5.0 Flashcards

1
Q

What must the team members be ready to do once the team moves from the L.C.C.?

A

Execute compromise procedures / planned mission

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2
Q

Briefly describe the actions of Breachers and entry personnel: (A) on the target and (B) after the detonation of the charge.

A

A) Breachers place charge after a visual sweep of B/P confirming correct B/P and scanning for hazards. E/T provides security.

B) Breachers remove shocktube to prevent entanglement. E/T moves to B/P and determines if B/P is open or closed.

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3
Q

List four operational responsibilities of the breacher.

A
  1. Tactical Plan
  2. Charge to be used
  3. Misfire procedures.
  4. Equipment needed.
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4
Q

Give two examples why the explosive breachers must carry additional shock tube initiators and firing assemblies in an operation.

A
  1. Misfires

2. Firing point is more than 40 feet

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5
Q

Describe how rehearsals should be conducted and why this is important.

A

Rehearsals should be conducted completely with all charges, firing assemblies, and equipment to ensure all items deploy smoothly and team members understand all responsibilities and procedures.

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6
Q

Describe why the discipline of “Tactical Explosive Breaching” differs from all other applications of explosives.

A

The only discipline that permits people to be close to B/P. Depending on threat conditions, a degree of collateral damage and minor injuries may be acceptable.

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7
Q

Why do two independent breachers complete the calculation worksheet separately?

A

To ensure the calculations are accurate.

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8
Q

List three examples when the essential elements of information checklist should be reviewed and used prior to the start of the planning of an operation.

A
  1. Analyzing info
  2. Briefing under cover agents prior to deployment
  3. briefing sniper/observer teams.
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9
Q

Agencies misjudging their knowledge and capabilities that create unacceptable collateral damage or injuries could produce negative impact on other agencies’ breaching programs. (T or F)

A

True

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10
Q

Why is it NOT recommended to decrease the safe stacking distance closer than 4 psi distance value for external detonations even when a ballistic shield is utilized?

A

The physical surroundings could still produce reflective over-pressure, increasing the value of the PSI value and duration of the exposure. Also, the “Mach Stem” effect may be produced placing the E/T at additional risk of injury.

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11
Q

List examples of where “Over-pressure Wave Intersection Points” could occur inside a structure.

A
  1. Hallway detonation with charge placed around corner.

2. Adjoining rooms

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12
Q

Describe what an “Over-pressure Wave Intersection Point” is:

A

Known as “Mach Stem” effect. Occurs when two or more leading edges of reflective over-pressure waves meet and collide. Based on the number of these leading edges and magnitude of their strength, determines the strength of the increased psi value at the point of intersection.

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13
Q

Why isn’t the team safe stacking distance the same for internal detonations compared to external detonations?

A

Internal environments are 3 dimensional and Reflective Over-pressure occurs. The safe stacking distance @ 4psi is for external detonations only. That distance internally of a structure could place officers at a higher psi value and longer duration of exposure to the psi values.

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14
Q

Describe the various conditions that cause concern for the hazards of the shockwave at detonation:

A

The breachers must evaluate the crime scene’s stalking location of the E/T to ensure the shockwave does not create hazards to the team from roof and eves loosening and falling / windows breaking and falling on team. Additionally, the shockwave traveling through the objective wall could cause injury to deputies leaning on wall.

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15
Q

Why must the agency’s explosive breaching program require detonations on actual structures with occupants inside the objective room?

A

This system of documentation validates the actual conditions the charges will be tactically utilized under, and the occupants are witness to and validate the debris field pattern, velocity of debris as acceptable and the occupants receive no effects from O.P. from detonations.

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16
Q

In all misfire procedures, after several attempts to re-fire the charge have failed, what is the very first course of action that must be performed?

A

Remove the Shock Tube

17
Q

What explosive charge configuration could the breacher select in order to prevent a dust initiated explosion or fire?

A

Fluid impulse charge / Tamp charge.

18
Q

What is the primary cause for misfires in training and operations?

A

Operator error

19
Q

List four examples of additional tactical considerations that are evaluated crime scene/suspect info:

A
  1. Alternate methods of entry
  2. Best insertion methods and platforms
  3. Selection and disposition of tools and safety equipment.
    4, use of ballistic shields.
20
Q

Explain two courses of action for tactical entry denial:

A
  1. Finish breach w/manual tools

2. E/T moves to alternate breach point.

21
Q

Explain a course of action for a tactical misfire:

A

Ensure everyone knows it’s a misfire and stay in place. Re-cock and fire again. If still no-go:
1. Breacher places new firing assembly on the charge pigtail and re-fire charge.

  1. The breachers remove the charge and separate the firing assembly from the charge and manual tool B/P
  2. Team moves to alternate B/P while breacher renders charge safe.
22
Q

If the firing party / Entry team must be exposed to an internal detonation due to the situation and threat conditions, the PSI safe stacking distance may be used (T or F)

A

False

23
Q

Prior to utilizing explosive breaching, why must the explosive breacher (whether tactical or not) provide a briefing to all personnel involved?

A

So all team members are aware of the tactical plan, Re: the breaching plan and they know what to expect.

24
Q

Which are true about utilizing shock tube initiating systems:

A) Reduces surface noise compared to det cord systems.

B) Is immune to lightning

C)May include a delay element in the detonator.

D)Immune to initiation by stray RF energy / current.

A

A, C and D

25
Q

Describe how to visually examine shock tube to determine whether or not it has been fired:

A

HMX and aluminum powder is present. If fired, the core will appear empty and have a charred appearance. If not, cut a small piece and tap out powder.

26
Q

Explain the functioning “train” of a non-electric shock tube detonator, in order:

A

S/G primer ignites shock tube
Shock tube ignites the ignition charge
Ignition charge ignites the intermediate charge
Intermediate charge detonates the base charge

27
Q

if the shock tube is insufficient to position the breaching team a safe distance from the charge, what may be done to lessen or eliminate the hazard to the team?

A

You should never be in that position.

28
Q

Californing Blasters Licenses are issued only to qualified individuals, not groups or agencies (T or F)

A

True

29
Q

According to California Law, a State Licensed Blaster is in complete charge of an active blasting operation, except when directed by ATF, State Fire Marshal, or employed law enforcement agency. (T or F)

A

False

30
Q

How should explosives be stored in a magazine?

A) Brand and Grade clearly visible.

B) Different grades of materials separated.

C) Rotated to where older stock is used first.

D) None of the above

E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above.

31
Q

What information (required by ATF) must be included in the explosive inventory of an “official response” vehicle which stores explosives?

A
  1. Amount of explosives
  2. Type of explosives (manufacture)
  3. Date of any activity
32
Q

Draw a line from the agency to the correct jurisdiction.

A

BATF —— Lost, Stolen and commerce of explosives.

CHP —– Commercial permit to transport in Cali.

County Sheriff or Fire —- Permit to purchase explosives

Cal OSHA—-Blasting accidents/unusual occurrence affecting safety to employees.

Federal DOT —–Interstate transport of explosives.