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Part A > Cognitive Methods > Flashcards

Cognitive Methods Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 basic assumptions of Cognitive Psychology?

A
  1. mental processes exist
  2. mental processes can be studied scientifically
  3. humans are active participants in the act of cognition
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2
Q

What is the Cognitive Science Approach?

A

A way of systematically studying people performing tasks

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3
Q

What are the 2 ways we can measure mental processes?

A
  1. response times - time between stimulus and person’s response to stimulus
  2. accuracy
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4
Q

What are strengths of the Cognitive Science Approach?

A
  • it forms a foundation for understanding human mental processes
  • informs theorising in research across disciplines
  • the source of most theories and tasks used by other approaches
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5
Q

What are weaknesses of the Cognitive Science Approach?

A
  • task impurity issues (most tasks involve multiple cognitive processes)
  • ecological validity
  • lab-based measures
  • paradigm specificity (findings for one task don’t always generalise to other tasks)
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6
Q

What is the Information Processing Approach?

A

The idea that mental processes are understood as a sequence of independent processing stages
- consists of bottom-up or top-down processing and serial or parallel processing

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7
Q

What is a metatheory?

A

A set of assumptions and guiding principles to generate research questions
- where to start?
- what to look for?
- what to be aware of?

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8
Q

What are the 7 themes / areas of cognition?

A
  1. bottom-up or top-down processing
  2. attention
  3. representation
  4. implicit vs explicit memory
  5. metacognition
  6. embodiment
  7. the brain
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9
Q

What is representation?

A

A hypothetical entity which stands for a perception, thought or memory. It can be manipulated during cognitive operations such as retrieval or problem solving.

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10
Q

What is the difference between implicit and explicit memory?

A

Implicit - unconscious memories, remembering things without trying
Explicit - conscious memories, episodic and semantic

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11
Q

What is metacognition?

A

An awareness of our own cognitive system and how it works

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12
Q

What is embodiment?

A

The way we think and represent information is a reflection of how we interact with the world
- our interpretation of a stimulus changes the way we interact

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13
Q

What are the 3 stages of memory?

A
  1. Encoding
  2. Storage
  3. Retrieval
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14
Q

Describe the sensory stores.

A
  • has both iconic (visual) and echoic (auditory)
  • only holds info for 1-2 seconds
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14
Q

Describe the short-term memory store.

A
  • limited capacity 7+-2 (Miller, 1956)
  • chunking increases ability to remember
  • information is lost via displacement
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15
Q

Describe the long-term memory store.

A
  • unlimited capacity (Standing et al, 1970)
  • information is lost via interference
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16
Q

Strengths of Multi-Store Model

A
  • widely accepted that there are 3 distinct memory stores
  • evidence to support short and long term memory
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16
Q

Weaknesses of Multi-Store Model

A
  • oversimplified
  • some people can remember more / less than others
  • cannot explain implicit learning
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17
Q

Describe the levels of processing and the main assumptions.

A
  • levels of processing range from shallow (physical) analysis, to deep (semantic) analysis
  • the level / depth of processing effects memorability
  • deeper levels of analysis produce more elaborate and stronger memory traces
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18
Q

Godden & Baddeley (1975)

A
  • context dependent memory
  • recall is better when learning and recall environments are the same compared to different
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19
Q

What are the 4 components of the Working Memory Model (Baddeley et al, 2012).

A

Central Executive
Visuo-spatial sketchpad
Episodic buffer
Phonological loop

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20
Q

Describe the central executive.

A
  • allocates resources
  • dividing attention between tasks
  • interfacing with long-term memory
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21
Q

What are the 2 components of the phonological loop?

A
  1. phonological store (speech perception)
  2. articulatory loop (speech production)
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22
Q

What is the phonological similarity effect?

A
  • we have poor recall for similar sounding items than dissimilar ones
  • articulatory suppression prevents rehearsal
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23
Q

What are the 2 components of the visuo-spatial sketchpad?

