clutching at straws😃 Flashcards

1
Q

name characteristics of an anxious pt

A
  • high neuroticism and trait anxiety
  • low pain threshold
  • co-morbid anxiety disorders
  • co-morbid depression disorders
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2
Q

how would you treat an anxious child?

A
  • tell show do
  • enhanced control
  • positive reinforcement
  • distraction
  • magic
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3
Q

how would you measure anxiety in a child?

A

MCDAS
modified child dental fear and anxiety scale form

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4
Q

how can you tell a tooth is non-vital using a radiograph?

A

ankylosis
internal root resorption
external root resorption
peri-apical radiolucency

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5
Q

what problems can arise from having an incompetent lip?

A
  • face may not develop properly
  • longer face
  • impeded speech
  • mouth-breathing leading to dry mouth
  • lip trap
  • strain of the mentalis muscle by trying to close lips
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6
Q

strap lip + competent lips

A

retroclined upper teeth

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7
Q

strap lip + incompetent lips

A

retroclined lower teeth

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8
Q

strap lip + low active lower lip line that retracts excessively

A
  • retruded mandibular alveolar process
  • protruded chin
  • retroclined lower incisors
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9
Q

strap lip + low lip and firmly retracting

A
  • production of class II div 1 malocclusion
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10
Q

strap lip + high lip line and firmly reacting

A

may produce class II div 2 maloclussion

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11
Q

what are the causes of congestive heart disease?

A
  • heart attack
  • diabetes
  • MI
  • alcohol abuse
  • hypertension
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12
Q

what are the symptoms of congestive heart disease?

A
  • rapid irregular heart beat
  • fatique and weakness
  • nausea
  • shortness of breath
  • cough, wheeze
  • chest pain when breathing
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13
Q

how do you manage congestive heart disease?

A
  • lifestyle change
  • ACE inhibitors e.g. rampril
  • beta blockers e.g. bisopolol
  • pacemaker
  • heart transplant
  • heart valve surgery
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14
Q

what microorganism is responsible for most cases of infective endocarditis?

A

streptococcus viridians

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15
Q

how is a biofilm formed?

A

adhesion to surface via weak VDW forces- if not removed then anchor onto surface more permanently using cell adhesion structures such as pili
colonisation-biofilms grown via cell divison and recruitment
accumulation
complex community
dispersal- biofilms spread and colonise new surfaces

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16
Q

what factors affect colonisation growth?

A

surface roughness
whether the surface is hydrophobic or hydrophillic

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17
Q

what is a biofilm?

A

a matrix-enclosed bacterial or fungal population adherant to each other and/or surfaces or interfaces

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18
Q

define “canophilic anaerobic”

A

thrive in high cone of CO2

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19
Q

define micro aerophilic

A

requires oxygen but at a lower cone than is available in the atmosphere

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20
Q

give 5 methods of identifying micro-organisms

A

gram staining
ziehl-neelsen staining
PCR
blood agar, selective agar (mannitol salt)
H&E staining

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21
Q

give 4 examples of cariogenic bacteria

A

streptococcus mutans
lactobacillus acidophilis
acitnomyces viscosus
nocardia spp

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22
Q

which microorganisms are found in the red section of Socransky’s model?

A

porphyromonas ginigivlalis
tannerella forsythia
treponema denticola

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23
Q

what bacteria are responsible for periodontal disease?

A

porphyromonas ginigivlalis
tannerella forsythia
treponema denticola
prevotella intermedia

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24
Q

what are relevant acts of law for impairment and disability to have equal access

A

the disability discrimination act (2005)
The equality act 2010

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25
Q

what are features of downs syndrome that are likely to contribute to periodontal disease

A

ability to self care
impaired oral function
impaired migration of gingival fibroblasts
altered tooth morphology
systemic immunodeficiency
impaired phagocytic and chemotactic responses
altered oxidative metabolism related to gene on chromosome 21

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26
Q

how do you manage teeth is a patient is at risk of osteoradionecrosis

A

provide primary orthograde endodontics and decoronate

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27
Q

what are oral complications associated with radiotherapy to the head anc neck

A

trismus
dry mouth
increased risk of oral infection
radiation mucositis
dysgeusia or ageusia
skin burns

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28
Q

what are preventative measures for patients who have had radiotherapy

A

increased fluoride toothpaste - 2800ppmF
tooth mousse
Fluoride trays
prescribe oral saliva substitutes

