing, natural gas lines.
  2. Air gaps in wall.
  3. Re bar
  4. Floor and interior walls, furniture on opposite side.
  5. Breathing and vision hazards.
87
Q

Which of the following may be acceptable means of explosive disposal? (if certain conditions permit, following all compliance requirements, and depending on the material)

A

A) Buried in a remote location

B) Spread out and burned

C) Returned to supplier

D) detonated by other explosives.

88
Q

Prior to purchasing explosives, what minimum requirements must an agency meet?

A

ATF inspected storage facility, county permit if required.

89
Q

What does the ATF explosive law and regulations stipulate as conditions for law enforcement agencies indoor storage of explosives?

A

ATF 555.208
Construction of a type 2 magazine uninhabited structure, fire/theft resistant room/area. Wood lined 0.12 gauge metal box +2 pad locks.
1 Mag=50lbs of H.E.
1 Mag= 5,000 detonators.

90
Q

What are the ATF’s limits on explosive materials stored on “Official Response” vehicle which are unattended or parked at unsecured areas? and what are the “security features” required for that vehicle?

A

2.5 pounds / 20 detonators

Must have an additional security system / not parked in garage, alarm = lo jack.

91
Q

Define “Critical Diameter” of an explosive.

A

Minimum explosive diameter at which the combustion / detonation process, once initiated, will support itself until the exp is fully consumed and detonation is complete.

92
Q

Define “Detonation Velocity.”

A

Speed at which the detonation shockwave travels through material.

93
Q

Describe what happens during the positive phase of an explosion.

A

The blast pressure wave moves outward from the detonation point. The leading edge delivers a violent force. The phase is short, but destructive.

94
Q

Describe what happens during the negative phase of an explosion.

A

Known as suction phase. It lasts 3 times longer in duration, a vacuum is formed at the detonation point, and the vacuum causes displaced air to reverse back to the detonation point.

95
Q

Which of the two phases of an explosion is longer in duration?

A

The Negative Phase

96
Q

Describe what the “shape charge effect” is and what three components of a shape charge are required to produce this effect.

A

Effect is created when a shape charge is detonated when a cavity of a shape charge is lined with metal or glass. The explosion will produce a narrow, deep hole greater than a shallow crater.
1. Cone Angle, 2. Linear, 3. Standoff.

97
Q

Why does damage to a structure occur at a lower PSI value compared to injury of humans.

A

Structures have a larger surface area and are rigid compared to human tissue.

98
Q

List 5 reasons why internal breaching may not be as practical as other methods.

A
  1. Fire / Breathing hazard
  2. Time factor to place charge / position deps.
  3. Type of barrier
  4. Vision obscure
  5. Fragmentation of the charge / barrier.
99
Q

What is a “K-factor” and which value is used to calculate fragmentation hazard distances?

A

A constant numerical value for a specific PSI value used in the main equation for calculating safe separation distances and PSI distances to/from detonation.

100
Q

What hazards could be produced during breaching operations using explosives?

A
  1. Blast - over-pressure.
  2. Fragmentation
  3. Fire
  4. Smoke / Fumes
101
Q

When an explosive charge is selected for a given breach point that doesn’t exceed the required net explosive weight, the hazard to over-pressure is only outside the objective instead of inside. (T or F)

A

True

102
Q

What two factors determine the type of configuration of an explosive charge to be utilized?

A
  1. Explosives available

2. Intended breach point.

103
Q

What of the following are NOT one of the basic types of charge configurations?

A) Shape Charge Conical
B) Oval
C) Strips
D) Placement between non compressible mediums

A

A) Shape Charge Conical

104
Q

Why must the net explosive weight of a charge be calculated?

A

To determine the potential damage of a charge to the surrounding area. It is also used to determine the safe distance from the charge from over-pressure.

105
Q

Explain what is meant by the “relative effectiveness” of an explosive and what explosive is used to compare the work potential of all other explosives.

A

The destructive potential of an explosive is compared to the work of TNT. The R.E. is the numerical value comparison.

106
Q

Aside from SW060-AA-MMA-0110 (Demolition Materials), which is used in this course, there are numerous credible sources for finding the relative effectiveness for an explosive, many which conflict. (T or F)

A

True

107
Q

List three courses of action that can be used to protect the team personnel from fragmentation.

A
  1. Breach point clear of debris and loose objects.
  2. Place charge so fragmentation travels away from team.
  3. Use natural cover and/or ballistic shields.
108
Q

What are basic type of charge configurations?

A
  1. Strips
  2. Between non compressible mediums
  3. Ovals and Squares.
109
Q

All firing systems should be dual primed. (T or F)

A

True

110
Q

What is the function of a “pig tail” portion of a firing system?

A

Quick tie in and quick removal of firing assembly.

111
Q

List the components of a tactical firing assembly.