A
  1. visual cache (stores info about visual form / colour)
  2. inner scribe (processes spatial and movement info)
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24
Q

Describe the episodic buffer.

A
  • holds integrated info about episodes / events
  • acts a buffer between slave systems
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25
Q

Describe declarative memory.

A
  • conscious recollection
  • for episodic and semantic memories
  • explicit memories
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26
Q

Describe non-declarative memory.

A
  • unconscious recollection
  • for procedural memories
  • priming happens
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27
Q

Is episodic memory described as reproduction or construction? Why?

A
  • described as constructive
  • we remember important details, are trivial details are omitted
  • the episodic memory is prone to error (it is easy to plant false memories)
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28
Q
A
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29
Q

What type of memory is affected when there is damage to the hippocampus or the para-hippocampal cortex?

A

Hippocampus - poor episodic memory
Para-hippocampal cortex - poor semantic memory

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30
Q

List some causes of amnesia.

A
  • surgery
  • chronic alcohol abuse
  • brain tumours
  • dementia
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31
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A
  • poor recall of memories formed before the onset of amnesia
  • poorer recall of personal events than general knowledge
  • temporal gradient = older memories are less impaired than newer ones
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32
Q

What are the 3 explanations for the temporal gradient of retrograde amnesia?

A
  1. consolidation theory = physiological process in hippocampus leads to formation of long-lasting memories
  2. semanticisation = episodic memories become more semantic over time (so they are protected from brain damage
  3. reduced learning opportunity = episodic memory relies on single learning experience so the memory is not repeated
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33
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A
  • loss of ability to form new memories after the onset of amnesia
  • caused mainly by damage to the hippocampus
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34
Q

What is global amnesia?

A
  • combination of retrograde and anterograde amnesia
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35
Q

Who was patient HM ad why is he important?

A
  • most studied amnesiac patient
  • suffered severe epilepsy from aged 10
  • underwent surgery to remove the entire temporal lobe (including the hippocampus)
  • he developed moderate retrograde and severe anterograde amnesia
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36
Q

What is Korsakoff’s Syndrome?

A
  • known as diencephalic amnesia
  • caused by vitamin B1 deficiency from chronic alcoholism
  • causes both forms of amnesia
  • slight impairment of short term memory
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37
Q

What is semantic dementia?

A
  • causes severe problems with semantic memory, but episodic memory remains intact
  • this usually presents as a language deficit
  • always involves degeneration of the anterior temporal lobe
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38
Q

What are the 2 reasons for foregtting?

A
  1. decay = memory fades over time, less info is available for retrieval as time passes
  2. interference = similar info gets in the way of memory
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39
Q

What are the 2 types of interference?

A
  1. retroactive = new info gets in the way of old memories
  2. proactive = old info gets in the way of newer info
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40
Q

What is the DRM paradigm?

A
  • causes people to recall words semantically associated with words in the list, which aren’t actually there
  • intrusions are prevalent when things are similar
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41
Q

What is the Misinformation Effect?

A
  • memories are easily distorted by misleading information
  • source misattribution occurs when memories from one source resemble those from another
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42
Q

Loftus and Palmer (1974)

A
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43
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A
  • tendency to recall information in a way that confirms pre-existing beliefs
  • schemas can lead us to form these expectations
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44
Q

Tucker & Brewer (2003)

A
  • likely to remember infor relevent to bank robbery schemas (male, wore masks)
  • less likely to remember irrelevant info (colour of getaway car)
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45
Q

What are the 3 biases / mistakes made during eyewitness identifictaion?

A
  1. unconscious transference = misidentify a familiar (but innocent) face as being responsible
  2. other-race effect = recognition for same-races are more accurate that other races
  3. own-age bias = more accurate recognition of witnesses similar to yourself
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46
Q

How does anxiety affect memory of violence?

A
  1. tunnel vision = narrowing attention to important stimuli
  2. weapon focus = focus on weapon rather than peripheral details
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47
Q

Cognitive Interview technique (COPR)

A

Context = mental reinstatement of environment
Order changes = harder to lie, deeper memories
Perspective changes = report from different viewpoints
Report everything

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48
Q

What is Gestalt Psychology?

