Cohort-Generated Multiple Choice Questions Flashcards
A primary part of treatment intervention for Separation Anxiety with children includes:
a. CBT
b. mindfulness
c. exposure with siblings involved
d. parent psychoeducation and training
Parent psychoeducation and training
Diagnostic criteria for Separation Anxiety Disorder includes all of the following except:
a. Distress when separating from home or from major attachment figures.
b. Persistent and excessive worry about experiencing an untoward event (i.e. getting lost, being kidnapped) that causes separation from a major attachment figure.
c. Distress when rejoining parent and inability to be comforted by parents
d. Persistent and excessive fear or reluctance about being alone or without major attachment figures.
Distress when rejoining parent and inability to be comforted by parents
Symptoms of Separation Anxiety include:
a. fearful of environmental situations and school refusal
b. social withdrawal and excessive energy
c. refusal to separate and excessive eating
d. outbursts of uncontrollable laughing and homesickness
Fearful of environmental situations and school refusal
A major etiological factor for Separation Anxiety is:
a. peer bullying
b. inconsistent and/or overly intrusive parenting
c. traumatic experience of a peer
d. maternal diagnosis of Bipolar Disorder
Inconsistent and/or overly intrusive parenting
Which of the following disorders has the highest comorbidity with Selective Mutism?
a. ADHD
b. Social Anxiety Disorder
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. Oppositional Defiance Disorder
Social Anxiety Disorder
What is NOT a risk factor for Selective Mutism?
a. Overprotective and controlling parents
b. History of shyness
c. Parent with Social Anxiety
d. Parent with Major Depression
Parent with Major Depression
What is an example of stimulus fading in treatment for selective mutism?
a. avoiding yes/no questions that tend to elicit a nonverbal response
b. systematically shaping a desired response, such as saying “Good morning” to teachers
c. systematically increasing the difficulty of exposures by slowly introducing peers into a setting that elicits anxiety
d. negatively reinforcing undesired verbal responses
Systematically increasing the difficulty of exposures by slowly introducing peers into a setting that elicits anxiety
What is NOT a method of treatment for selective mutism?
a. behavioral activation
b. social skills training
c. language training
d. exposure
Behavioral activation
Diagnostic criteria for Panic Disorder includes all of the following except:
a. An abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes
b. Expected panic attacks
c. Persistent concern about panic attacks
d. Significant maladaptive change in behavior related to attacks
Expected panic attacks
*Panic disorder needs to have UNexpected panic attacks
Treatment for Panic Disorder with children includes:
a. Inducing symptoms of panic
b. Psychoeducation c. Weekly homework tracking symptoms of panic d. All of the above
All of the above
Considering the recent changes in the DSM-5 regarding agoraphobia, which of the following is NOT a part of the new criteria?
a. Fear of one specific setting.
b. The separation of panic disorder from agoraphobia.
c. An individual older than 18 does not have to recognize the negative effects of the disorder. d. The symptoms must last longer than 6 months.
Fear of one specific setting.
*The DSM-5 requires a fear of at least two settings.
Which of the following statements accurately describes agoraphobia, as deemed by the DSM-5?
a. Agoraphobia always leads to panic attacks. b. Agoraphobia is more prevalent in males than females. c. The dropout rate in treating agoraphobia increases as one gets older. d. Those with agoraphobia may be able to function in their feared environment with the aid of a close friend or family member.
Those with agoraphobia may be able to function in their feared environment with the aid of a close friend or family member.
*Agoraphobia does not require the presence of panic attacks, it is more prevalent in females, and the dropout rate decreases as one gets older.
Which of the following is NOT a DSM-V criterion for Specific Phobia?
a. The phobic object almost always provokes and immediate fear response.
b. Marked fear for a specific object or situation.
c. The object or situation is related to a traumatic event experienced within the past 12 months.
d. The fear is out of proportion to the actual danger posed by the object or situation.
The object or situation is related to a traumatic event experienced within the past 12 months in NOT a DSM-5 criterion for Specific Phobia
Which of the following is NOT true about the etiology of Specific Phobia?
a. Specific Phobias stem from problems with nonverbal reasoning skills.
b. Associations formed through respondent conditioning.
c. Some fears are “prepared fears” and are more likely to occur as phobic stimuli.
d. Specific Phobias are maintained through reinforcement processes.
