COMA AND RELATED DO Flashcards

1
Q

denotes an inability to think with customary speed, clarity,

and coherence

A

CONFUSION

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2
Q

This state also
implies a degree of imperceptiveness and distractibility,
referred to traditionally as _______

A

“clouding of the sensorium

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3
Q

A confusional state can also accompany focal cerebral
disease in various locations, particularly in the__________ or result from disorders that disturb mainly
language, memory, or visuospatial orientation

A

right

hemisphere,

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4
Q

the temporary storage of the solution of

one task for use in the next.

A

“working memory

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5
Q

next. A deficit in working memory,
which is such a common feature of the confusional states,
can be demonstrated by_______

A

tests of serial subtraction, and

the spelling of words (or repeating a phone number)

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6
Q

It tends to be least pronounced in the morning
and increases as the day wears on, peaking in the
early evening hours _________ when the patient is
fatigued, and environmental cues are not as clear

A

(“sundowning”)

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7
Q

_______ denotes an inability to sustain a

wakeful state without the application of external stimuli

A

Drowsiness

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8
Q

As a rule, some degree of_________
are coupled with drowsiness, both improving
with arousal

A

inattentiveness and mild confusion

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9
Q

________ describes a state in which the patient can
be roused only by vigorous and repeated stimuli and
in which arousal cannot be sustained without repeated
stimulation.

A

Stupor

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10
Q

In stupor

__________ is common, and there is a
reduction or elimination of the natural shifting of body
positions

A

Restless or stereotyped motor activity

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11
Q

In stupor

_______ and the breathing
pattern may or may not be altered

A

Tendon and plantar reflexes,

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12
Q

In psychiatry, the term _________`has been used in a second
sense-to denote an uncommon condition in which the
perception of sensory stimuli is presumably normal but
activity is suspended and motor activity is profoundly
diminished

A

stupor

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13
Q

The patient who i s incapable o f being aroused b y external

stimuli or inner need, is in a state of _______

A

coma

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14
Q

In lighter stages, sometimes
referred to by the ambiguous terms ____________
most of the above reflexes can be elicited, and the
plantar reflexes may be either flexor or extensor

A

semicoma or obtundation,

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15
Q

similarities of sleep and stupor

A

These include yawning, closure of the eyelids, cessation
of blinking and reduction in swallowing, upward
deviation or divergence or roving movements of the
eyes, loss of muscular tone, decrease or loss of tendon
reflexes, and even the presence of Babinski signs and
irregular respirations, sometimes Cheyne-Stokes in type

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16
Q

One sign of the
vegetative state is a lack of consistent__________ of
objects

A

visual following

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17
Q

EEG patterns of PVS

A

low amplitude delta-frequency background activity,

burst suppression, widespread alpha and theta activity,

alpha coma pattern, and sleep spindles

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18
Q

In the initial days and weeks, this syndrome of
unconscious awakening has been referred to as the vegetative state and, if lasting ______after nontraumatic
and _________ after traumatic injury, the syndrome has
been termed the persistent vegetative state

A

3 months

12 months

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19
Q

The most common pathologic bases of this state are
_________as a result of closed head trauma,
widespread__________ after cardiac arrest, and thalamic necrosis from a number of causes

A

diffuse cerebral injury

necrosis of the cortex

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20
Q

PVS is a state in which the cortex
is either diffusely injured or effectively disconnected and
isolated from the __________ or the thalamic nuclei are
destroyed.