A
  • means ‘form’ or ‘appearance’
  • concerned with perceptual organisation
  • describes how we separate and link individual objects
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49
Q

What are the 6 guiding principles (pragnanz) of Gestalt Psychology?

A
  1. similarity
  2. proximity
  3. good continuation
  4. closure
  5. simplicity
  6. figure-ground segregation
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50
Q

What are the 3 Feature Detection Theories?

A
  1. visual search
  2. feature nets (bottom up and top-down)
  3. recognition-by-components (RBC)
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51
Q

What is the theory of geometric ions?

A
  • all objects are just a combination of shapes (geometric ions)
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52
Q

What is the difference between recoverable and non-recoverable objects?

A

Recoverable = have segments of smooth edges missing, but we can still easily recognise the object
Non-recoverable = have vertices (points) missing, so can take longer to recognise objects

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53
Q

What are some weaknesses of recognition-by-components?

A
  • it is tied to bottom-up processing (fails to recognise individual interpretations)
  • embodied cognition (our perception of objects is influenced by our expectations of how we will interact with the object e.g. empty / full milk carton)
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54
Q

What is perceptual constancy?

A
  • we perceive constant properties of object despite sensory information changing, based on past experience
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55
Q

What are 3 examples of perceptual constancy?

A
  1. size constancy - we can correctly perceive size even when changes in distance make them seem different
  2. shape constancy - we can correctly perceive shapes even when viewing angle changes
  3. colour constancy - we can perceive colour even when shadows / reflections distort the colour
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56
Q

What are the 4 depth cues?

A
  1. binocular cues - each of the eyes have a different view of the world (difference = binocular disparity)
  2. oculomotor cues - convergence (eyes turn to focus on object) and accommodation (lens changes shape based on object proximity
  3. monocular (pictorial) cues - interposition, linear perspective and texture gradients
  4. motion cues - motion parallax (close objects move quicker) and optic flow (close objects are bigger)
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57
Q

What is agnosia?

A
  • failure to recognise objects
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58
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of agnosia?

A
  1. apperceptive agnosia - can perceive features individually but not as a whole to name an object, damage to posterior of right hemisphere
  2. associative agnosia - can combine the features to identify the object but cannot associate the features with knowledge of the object, damage to temporal and occipital of both hemispheres
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59
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A
  • poor face recognition
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60
Q

What is focussed (selective) attention?

A
  • selecting one input and ignoring all others
  • done by eye movements
  • central point of attention falls in the central fovea
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61
Q

WEEK 6 - ATTENTION NETWORKS

A
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62
Q

What is focussed auditory attention?

A
  • select sounds of interest, while ignoring others
  • COCKTAIL PARTY PROBLEM -
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63
Q

What is cross-modal attention?

A
  • coordinating information from 2 or more modalities simultaneously
  • VENTRILOQUISM EFFECT - sound and visual are close together so brain combines them together, visual field is more dominant
  • MCGURK EFFECT - the way the mouth moves tricks the brain into hearing something different
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64
Q

Development of cross-modal attention (Maidment et al., 2015)

A
  • does having visual stimuli improve speech
  • having both audio and visual increased accuracy of hearing
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65
Q

What determines how well we can perform two tasks at the same time?

A
  • similarity between task modality (visual vs auditory)
  • similarity between responses (manual vs vocal)
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66
Q

What is the ‘traditional approach’ to automatic processing?

A
  • we have controlled processes (serial) and automatic processes (parallel)
67
Q

What are the characteristics of CONTROLLED PROCESSES within the traditional approach of automatic processing?

A
  • limited capacity of attention
  • in depth attention
  • attention can change
68
Q

What are the characteristics of AUTOMATIC PROCESSING within the traditional approach of automatic processing?