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29
Q

what are management strategies of osteoradionecrosis of the jaw

A

surgical debridement
hyperbaric oxygen therapy

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30
Q

why is it important to degass the ultrasonic

A

air will prevent ultrasonic bubbles from reaching all surfaces of the instruments

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31
Q

why is it important to use demineralised water in the steriliser

A

to prevent the deposits of minerals on the machine and instruments

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32
Q

what are key microbial stages of caries plaque formation

A

adhesion
collonisation
maturation
acid prodcution

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33
Q

what are virulence factors used by strep. mutans for enamel dissolution

A

glucans (glucosyltransferase - attach)

ATPAse (control pH)

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34
Q

what are virulence factors of enterococcus faecalis

A

gelatinase
superoxide
cytolysins
adhesins
collagenase

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35
Q

what is the limitation of next generation sequencing

A

limited to describing what is present rather than what communities are causing the problem

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36
Q

What process should you follow to ask about the possibility of domestic abuse

A

AVDR

Ask - ask about abuse in a private setting

Validate - show you are concerned about them

Document - be specific and detailed, use patients own words and describe injuries in as much detail as possible

Refer - signpost to appropriate services

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37
Q

What are physical signs you may see in domestic abuse ?

A

repeated injuries
Bruises at different stages if healing
dental/maxillofacial injuries
facial bruising, strangle marks around the neck or fingertip bruising
TMJ problems
-Orofacial pain

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38
Q

What are causes of liver cirrhosis

A

Alcohol
Hepatitis virus
fatty liver disease
autoimmune causes:primary billary cirrhosis
haemochromatosis
hepatocellular carcinoma
drug induced

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39
Q

what does dentally fit mean

A

no active pathology
consider removing teeth of poor long-term prognosis
establish preventative plan

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40
Q

why should a patient be dentally fit before a transplant

A

A
the patient will be immunosuppressed for the rest of their life so must reduce the risk of further dental intervention in the future

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41
Q

what causes thrombocytopenia to occur

A

splenic sequestration
impaired hepatic synthesis
increased degredation of thrombopoeitin by platelets sequestered in the congested spleen
drug related - alcohol, penecillin based drugs or heparin

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42
Q

why might patients with advanced alcoholic liver disease have increased risk of bleeding

A

thrombocytopenia
medication induced, patient may be taking heparin
liver disease may have been caused by hepatitis or HIV which both affect bleeding
clotting factors essential for coagulation are formed in the liver. If the liver is not functioning proerly these will not be present and affects coagulation ability

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43
Q

What are the types of dementia

A

Alzheimers
Vascular dementia
Dementia with lewy bodies

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44
Q

what are early stages of dementia?

A

A
Short term memory loss

confusion

Anxiety, agitation or distress

Communication issues - decline in ability to talk or write

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45
Q

what are end stages of dementia?

A

inability to recognise familiar objects, surroundings or people

Increased physical frailty - may shuffle when walk or become confined to a bed or wheelchair

difficulty eating and swallowing

asphagia

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46
Q

how do you refer to child services?

A

initially by telephone
follow up referral in writing

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47
Q

what would you look for clinically when monitoring this with enamel dentine fracture?

A

normal mobility
no TTP
discolouration
Infection

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48
Q

what causes nursing bottle caries

A

going to bed with a bottle of milk or juice

prolonged breastfeeding

baby using bottle as a comforter rather than a dummy

inappropriate use of feeding bottles and cups - should not contain sugar juice or milk

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49
Q

What are local causes of maloclussion

A

variation on tooth number
variation in tooth size or form
abnomralities of tooth position
Local abnormalities of soft tissue
Local pathology

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50
Q

what are the types of supernumary teeth

A

conical
tuberculate
supernumary
odontome

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51
Q

what are possible non-skeletal factors that can cause class 2 div 2 occlusion

A

lip trap
digit sucking
crowding

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52
Q

what appliance can be used to correct class II div 2 malocclusion

A

functional appliance - twin block

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53
Q

how does mandibular growth occur

A

growth occurs at condylar cartilage

growth occurs by surface remodelling ( resorption and deposition of bone)

results in increase in height of the ramus and increase in the length of the dental arch to accomodate teeth

growth is downwards and forwards

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54
Q

when does collimation errors occur

A

when the axis is not truly horizontal. The photo receptor is unlevel

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55
Q

what special tests are used to diagnose NUG/P

A

There are no special tests

would take radiographs to see if there is any bone loss as probing may be extremely painful for the patient and bleeding may make probing difficult