A

thalamus,

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21
Q

The vegetative state or the minimally conscious state
described further on, may also be the terminal phase
of progressive cortical degenerative processes such as
_________

A

Alzheimer and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

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22
Q

the profound and widespread
dysfunction of the cerebrum is reflected by
extreme reductions in cerebral blood flow and metabolism,
measured with _________

A

positron emission tomography

PET

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23
Q

____________ as

necessary for integrated consciousness

A

posterior parietal regions

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24
Q
preserved autonomic and respiratory
function without cognition include \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

apallic syndrome

neocortical death

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25
A study by the Multi-Society Task Force on PVS concluded that the outcome from a vegetative state is better in ________
traumatic as compared to nontraumatic cases
26
In minimally conscious state, improve function by stimulating the ___________ through implanted electrodes in a patient who had been initially vegetative and made a natural transition to a minimally conscious state after traumatic brain injury
medial (interlaminar) thalamic nuclei
27
there is little or no disturbance of consciousness, but | only an inability of the patient to respond adequately
locked in syndrome
28
other term for locked in syndrome
deefferented state or pseudocoma
29
a condition in which the patient is awake but was unresponsive (actually their patient was able to answer in whispered monosyllables).
akinetic mutism
30
This state of apparent vigilance in an imperceptive and unresponsive patient has been referred to by French authors as ________
coma vigile
31
The term akinetic mutism has been applied to yet another group of patients who are silent and inert as a result of bilateral lesions usually of the ____________ leaving intact the motor and sensory pathways; the patient is profoundly apathetic, lacking to an extreme degree the psychic drive or impulse to action
anterior parts of the frontal lobes,
32
The patient with ________appears unresponsive, in a state that simulates stupor, light coma, or akinetic mutism BUT there is no structural brain abnormality
catatonia
33
In catatonia, there is also the retention for a long period | of seemingly uncomfortable limb postures _________
(catalepsy).
34
The central considerations in the diagnosis of brain | death are :
(1) absence of all cerebral functions; (2) absence of all brainstem functions, including spontaneous respiration; and (3) irreversibility of the state
35
in brain death The absence of brainstem function is judged by the:
loss of spontaneous eye movements, midposition of the eyes, and lack of response to oculocephalic and caloric (oculovestibular) testing; the presence of dilated or midposition fixed pupils (not smaller than 3 mm); paralysis of bulbar musculature (no facial movement or gag, cough, corneal, or sucking reflexes); an absence of motor and autonomic responses to noxious stimuli; and absence of respiratory movements
36
Steps for apnea test
1. employing preoxygenation for several minutes 2. The patient can then be disconnected from the respirator for several minutes during which time 100 percent oxygen is being delivered by cannula or ventilator that has its pumping mechanism turned off
37
Purpose of pre-oxygenation in apnea test
the purpose of which is to displace nitrogen from the alveoli and create a reservoir of oxygen that will diffuse along a gradient into the pulmonary circulation
38
what happens if you remove the respiratot in apnea test
this allows the arterial Pco2 to rise to 50 to 60 mm Hg (typically, C02 rises approximately 2.5 mm Hg per minute at normal body temperature-slower if the patient is hypothermic
39
The hypercarbia serves both as a ________and a confirmation that spontaneous ventilation has failed.
stimulus to breathing
40
effects of the apnea test
hypotension, hypoxemia, cardiac arrhythmias, | and barotrauma
41
In brain death this condition leads inability to produce tachycardia in response to the injection of atropine; this reflects the loss of innervation of the heart by the medullary vagal neurons
DI
42
EEG tracing for confirmation of brain death
isoelectric tracing
43
__________ is considered to be present if there is no electrical potential of more than 2 m V during a 30-min recording except for artifacts created by the ventilator, electrocardiograph, and surrounding electrical devices
Electrocerebral silence