A
  1. (2) shock tubes
  2. (2) detonators
  3. Mechanical initiator.
  4. one foot of 50gr/ft det cord
112
Q

After firing assembly is constructed, what information should be labeled on it?

A
  1. Date made
  2. By who
  3. Length
  4. Delay
113
Q

A “medium” may also serve as a tamping material in certain charge configurations (T or F).

A

True

114
Q

List five reasons why documentation is important.

A
  1. Establish historical overview of teams.
  2. Establish team’s professional credibility.
  3. Displays a professional accounting of teams performance.
  4. Establish a baseline to continue research.
  5. maintain a record of techniques that do and do not work.
115
Q

What are the three basic methods/mediums of documentation?

A
  1. Video
  2. Photos
  3. Shot paperwork documents.
116
Q

A breaching report should be completed for every explosive shot conducted (T or F)

A

True

117
Q

Which of the following statements should be covered in a range safety brief?

A) Who the range safety officer is.

B) The designated areas for explosives, detonators, construction, trash, and smoking.

C) Designated medical personnel and emergency procedures

D) Fire fighting plan

E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

118
Q

Explain the procedures for shock tube firing assembly misfire during training or data collection.

A

Announce misfire. Relock device to fire 2X. If it fails, notify RSO. Team will hold in place. RSO will supervise cutting 6 inches off shock tube. Insert new primers. Re-attach shocktube to device. Fire charge on command. If misfire, announce “misfire.” Wait 30mins before inspection. RSO determines further.

119
Q

List at least four required characteristics of a primary shock tube initiating device for use in breaching operations.

A
  1. Dual initiator system / 2 shock tube leads.
  2. NATO threads / 2 primers
  3. Simple to operate / 2 safety’s
  4. Construction design to ensure positive detonation.
120
Q

A single shock tube initiator should never be utilized as your primary firing device in breaching operations (T or F)

A

True

121
Q

it is not a problem to substitute materials during charge construction if the procedures do not describe a substitution process. (T or F)

A

False

122
Q

What is the purpose of a fluid impulse charge? What 2 hazards are associated with its use?

A

To defeat wood / metal doors that open in / out

  1. Slippery conditions at breach point
  2. Electrical / missile hazards.
123
Q

The base explosive HMX is found in what explosive most commonly used in breaching?

A

Shocktube detonators.

124
Q

Which types of explosives will be most commonly utilized for main charges during tactical breaching operations by law enforcement.

A

Det Cord
ECT
FLSC
Explosive Sheet

125
Q

What is the flexible linear charge designed to produce?

A

A linear cutting action in various applications where remote, fast, reliable, cutting of materials is required.

126
Q

What is the purpose of sealing ends of det cord after cutting?

A

To seal the explosives / keep moisture out.

127
Q

How should lead sheathed flexible linear shaped charge be cut?

A

With a fixed or locking blade knife on a non-sparking surface.

128
Q

What are some of the safety considerations in the use of a lead sheathed linear shaped charge, and what can be done to minimize these hazard to the entry team?

A
  1. Fragmentation, toxic gases, lead vapors.

2. Breathing apparatus and ballistic shields.

129
Q

Under what conditions will wet det cord propagate?

A

At least 6” of det cord that is dry at initiation point.

130
Q

What is the most common cause of “cut offs” when initiating a charge using det cord?

A
  1. Sharp bends

2. Overlapping 90 degree turns.

131
Q

List 5 characteristics of flexible explosives (Ex. Explosive sheet)

A
  1. Flexible
  2. Waterproof
  3. Insensitive
  4. Easy to cut
  5. Easy to apply
132
Q

What is the most hazardous activity associated with explosive charges?

A

Handling Misfires

133
Q

What is the intended use of sheet explosive and the work effects that are achieved in explosive breaching applications?

A

Used in general demolition as a cutting or breaching charge

134
Q

What are two base explosives used in producing explosive sheet?

A

PETN and RDX

135
Q

What is the intended use of det cord?

A

A detonating agent, a priming agent, or alone as an explosive charge.

136
Q

What is the primary meant to insure proper detonation of a breaching charge using det cord?

A

Dual primed

137
Q

Describe the features and characteristics of shock tube detonators.

A

It has a non electric detonator crimped to a hollow polyethlene-surlyn plastic tube filled with HMX with opposite end sealed with factory crimp. The detonator has an ignition charge, intermediate charge, and main charge (HMX).

138
Q

The terms “detonator” and “blasting cap”, when used in explosive breaching, refer to the same thing (T or F)

A

True

139
Q

Why should spray adhesives or electrical tape be avoided when constructing charges with explosive sheet?

A

They react with the plastisers causing a low order detonation.

140
Q

Which of the following items are NOT considered to be mission essential to conduct explosive breaching operations.