A
  • no limitation (can attend to multiple stimuli)
  • do not require attention
  • hard to modify once learned
69
Q

What is change blindness and what causes it?

A

Failure to detect changes in the environment.
- not focussed on the stimulus
- representations may decay or be overwritten
- not consciously aware change is happening
- unable to compare pre and post change
- used as a defence mechanism to give us consistency

70
Q

What is intentional bias and what causes it?

A

Failure to notice an unexpected, but fully visible item when attention is diverted (gorilla and basketball video)
- similarity of unexpected object to task-relevant stimulus
- observers available processing resources

71
Q

What is spatial neglect?

A
  • brain damage causing lack of awareness of stimuli in the opposite visual field to damage
72
Q

What are the 3 aspects of problem solving?

A
  1. goal-directed (towards a desired outcome)
  2. conscious processing
  3. lack of knowledge to produce an immediate solution
73
Q

What are the 4 types of problems?

A
  1. well-defined (all aspects are clearly specified)
  2. ill-defined (lots of components and not just one right answer to the problem)
  3. knowledge-rich (can only be solved with expertise)
  4. knowledge-lean (do not require special knowledge
74
Q

How can the Gestalt approach be applied to types of thinking?

A
  • reproductive thinking (re-use past knowledge)
  • productive (restructuring of a problem using insight)
75
Q

What is insight?

A
  • eureka moment
  • involves a sudden restructuring of a problem
76
Q

How can we facilitate insight?

A
  • provide hints
  • incubation (time away from the problem to think)
  • change the problem representation (constraint relaxation, re-encoding, elaboration)
77
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A
  • mistakenly assuming that a given object has a limited number of uses
78
Q

What are cognitive misers?

A

Someone who finds the quickest and easiest way to get to a goal state

79
Q

What is analogical problem solving?

A
  • solving problems using analogies, relate a current problem to a past experience
80
Q

What are the 3 types of similarities between problems?

A
  1. superficial - solution-irrelevant details are common in both problems
  2. structural - some relationship between main components of two different problems
  3. procedural - the process of completing a problem is similar
81
Q

Provide an example of how expertise causes modifications in the brain.

A

McGuire’s Taxi Drivers = go through ‘The Knowledge’ which is found to increase grey matter in the hippocampus

82
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A
  • making broad generalisations from specific observations
  • hypotheses may not be true as we can’t prove all further experiments will find the same results
83
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A
  • a specific, logical conclusion from general statements
  • follows ‘first premise (P1), second premise (P2), inference’
84
Q

What is conditional deductive reasoning?

A
  • reasoning with if
  • logical operators are included in the premise
85
Q

What is syllogistic deductive reasoning?

A
  • 2 premises followed by a conclusion
  • premises and conclusions contain quantifiers
86
Q

What type of bias occurs in syllogistic reasoning and why?

A

Belief bias - we are more likely to accept invalid conclusions if they are believable

87
Q

What is the Mental Model Theory of logical-based reasoning?

A
  • assumptions and conclusions are made based on a mental picture we build
88
Q

What is a limitation of the Mental Model Theory of logical-based reasoning?

A
  • does not describe how we decide which information to include in a mental model
89
Q

What is the dual-systems theory of logical-based reasoning?

A
  • it is a heuristic-analytic theory
  • one mental model is considered at a time
  • the most relevant based on prior knowledge is picked
  • it is evaluated by the analytic system
90
Q

What are some limitations of dual-systems theory of logical-based reasoning?

A
  • no evidence that the heuristic and analytic systems are separate
  • assumes all analytical processing is conscious
91
Q

What is informal reasoning?

A
  • everyday reasoning
  • it is based on own knowledge and experience
  • has little to do with formal logic
92
Q

What are the 4 important aspects of informal reasoning?

A
  • Content (plausibility)
  • Context (expert vs non-expert)
  • Probabilities (how possible is it to be true?)
  • Motivation (for supporting our viewpoint)
93
Q

Example of Content in informal reasoning.