44
Other ddx for reversible isoelectric tracing:
1. profound hypothermia 2. intoxication with sedative-hypnotic drugs 3. and immediately following cardiac arrest
45
In brain death, testing. If cardiac arrest was the antecedent event, or the cause of neurologic damage is unclear, or drug or alcohol intoxication could reasonably have played a role in suppressing the brainstem reflexes, it is advisable to wait about ________ before repeating the testing and pronouncing the patient dead
24 h
46
In brain death, testing. The specificity of radionuclide scanning is close to ________but there is a self-referential aspect to this statement as the clinical diagnosis has been used as a gold standard
100 percent
47
TCD findings for brain death
brain death shows a to-and-fro, | pendelfluss blood-flow pattern in the basal vessels.
48
the EEG may transiently show diffuse and variable alpha (8- to 12-Hz) activity, which may be mistaken for the physiologic alpha rhythm. It is not monorhythrnic like normal alpha activity, and displays no reactivity to sensory stimuli.
alpha coma
49
Alpha coma is usually associated with __________ and has a poor prognosis
pontine or diffuse cortical lesions
50
In cases of intoxication with sedatives, | exemplified by barbiturates and diazepines,_________initially replaces normal rhythms
fast | (beta) activity
51
Oxygen consumption of ___________ (approximately | half of normal) is incompatible with an alert state
2 mg/min/100 g
52
Toxins in coma in DM, ________are present in high concentration; in uremia, there is probably an accumulation of dialyzable small molecular toxins, notably_________
``` acetone bodies (acetoacetic acid, P-hydroxybutyric acid, and acetone) ``` phenolic derivatives of the aromatic amino acids.
53
In hepatic coma, elevation of blood NH3 (ammonia) to______ levels corresponds roughly to the level of coma
5 to 6 times normal
54
Lactic acidosis may affect the brain by lowering arterial blood pH to less than _____ The impairment of consciousness that accompanies pulmonary insufficiency is related mainly to ________
7.0. hypercapnia
55
In acute hyponatremia_________ of whatever cause, neuronal dysfunction is probably a result of the intracellular movement of water, leading to _______
(Na <120 mEq/L) neuronal swelling and loss of potassium chloride from the cells
56
In other types of seizures, in which consciousness is interrupted from the very beginning, a _________has been postulated (centrencephalic seizures of Penfield
diencephalic origin
57
it has been recognized that interactions with ligand-gated ion channels, particularly __________and alterations in neurotransmitter function are a more likely mechanism of anesthesiainduced unconsciousness.
gamma-aminobutyric acid | (GABA)-A receptors
58
Under the title of ____________ a rare condition has been described in adult men who displayed a prolonged state of deep sleepiness lasting from hours to days intermittently over a period of many years
idiopathic recurring stupor,
59
In idiopathic recurring stupor, During the bouts, a 1 00 fold increase of circulating_______ an ostensibly naturally occurring diazepine agonist,
endozepine-4,
60
the cerebral peduncle, is pushed against the opposite free edge of the tentorium (the resulting creasing of the lateral edge of the peduncle is called the ______
Kernahan notch
61
This causes weakness and a Babinski sign ipsilateral to | the hemispheral lesion and later, extensor posturing on that side
Kernahan- Woltman phenomenon
62
coma; medium-sized fixed pupils that are referable to midbrain damage; bilateral decerebrate postures; loss of vestibuloocular (caloric, oculovestibular) responses all of which are the result of pontine damage; irregular breathing patterns that implicate medullary destruction; and death.
central syndrome with rostro-caudal progression
63
drowsiness in the early stages is accompanied or preceded by unilateral pupillary dilatation, most often on the side of the mass, as a result of compression of the third nerve
uncal syndrome
64
Chronic administration of _______ for hypertension can induce stupor from cyanide toxicity.
nitroprusside
65
________is observed in patients with alcohol or barbiturate intoxication, drowning, exposure to cold, peripheral circulatory failure, advanced tuberculous meningitis, and myxedema
Hypothermia
66
Sl0w breathing points to ________ and occasionally to hypothyroidism, whereas deep, __________should suggest the presence of pneumonia, diabetic or uremic acidosis, pulmonary edema, or the less-common occurrence of an intracranial disease that causes central neurogenic hyperventilation