Specific Phobias stem from problems with nonverbal reasoning skills–NOT an etiological factor of Specific Phobia
Which specifier is least likely in childhood specific phobias?
a. Natural environment phobias
b. Animal phobias
c. Blood/Injection/Injury phobias
d. Situational phobias
Situational phobias are least likely
Which type of phobic response is associated with vasovagal syncope (drop in blood pressure)?
a. Natural environment phobias
b. Animal phobias
c. Blood/Injection/Injury phobias
d. Situational phobias
Blood/Injection/Injury phobias
All of the following are DSM criteria symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder EXCEPT:
A. Restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge
B. Being easily fatigued
C. Irritability
D. Excessive eating
Excessive eating
Generalized Anxiety Disorder has a high comorbidity with:
A. Depressive disorders and other anxiety disorders
B. Bipolar and schizophrenia
C. Autism Spectrum Disorder and ADHD
D. Only OCD
Depressive disorders and other anxiety disorders
Sex differences in Generalized Anxiety Disorder include:
A. Females less likely than men to exhibit Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Females show higher comorbidity with depression,
whereas males show higher comorbidity with substance abuse
C. Males are more likely to have favorable outcomes if
prescribed adjunct Adderall pharmacotherapy in addition to CBT
D. Males are more likely to seek treatment for GAD than females
Females show higher comorbidity with depression
Males show higher comorbidity with substance abuse
The median onset age for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is:
A. Approximately age 15
B. Approximately age 60
C. Approximately age 30
D. Approximately age 11
Approximately age 30
- Which of the following is not a subtype of OCD?
A. Tic-related OCD
B. Trauma-related OCD
C. Early Onset OCD
D. PANDAS related OCD
Trauma-related OCD
Which of the following is true of OCD in the US?
A. Checking compulsions are more common in males, hoarding compulsions are more common in females
B. Cleaning/contamination compulsions are more common in males, sexual-religious or aggressive are more common in females
C. Sexual-religious or aggressive compulsions are more common in males, cleaning/contamination compulsions are more common in females
D. Hoarding compulsions are more common in males, checking compulsions are more common in females
Sexual-religious or aggressive compulsions are more common in males, cleaning/contamination compulsions are more common in females
Which of the following is not true of OCD?
A. OCD prevalence rates are similar across cultures, but the content of obsessions/compulsions change in response to culture
B. OCD is largely considered a neurodevelopmental disorder
C. OCD is not considered a heritable anxiety disorder
D. OCD may develop in response to an excessive sense of responsibility in childhood
OCD is not considered a heritable anxiety disorder
Not True
The concept of an OCD Monster is frequently used in treatment of childhood OCD in order to
A. Help children understand that feelings are uncontrollable and simply need to be accepted
B. Keep the child in treatment using fun silly monsters
C. Scare the child into trying harder
D. Conceptualize OCD symptoms as something external that can be fought against
Conceptualize OCD symptoms as something external that can be fought against
DSM-V Criteria for Social Anxiety is different from DSM-IV criteria in that:
a. In children, the fear or anxiety must occur in a peer setting, and not only during interactions with adults.
b. In children, the fear or anxiety may be expressed in crying, tantrums, freezing, clinging, shrinking or failing to speak.
c. Individuals do not need to recognize that their fear or anxiety is excessive and unreasonable.
d. Symptoms persist for 6 months or more.
Individuals do not need to recognize that their fear or anxiety is excessive and unreasonable.
What are the subtypes (if any) for Social Anxiety?
a. General and Performance-only
b. Social Anxiety and Social Phobia
c. Avoiders and Endurers
d. There are no subtypes
General and Performance-only
In terms of gender differences in prevalence for social anxiety, which of the following is true:
a) social anxiety occurs more often in females than in males in the general population
b) social anxiety occurs more often in males than in
females in the general population
c) social anxiety occurs at equal or higher rates in males than in females in clinical populations
d) both a and c
Both a & c:
Social anxiety occurs more often in females than in males in the general population
Social anxiety occurs at equal or higher rates in males than in females in clinical populations
(4) In the United States, social anxiety is more prevalent among:
a) Caucasians
b) Hispanics
c) African Americans
d) Asians
Caucasians