A)Reliable dual shock tube initiator

B)Commercial wall entry frames

C) Hearing / Eye Protection

D) Gas mask / respiratory protection

E) All of the above.

A

B)Commercial wall entry frames

141
Q

What is the type and quantity of explosive material used in shock tube?

A

0.1 gr/ft HMX with aluminum powder

142
Q

When initiated, what is the speed of propagation in the shock tube?

A

6,500 FPS

143
Q

The shock tube is constructed of non-fragmenting, co-extruded polyethylene-surlyn plastic (T or F)

A

True

144
Q

One advantage of a non-electric shock tube detonator is its resistance to impact (T or F)

A

False

145
Q

name a disadvantage of utilizing a slant charge over a hinge charge when attacking a wood door.

A

Portion of door remains intact. Attacking against the wood grain of the door.

146
Q

What conditions permit the cutting of explosives with scissors or shear-type cutters?

A

Never

147
Q

When constructing breaching charges, what problems can be associated with operator error?

A
  1. Low order detonations.
  2. Charge failure
  3. Misfires.
148
Q

In preparing the initiator assembly, what is the purpose served by the duct tape sheath?

A

To remove the “memory” from the shocktube.

Hides the flash/prevents tangle.

149
Q

Fire hazard concerns are significantly reduced utilizing a fluid impulse charge (T or F)

A

True

150
Q

Describe the proper placement of the door lock strip charge.

A

Placed on the lock side of the door, priming end down, centered over locking mechanisms and B/T door knob and frame.

151
Q

Explain versatility of the door hing charge.

A

The charge can be constructed with 3 or more charge assemblies and placed at will around selected points of a door, gate or window.

152
Q

What are two acceptable methods of connecting the detonating cord of the firing assembly to the main charge?

A

A square knot

Plastic det cord connector.

153
Q

Describe the major factors that could prevent success with a fracture charge.

A

Inaccurate information of the wall’s construction that could lead to construction of a charge of inadequate strength and not having knowledge of the objectives inside or on the other side of the wall that could prevent success.

154
Q

Describe the condition the mechanical shock tube initiating device must be in before attaching the shock tube firing head/block.

A

Ensure the trigger mechanism is locked and all safety features are engaged.

155
Q

What is the waiting period for a misfire with shocktube before inspecting the conditions down range during training?

A

30 mins

156
Q

When documenting an explosive shot, why are photos and video taken before and after?

A

This documents exactly the conditions of the intended breach point and the charge placement and the actual results. These photos and video compliment written documents.

157
Q

Which of the following statements are parts of a range safety brief?

A) Explanation of the evolution’s objectives.

B) The sequence for priming charges.

C). Documentation assignments

D) Misfire procedures

E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above.

158
Q

List the components of a tactical firing assembly.

A
  1. Mechanical / Dual shock tube initiating device
  2. Shock tube leads X2
  3. Detonators X2
  4. one foot of 50gr/ft det cord.
159
Q

What must the team members be ready to do once the team moves from the L.C.C.?

A

Execute compromise procedures / planned mission

160
Q

Briefly describe the actions of Breachers and entry personnel: (A) on the target and (B) after the detonation of the charge.

A

A) Breachers place charge after a visual sweep of B/P confirming correct B/P and scanning for hazards. E/T provides security.

B) Breachers remove shocktube to prevent entanglement. E/T moves to B/P and determines if B/P is open or closed.

161
Q

List four operational responsibilities of the breacher.

A
  1. Tactical Plan
  2. Charge to be used
  3. Misfire procedures.
  4. Equipment needed.
162
Q

Give two examples why the explosive breachers must carry additional shock tube initiators and firing assemblies in an operation.

A
  1. Misfires

2. Firing point is more than 40 feet

163
Q

Describe how rehearsals should be conducted and why this is important.

A

Rehearsals should be conducted completely with all charges, firing assemblies, and equipment to ensure all items deploy smoothly and team members understand all responsibilities and procedures.

164
Q

Describe why the discipline of “Tactical Explosive Breaching” differs from all other applications of explosives.

A

The only discipline that permits people to be close to B/P. Depending on threat conditions, a degree of collateral damage and minor injuries may be acceptable.

165
Q

Why do two independent breachers complete the calculation worksheet separately?

A

To ensure the calculations are accurate.

166
Q

List three examples when the essential elements of information checklist should be reviewed and used prior to the start of the planning of an operation.

A
  1. Analyzing info
  2. Briefing under cover agents prior to deployment
  3. briefing sniper/observer teams.
167
Q

Agencies misjudging their knowledge and capabilities that create unacceptable collateral damage or injuries could produce negative impact on other agencies’ breaching programs. (T or F)

A

True

168
Q

Why is it NOT recommended to decrease the safe stacking distance closer than 4 psi distance value for external detonations even when a ballistic shield is utilized?