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56
Q

What are risk factors for NUG/P

A

Smoking
Stress
Immunocompormised
Malnutrition
Sleep deprivation
Poor oral hygiene

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57
Q

what is the treatment for necrotising gingivitis

A

Smoking cessation, diet advise, OHI

ultrasonic debridement

Prescribe 0.2% chlorhexidine mouthwash 2x daily as pain may prevent brushing

may prescribe antibiotics

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58
Q

State each stage and its number

A

1 - Intercuspal Position
2 - Edge to edge
3 - protrusion
4 - maximum opening
5 - retruded axis position
6 - redruded contact point
7 - mandibular rest position

between 1 and 7 - freeway space

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59
Q

what are border movements of the mandible

A

non functionl movements of the mandible

the maximum movement in each direction

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60
Q

what is the terminal hinge axis

A

when the condyles of the mandible are in their most superior and posterior position in the glenoid fossa

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61
Q

why is the retruded contact position important

A

it is the initial point of tooth contact during mandibular closure

It is used as a reference point for mouting casts on an ariculator

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62
Q

what is the value of bennet angle on an average value articulator

A

15 degrees

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63
Q

what are the principles of root canal shaping

A
  1. develop a continuously tapering funnel from the canal orifice to the apex
  2. maintain apical foramen in the original position
  3. Keep the apical opening as small as possible
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64
Q

what measurement must canal obturation be from the apex

A

within 2 mm of radiographic apex

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65
Q

what are objectives of irritant in root canal treatment?

A

disinfection
flush out debris from canal
dissolve tissues in the canal
lubricates root canal instruments
removes the endodontic smear layer

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66
Q

how do you bond composite to porcelain

A

silane coupling agent

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67
Q

characteristics that make biofilm resistant

A

Gram negative

pili/fimbriae - allows bacteria to attach and overcome mechanical forces

capsule - virulence factor
- protects bacteria from immune cells and can mediate adhesion

endotoxins - part of outer cell wall and protects bacteria

exotoxins - gram positive, secreted by lysis to surrounding environment

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68
Q

what are systemic diseases associated with periodontal biofilms

A

periodontitis
Rheumatoid arthritits

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69
Q

what are the 5 stages of the washer-disinfector cycle

A

pre-wash
wash
rinse
thermal disinfection
drying

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70
Q

what is the purpose of the prewash cycle

A

saturates contamination and removes gross contamination

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71
Q

what is the purpose of the wash cycle

A

supplemented by detergent to effectively remove biological mater

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72
Q

what is the purpose of the rinse stage

A

removes remaining residue before disinfection

73
Q

what is the purpose f the thermal disinfection stage

A

actively kills microorganisms whith the use of heated water

74
Q

why is water removed between each stage of the WD

A

to remove the contamination within the machine

removes prions during wash stages as they cannot be deactivated by sterilisation

75
Q

what is a PICO

A

P - patiet/population
I - intervention
C - comparison/control group
O - outcome

76
Q

what are benefits of digital radiography over film radiography

A

doesn’t require chemical processing
easy storage
easy back up of images
easy transfer of images
images can be manipulated
Images can be integrated into patient records

77
Q

what chemical property of lead makes it effective at absorbing photons

A

density and has a large number of electrons

78
Q

what are the disadvantages of pocket elimination?

A

supporting bone may be removed
the exposed root surface may be un-aesthetic
the exposed root surface may be sensitive

79
Q

what is the biological width?

A

the natural distance between the gingival sulcus and the height of the alveolar bone

80
Q

how is ANUG treated?

A

debridement using an ultrasonic
oxidising mouthwash
chlorhexidine
oral hygine instruction
antibiotics;
amoxicillin 500mg for 3-5 days
metronidazole 200mg for 3-5 days

81
Q

how is a periodontal abscess treated?

A

drainage- incision via pocket, dialte with instrument
gentle sub-gingival debridement
hot saline mouthwash
extraction of teeth with poor prognosis
antibiotics;
amoxicilin 500mg for 5 days
metronidazole 200mg for 5 days
follow up with HPT, surgery in indicated, maintenance

82
Q

what is the rationale for using antiseptics and antibiotics for perio disease?

A

perio diseases have infectious aetiology
pathogenic bacteria associated with periodontitis are susceptible to antibiotics and antiseptics

83
Q

what does substantivity depend on?