A
  • either a good or bad explanation of phenomena
  • rated how satisfied they were with the explanations
  • some explanations were accompanied with neuroscientific findings
  • even the bad explanations was rated highly when backed up by science
94
Q

Example of Probabilities in informal reasoning.

A
  • 3 factors that influence the perceived strength of a conclusion
    1. degree of previous belief
    2. positive arguments have more impact than negative ones
    3. strength of the evidence
95
Q

Example of Motivation in informal reasoning.

A
  • myside bias = our belief can override actual evidence presented
96
Q

How do we interpret and respond to sentences when READING?

A
  • words are seen as a whole
  • low ambiguity
  • rarely distracted by other stimuli
  • low cognitive demands
  • punctuation is the main cue in understanding meaning
97
Q

How do we interpret and respond to sentences when PERCEIVING SPEECH?

A
  • words are spread out over time (so hard to predict meaning as someone talks)
  • high ambiguity
  • high cognitive demands
  • lots of distracting stimuli
  • prosodic cues are used for understanding
98
Q

What is orthography? What are graphemes?

A
  • word spelling
  • letters
99
Q

What is phonology? What are phonemes?

A
  • word sounds
  • sounds making up a word
100
Q

What are semantics?

A
  • word meanings
101
Q

What is syntax?

A
  • sentence structure
102
Q

How is the naming task used to study reading?

A
  • links orthography (spelling) and phonology (sounds)
  • measures reaction time to say a word out loud
103
Q

How is the lexical decision task used to study reading?

A
  • links orthography (spelling) and semantics (meaning)
  • rapidly decide whether a string of random letters are a real word or not
104
Q

How is the prime words task used to study reading?

A
  • priming words (similar to target word in spelling, sound or meaning) cause faster understanding
105
Q

Explain the cultural differences in reading.

A
  • english children learn to read more slowly than other languages because english is made up of lots of words where the spelling and sound don’t match
106
Q

What is the Weak Phonological Model?

A
  • we don’t process the sounds of words when reading
107
Q

What is the Strong Phonological Model? 3 examples of evidence for this model.

A
  • phonological processing is essential for word identification
  • homophone errors
  • phonological neighbours
  • phonological priming
108
Q

How does making homophone errors suggest phonological processing?

A

homophones = words with 1 pronunciation but 2 spellings / meanings
- more errors are made when words are a homophone

109
Q

How does phonological neighbours suggest phonological processing?

A

phonological neighbours = words that differ by one phoneme (sound)
- we look at words with lots of neighbours for shorter amounts of time

110
Q

How does phonological priming suggest phonological processing?

A

primed with a random non-word or a non-word that is phonologically identical
- phonologically identical word will be processed faster because the words sound the same

111
Q

What is the interactive activation model?

A
  1. word level
  2. letter level
  3. feature level
  4. written word
112
Q

What 2 things can the interactive activation model account for?

A
  1. word superiority effect = because we know certain letters make certain words, we can easily identify if a letter is missing and where it needs to be
  2. orthographic neighbours = the less orthographic neighbours, the more quickly and easily you can identify a word
113
Q

What is a limitation of the interactive activation model?

A
  • too much importance attached to letter order
  • letter order is irrelevant as long as first and last letters are in the right place
114
Q

What are 2 possible explanations for semantic priming?

A
  1. priming automatically activates related words due to learning experience
  2. we expect to see a semantically similar word after the prime
115
Q

What are the 2 major approaches to reading aloud?

A
  1. dual-route model
  2. connectionist triangle model
116
Q

What is the dual-route model?

A
  • two routes between printed word and speech
  • serial processing
117
Q

What is the connectionist triangle model?

A
  • based on highly interactive nature between orthography, phonology and semantics
  • semantics play greater role in reading aloud
118
Q

What are the 3 types of dyslexia?

A
  1. surface dyslexia
  2. phonological dyslexia
  3. deep dyslexia
119
Q

What is surface dyselxia?

A
  • difficulties reading irregular words
120
Q

What is phonological dyslexia?