A

The physical surroundings could still produce reflective over-pressure, increasing the value of the PSI value and duration of the exposure. Also, the “Mach Stem” effect may be produced placing the E/T at additional risk of injury.

169
Q

List examples of where “Over-pressure Wave Intersection Points” could occur inside a structure.

A
  1. Hallway detonation with charge placed around corner.

2. Adjoining rooms

170
Q

Describe what an “Over-pressure Wave Intersection Point” is:

A

Known as “Mach Stem” effect. Occurs when two or more leading edges of reflective over-pressure waves meet and collide. Based on the number of these leading edges and magnitude of their strength, determines the strength of the increased psi value at the point of intersection.

171
Q

Why isn’t the team safe stacking distance the same for internal detonations compared to external detonations?

A

Internal environments are 3 dimensional and Reflective Over-pressure occurs. The safe stacking distance @ 4psi is for external detonations only. That distance internally of a structure could place officers at a higher psi value and longer duration of exposure to the psi values.

172
Q

Describe the various conditions that cause concern for the hazards of the shockwave at detonation:

A

The breachers must evaluate the crime scene’s stalking location of the E/T to ensure the shockwave does not create hazards to the team from roof and eves loosening and falling / windows breaking and falling on team. Additionally, the shockwave traveling through the objective wall could cause injury to deputies leaning on wall.

173
Q

Why must the agency’s explosive breaching program require detonations on actual structures with occupants inside the objective room?

A

This system of documentation validates the actual conditions the charges will be tactically utilized under, and the occupants are witness to and validate the debris field pattern, velocity of debris as acceptable and the occupants receive no effects from O.P. from detonations.

174
Q

In all misfire procedures, after several attempts to re-fire the charge have failed, what is the very first course of action that must be performed?

A

Remove the Shock Tube

175
Q

What explosive charge configuration could the breacher select in order to prevent a dust initiated explosion or fire?

A

Fluid impulse charge / Tamp charge.

176
Q

What is the primary cause for misfires in training and operations?

A

Operator error

177
Q

List four examples of additional tactical considerations that are evaluated crime scene/suspect info:

A
  1. Alternate methods of entry
  2. Best insertion methods and platforms
  3. Selection and disposition of tools and safety equipment.
    4, use of ballistic shields.
178
Q

Explain two courses of action for tactical entry denial:

A
  1. Finish breach w/manual tools

2. E/T moves to alternate breach point.

179
Q

Explain a course of action for a tactical misfire:

A

Ensure everyone knows it’s a misfire and stay in place. Re-cock and fire again. If still no-go:
1. Breacher places new firing assembly on the charge pigtail and re-fire charge.

  1. The breachers remove the charge and separate the firing assembly from the charge and manual tool B/P
  2. Team moves to alternate B/P while breacher renders charge safe.
180
Q

If the firing party / Entry team must be exposed to an internal detonation due to the situation and threat conditions, the PSI safe stacking distance may be used (T or F)

A

False

181
Q

Prior to utilizing explosive breaching, why must the explosive breacher (whether tactical or not) provide a briefing to all personnel involved?

A

So all team members are aware of the tactical plan, Re: the breaching plan and they know what to expect.

182
Q

Which are true about utilizing shock tube initiating systems:

A) Reduces surface noise compared to det cord systems.

B) Is immune to lightning

C)May include a delay element in the detonator.

D)Immune to initiation by stray RF energy / current.

A

A, C and D

183
Q

Describe how to visually examine shock tube to determine whether or not it has been fired:

A

HMX and aluminum powder is present. If fired, the core will appear empty and have a charred appearance. If not, cut a small piece and tap out powder.

184
Q

Explain the functioning “train” of a non-electric shock tube detonator, in order:

A

S/G primer ignites shock tube
Shock tube ignites the ignition charge
Ignition charge ignites the intermediate charge
Intermediate charge detonates the base charge

185
Q

if the shock tube is insufficient to position the breaching team a safe distance from the charge, what may be done to lessen or eliminate the hazard to the team?

A

You should never be in that position.

186
Q

Californing Blasters Licenses are issued only to qualified individuals, not groups or agencies (T or F)

A

True

187
Q

According to California Law, a State Licensed Blaster is in complete charge of an active blasting operation, except when directed by ATF, State Fire Marshal, or employed law enforcement agency. (T or F)

A

False

188
Q

How should explosives be stored in a magazine?

A) Brand and Grade clearly visible.

B) Different grades of materials separated.

C) Rotated to where older stock is used first.

D) None of the above

E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

189
Q

What information (required by ATF) must be included in the explosive inventory of an “official response” vehicle which stores explosives?

A
  1. Amount of explosives
  2. Type of explosives (manufacture)
  3. Date of any activity

Explosive Breaching (6 decks)

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