CM1- Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

serology

A

study of Abs and their reaction with Ags, that bind specifically to Ab or T cell receptors, in diagnosis of infectious diseases

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2
Q

immunogen

A

induces an immune response

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3
Q

polyclonal vs. monoclonal abs

A

polyclonal:
- cheap
- mixture of multiple Abs derived from multiple cells against multiple epitopes
monoclonal:
- expensive
- derived from 1 cell that has been exposed to 1 epitope
- high specificity and strong avidity

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4
Q

what causes false-negative and false-positive serologic results (3 each)

A

false neg:
- mutated Ags
- immunocompromising conditions
- may result from competition of IgM and IgG Abs
false pos:
- may result from presence of rheumatoid factor
- cross-reacting Abs
- reactivation of latent organism

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5
Q

direct vs. indirect agglutination testing

A
  • direct → natural carrier particles (ex. RBCs)
  • indirect → artificial carrier particles (ex. latex beads coated with Ag)
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6
Q

immunofluorescent assay

A

Ag or Ab is labeled with substance that can be detected later on and allows for detection of an Ab-Ag reaction

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7
Q

direct (DFA) vs. indirect fluorescent Ab (IFA)

A

DFA: Ab conjugated to fluorescent tag binds to Ag; antigen detection
IFA: Ab-Ag-Ab sandwich
- Ag (from reagent) of corresponding Ab of interest is fixed to glass slide
- Ab binds to Ag (reagent)
- secondary Ab (fluorescently tagged) binds to primary Ab

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8
Q

enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

A

based on specific Ag-Ab interaction combined with enzyme-mediated color change for detection
- horseradish peroxidase or alkaline phosphatase

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9
Q

membrane-Bound Immunoassay

A

based on specific Ag-Ab interaction occurring on membrane support (ex. nitrocellulose or PVDF), which allows for rapid binding and detection of target molecules
- ex. lateral flow assays

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10
Q

2 screening tests for syphilis

A
  • rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
  • venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test
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11
Q

target (template) vs. probe

A
  • Target (template): sequence you want to find if present in specimen
  • Probe: short, single-stranded DNA or RNA oligonucleotide that is labeled and used to detect target
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12
Q

prozone vs. postzone

A

prozone → too much Ab; not enough Ag
postzone → too much Ag; not enough Ab
- cross-linking does not occur in either

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13
Q

southern blot

A

detects specific DNA sequences in complex mixture by DNA hybridization

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14
Q

northern blot

A

similar to Southern Blot, but is used for detecting specific RNA sequences

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15
Q

In situ hybridization

A

detects specific DNA and RNA sequences directly in cells or tissue sections using complementary labeled probes

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16
Q

RT-PCR

A

converts RNA into complementary DNA (cDNA) using reverse transcriptase, followed by PCR amplification of cDNA

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17
Q

Real time PCR

A

quantifies DNA or RNA amplification in real time using fluorescent dyes or probes

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18
Q

Nested PCR

A

increases specificity and sensitivity by using 2 rounds of PCR with 2 sets of primers; 2nd PCR is found within 1st PCR

19
Q

Multiplex PCR

A

amplifies multiple DNA targets in single reaction using multiple primer pairs

20
Q

3 basic steps of PCR

A
  1. denaturation – separates double-stranded DNA
  2. primer annealing – anneals primers to target DNA
  3. primer extension – synthesizes new strands of DNA
21
Q

ways to prevent contamination when performing PCR (4)

A
  • 3 separate areas for template extraction, PCR reagent preparation, amplification
  • reagent set up in BSC class II (use UV light to decontaminate surfaces)
  • PPE and supplies should stay in designated areas
  • clean areas with 10% bleach or commercial solutions designed for decontamination of nucleic acids
22
Q

catalase

A

(+) staph
(-) strep

23
Q

coagulase

A

(+) S. aureus
(-) CoNS

24
Q

novobiocin

A

(+) S. saprophyticus
(-) other CoNS

25
Q

PYR hydrolysis (pink rxn)

A

(+) GAS/S. pyogenes or Enterococcus spp.

26
Q

hippurate hydrolysis (purple rxn)

A

(+) GBS/S. agalactiae

27
Q

salt tolerance

A

(+) Enterococcus spp.
(-) other GDS

28
Q

bacitracin “taxo A”

A

(+) GAS/S. pyogenes

29
Q

optochin “taxo P”

A

(+) S. pneumoniae

30
Q

CAMP test

A

(+) GBS/S. agalactiae

31
Q

bile esculin hydrolysis

A

(+) Enterococcus spp.
(-) other GDS

32
Q

bile solubility

A

(+) S. pneumoniae

33
Q

microdase disc

A

(+) Micrococcus
(-) Staph

34
Q

streptolysin O vs. S (3 each)

A

O:
- oxygen labile
- immunogenic
- ASO titer
S:
- oxygen stable
- non-immunogenic
- causes hemolysis on plates

35
Q

S. aureus infections (4)

A
  • skin/wound infections: folliculitis, furuncles, carbuncles, impetigo, SSS/Ritter disease, abscess
  • food poisoning (enterotoxin)
  • TSS
  • suppurative infection (pus)
36
Q

S. epidermidis infections (1)

A
  • HAIs: UTIs, pathogenesis (biofilm), sepsis
37
Q

S. saprophyticus infections (2)

A
  • UTIs
  • bladder inflammation
38
Q

S. pyogenes infections (4)

A
  • pyodermal: impetigo, erysipelas, scarlet fever, wound infections, cellulitis
  • invasive: TSS, necrotizing fasciitis (rapid tissue death)
  • post-infection sequelae: rheumatic fever, acute post-strep glomerulonephritis
  • bacterial pharyngitis aka strep throat
39
Q

S. agalactiae infections (3)

A
  • invasive disease of newborn (early vs. late onset)
  • after female procedures: endometritis, wound infections, tricuspid valve endocarditis
  • elderly/immunocompromised: UTIs, skin/soft tissue infections, pneumonia, intraabdominal abscesses, bacteremia, endocarditis
40
Q

S. pneumoniae infections (4)

A
  • pneumonia
  • bacteremia
  • meningitis
  • sinusitis / otitis media
41
Q

Enterococcus spp. infections (1)

A
  • HAIs: UTIs, bacteremia, wound infections, endocarditis
42
Q

Viridans infections (1)

A
  • subacute bacterial endocarditis
43
Q

Abiotrophia spp. and Granulicatella spp. infections (3)

A
  • bacteremia
  • endocarditis
  • otitis media