A
  • difficulties reading words and non-words (pseudowords)
121
Q

What is deep dyslexia?

A
  • difficulties reading words and non-words (pseudowords)
  • also make semantic errors
122
Q

What are the 4 stages of speech perception?

A
  1. select signal of interest and ignore irrelevant inputs
  2. extract phonemes to construct words
  3. word identification
  4. comprehension and interpretation
123
Q

List 3 adverse conditions that decrease illegibility of speech when listening?

A
  1. pronunciation of phonemes = accents, dialect, speech rate
  2. energetic masking = target speaker is degraded (drowned out by other speakers)
  3. informational masking = effect of cognitive load
124
Q

What is coarticulation?

A
  • pronunciation of phonemes depend on preceding or following phonemes
  • some phonemes at the end of one word flow into the next
125
Q

What are the 2 main levels of sentence comprehension analysis?

A
  1. syntactical structure = PARSING
  2. sentence meaning = PRAGMATICS
126
Q

What are the 4 possibilities of when different types of analysis is used in parsing?

A
  1. syntactic analysis before semantic analysis
  2. semantic analysis before syntactic analysis
  3. syntactic and semantic analysis occur at the same time
  4. syntax and semantics are closely related
127
Q

What does it mean if a sentence has ambiguity at a global level?

A
  • a whole sentence can have 2 or more meanings depending on how we read it
128
Q

What does it mean if a sentence has ambiguity at a local level?

A
  • various meanings possible at a certain point in a sentence depending on where we put stress / pauses (parsing)
129
Q

List 5 prosodic cues.

A
  • stress or accent
  • pauses
  • intonation
  • rhythm
  • word duration
130
Q

What are the 2 models of parsing?

A
  1. Garden path model = 2-stage, serial
  2. Constraint-based model = 1 stage, parallel
131
Q

Describe the Garden Path Model.

A
  • misleading content at the start of a sentence leads to incorrect interpretation of the rest of the sentence
  • this leads to the sentence no making sense
  • so we must retrace mental footsteps to come to an understandable conclusion
132
Q

What are the assumptions of the Garden Path Model?

A
  • one syntactical structure is considered
  • semantics are not initially involved
  • simplest syntactical structure is chosen using minimal attachment and late closure
133
Q

What is minimal attachment?

A

involved in the garden path model
- our brain prefers grammatical structure with the fewest modes (nouns/verbs) possible

134
Q

What is late closure?

A

involved in the garden path model
- when new words are encountered, we try to join them to known phrases, but sometimes this doesn’t make grammatical sense

135
Q

List some strengths of the Garden Path Model.

A
  • provides a simple account of how parsing occurs
  • use of principles reduced processing demands
136
Q

List some limitations of the Garden Path Model.

A
  • assumes we do not try to understand meaning (which is contradictory to some evidence)
  • there is no definitive test to see if this is actually what is happening
  • doesn’t account for languages that use early closure
137
Q

What are the assumptions of the Constraint-Based Model?

A
  • all information can be parsed
  • analysis happens all at the same time so we find the most simple meaning
138
Q

List some strengths of the constraint-based model.

A
  • efficient = uses all relevant information from the onset
  • accounts for more than one syntactic analysis at a time
139
Q

List a weakness of the constraint-based model.

A
  • fails to make precise predictions about when parsing happens
140
Q

What is the name of the model that combines the Garden Path Model and the Constraint-Based Model?

A

Unrestricted Race Model

141
Q

What is pragmatics? Give examples.

A

The study of intended (not literal) meaning
- metaphors
- irony
- idioms

142
Q

What are the 2 models of understanding metaphorical statements?

A
  1. Standard pragmatic model
  2. Prediction model
143
Q

Describe the Standard Pragmatic Model of understanding metaphors.

A
  1. literal meaning accessed
  2. does it make literal sense
  3. if not, search for a suitable non-literal meaning
    - metaphorical meaning is understood slower than literal meanings
144
Q

Describe the Prediction Model of understanding metaphors.