opiate or barbiturate intoxication rapid breathing (Kussmaul respiration)
67
Diseases that elevate intracranial pressure or | damage the brain often cause slow, irregular, or __________
cyclic | Cheyne-Stokes respiration
68
Cherry-red coloration is typical of _______
carbon | monoxide poisoning
69
Telangiectases and hyperemia of the face and conjunctivae are the common stigmata of ______
alcoholism;
70
_______ imparts a characteristic puffiness of the face, and hypopituitarism an equally characteristic _______complexion
myxedema sallow
71
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TIP), disseminated intravascular coagulation, and fat embolism may cause _________
diffuse petechiae or purpura
72
The spoiled-fruit odor of _______, the uriniferous odor of uremia, the musky and slightly fecal fetor of _______, and the burnt almond odor of ________
diabetic ketoacidotic coma hepatic coma cyanide poisoning
73
A loss of | ______usually precedes enlargement of the pupil
light reaction
74
As a transitional phenomenon, the pupil may become oval or pear-shaped or appear to be off center (corectopia) because of a _______
differential loss of innervation of a | portion of the pupillary sphincter
75
The ipsilateral pupillary dilatation from | pinching the side of the neck (the ciliospinal reflex) is usually lost in _______
brainstem lesions
76
Systemic poisoning with ____ or with drugs that have atropinic qualities, especially the _______ is characterized by wide dilatation and fixity of the pupils
atropine tricyclic antidepressants,
77
Hippus, or fluctuating pupillary size, is | occasionally characteristic of _______
metabolic encephalopathy
78
"Wrong-way eyes" a paradoxical conjugate deviation to the side opposite the lesion may sometimes occur with _____
thalamic and upper brainstem lesions
79
_________in which the eyes move down slowly and return rapidly to the meridian, is observed with coma caused by anoxia and drug intoxications;
"Ocular dipping,"
80
In OCM, The response in coma | of metabolic origin or that caused by bihemispheric structural lesions consists of
conjugate movement of the eyes in | the opposite direction
81
Elicitation of these ocular reflexes | in a comatose patient provides two pieces of information:
(1) evidence of unimpeded function of the midbrain and pontine tegmental structures that integrate ocular movements and of the oculomotor nerves, and (2) loss of the cortical inhibition that normally holds these movements in check.
82
Irrigation of one ear with 10 mL of cold water (or room-temperature water if the patient is arousable) causes slow conjugate deviation of the eyes__________ followed in a few seconds by _______
toward the irrigated ear, compensatory nystagmus
83
periods of waxing and waning hyperpnea alternating with a shorter period of apnea
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
84
The more conspicuous respiratory arrhythmias are associated with lesions b____________ and are therefore found in the late stages of brainstem compression or with destructive brainstem lesions
below | the level of the reticular-activating system
85
Lesions of the lower midbrain-upper pontine tegmentum, either primary or secondary to transtentorial herniation, may give rise to _______
central neurogenic hyperventilation | CNH
86
This disorder is characterized by an increase in the rate and depth of respiration to an extent that produces advanced respiratory alkalosis
central neurogenic hyperventilation | CNH
87
Low pontine lesions, usually caused b y basilar artery occlusion, sometimes cause __________ (a pause of 2 to 3 s in full inspiration) or so-called short-cycle CheyneStokes respiration, in which a few rapid deep breaths alternate with apneic cycles
apneustic breathing
88
With lesions of the dorsomedial part of the medulla, the rhythm of breathing is chaotic, being irregularly interrupted and each breath varying in rate and depth ______
(Biot breathing; also called "ataxia of | breathing").
89
In regard to all forms of coma, but particularly after cardiac arrest, if there are no pupillary, corneal, or oculovestibular responses within _____________, the chances of regaining independent function are practically nil
1 day of the onset of coma
90
Other signs that predict a poor outcome are _________
absence of corneal reflexes, eye-opening responses, atonia of the limbs at 1 and 3 days after the onset of coma, and absence of the cortical component of the somatosensory-evoked responses on both sides