A
  1. latent semantic analysis = meaning of words depends on the context of surrounding words
  2. construction-integration = interpretation relies on information from latent semantic analysis
145
Q

What is egocentric heuristic?

A
  • interpretation based on our own knowledge, rather than shared with others
  • causes misunderstandings as there is not common understanding between speaker and listener
146
Q

What are the 3 types of inferences?

A
  1. logical = applying own meaning to words
  2. bridging (backwards) = applying new info based previous info
  3. elaborative = embellish and add details using knowledge to expand the info
147
Q

What are causal inferences?

A
  • form of bridging inference
  • decipher causal relationship between 2 sentences
  • bonding = automatic linking of words
  • resolution = interpretation must be consistent with the contextual info
148
Q

Describe the Schema Theory of inferences (Bransford & Johnson, 1972)

A
  • schemas reduce cognitive load
  • relate information just read to relevant knowledge from LTM (in the form of schemas)
  • passages of text without titles are incomprehensible and not well remembered
149
Q

List some strengths of the Schema Theory of inferences.

A
  • schematic knowledge helps with comprehension
  • model accounts for errors and distortions
150
Q

List some weaknesses of the Schema Theory of inferences.

A
  • schema theories are hard to test
  • we don’t know at what stage schemas are used
  • exaggerates how error prone we are
151
Q

What are some effects of intoxication on speech production?

A
  • impairs attention, memory and reasoning
  • produces dysfluencies (stuttering / stammering)
  • slower speech
  • reduction in creativity
152
Q

What are the 2 levels of speech planning?

A
  1. clause level = part of a sentence containing a subject and verb
  2. phrase level = a group of words expressing a single idea
153
Q

What is a word exchange error? Give an example.

A

Switched words suggest speech planning extends over entire clause
- my chair seems empty without my room

154
Q

What is a sound (phoneme) exchange error? Give an example.

A

Switched letters suggests words are planned shortly in advance
- Bedbugs —> Budbegs

155
Q

What is a spoonerism error? Give an example.

A

Initial letters of 2 words are switched
- go and SHake a Tower —> go and Take a SHower

156
Q

What is a semantic substitution error? Give an example.

A

Words are replaced with another of a similar semantic meaning
- where is my cricket BAT? —> where is my cricket RACKET?

157
Q

What is a morpheme exchange error? Give an example.

A

Inflexions / suffixes are attached to words wrong
- He has already TRUNked two PACks

158
Q

What is a number agreement error? GIve an example.

A

Mistakes surrounding singular or plural nouns
- the team HAS won the match —> the team HAVE won the match

159
Q

What is Broca’s Aphasia?

A
  • slow, non-fluent aphasia
  • lack ability to make grammatically correct sentences
  • comprehension intact
  • problems with speech production
160
Q

What is Wernicke’s Aphasia?

A
  • fluent aphasia
  • speech intact
  • speech lacks meaning
  • problems with speech comprehension
161
Q

What is anomia?

A
  • impaired ability to name everyday objects
  • experienced by all aphasiacs
  • comprehension intact but cannot identify the name of the object they are describing
  • problems at phonological level
162
Q

What is agrammatism?

A
  • difficulties producing grammatically correct sentences
  • remove function words (the, and, in)
  • short sentences with only content words
    problems at lexical level
163
Q

What is jargon aphasia?

A
  • speech is grammatically correct but have difficulties accessing correct words
  • substitute one word for another (sometimes made up words)
  • problems at phonological level
164
Q

What are the 4 elements of audience design that are affected or affect common ground within language production?

A
  1. syntactic priming
  2. gestures
  3. prosodic cues
  4. discourse markers
165
Q

What is syntactic priming?

A
  • speaker copies words or phrases heard by the other person
166
Q

What are discourse markers?

A
  • words / phrases not directly relevant to the message
  • happens when deciding what to say (umm, er)
  • happens when checking understanding (…you know?)

Part A (5 decks)

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