A

adsorption onto oral surfaces
maintenance of antimicrobial activity
slow neutralisation of antimicrobial activity

84
Q

what are the advantages of local delivery, antibiotics and antiseptics?

A

high GCF concentration
low systemic uptake
high pt compliance

85
Q

what is the periochip?

A

local delivary of chlorhexidine 2.5mg
biodegrades in 7-10 days

86
Q

what are the 4 features of periodontitis?

A

bone loss
loss of attachment
transforamtion of junctional epithelium to pocket epithelium
apical migration of junctional epithelium

87
Q

what are the effects of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus on the periodontium?

A

tendancy towrds enlarged gingivae, abscess formation, periodontitis, mobile teeth
reduction in defence mechanisms and increased susceptibility leads to destructive periodontal disease
severe ginigval inflammation, deep periodontal pockets and rapid bone loss appear in diabetic patients with poor oral hygiene
diabetes mellitus alters the response of periodontal tissues to local factors, delaying post surgical healing

88
Q

give systemic factors which can cause hyperpigmentation of the gingivae

A

increased melanin e.g. addisons disease
increased billirubin e.g. jaundice
increased iron e.g. pregnancy/diabetes

89
Q

what is papillon-Lefe’vre syndrome?

A

inherited- follows autosomal recessive pattern
hyperkeratotic skin lesions
severe destruction of periodontium
calcification of dura
signs usually appear together before age 4
skin lesions consist of hyperkeratosis and ichthyosis of localised areas on palms, soles, knees, elbows
periodontal involvement consists of early inflammatory changes that lead to bone loss and exfoliation of teeth

90
Q

what are the characteristics of papillon-Lefe’vre syndrome?

A

primary teeth lost by age 5-6
permanent dentition erupts normally but are lost within a few years due to destructive periodontal disease
pt usually edentulous apart from third molars by age 15
third molars lost within a few years of eruption

91
Q

name drugs which can cause gingival enlargment

A

anticonvulsants e.g. phenytoin
immunosuppressants
calcium channel blockers e.g. nifedipine

92
Q

a 5 year old presents with diffuse redness of oral mucosa including gingiva proceeded by vesicles. what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

93
Q

what are the aims of periodontal surgery?

A

to arrest disease by gaining access to complete root surface debridement and to regenerate lost periodontal tissues

94
Q

what treatment would you carry out at a follow up appointment for a patient who smokes and presents with ANUG?

A

debridement with LA
smoking cessation advice
OHI

95
Q

How do you bond metal to the tooth

A

Tooth

DBA

Composite luting agent

Metal bonding agent

Metal

96
Q

What is an example of a Self adhesive composite resin luting agent

97
Q

How does metal bonding agent bond metal to composite luting agent

A

C=C bonds in metal bonding agent react with similar groups in the composite luting agent

Acid end of metal bonding agent reacts with metal oxide

98
Q

What is a self adhesive composite resin

A

composite luting material with metal bonding agent in it

99
Q

What is important when using compoosite luting agent to bond to metal

A

must use a self cure composite as light cannot penetrate through metal

100
Q

What are examples of metal bonding agents

A

MDP and 4-META

101
Q

what are the 4 stages of free radical polymerisation?

A

activation
initiation
propagation
termination

102
Q

what type of bonds are present in the molecules that undergo free radical polymerisation?

103
Q

How does composite luting agent bond to indirect restorations

A

chemical bond forms between C=C

micro-mechanical bond forms between composite luting agent and the rough inside surface of indirect restoration

104
Q

what is free radical polymerisation?

A

chemical union of 2 molecules to form a larger molecule without elimination of the smaller molecule

105
Q

give 2 disadvantages of self cure PMMA

A

polymerisation is less efficiant, meaning there are more unreacted monomers
irritant/allergy issues

lower molecular weight= reduced transverse strength

106
Q

how can self cure PMMA dentures become oversized?

A

they absorb water and expand

107
Q

how does dentine bonding agent bond composite luting agent to the tooth

A

hydrophilic end bonds to tooth
hydrophobic end bonds to composite

108
Q

give an advantage of self cure PMMA

A

polymerisation doesnt require heat- less thermal contraction means a better fitting denture

109
Q

when can you not use RMGI as a cement

A

for porcelain - it swells cracking the crown
for posts - it will swell and split the root

110
Q

What does dual cure material mean

A

cured by:
- light
- cures on its own by REDOX reaction

111
Q

give a disadvantage of heat cure PMMA

A

gaseous porosity occurs if cured too fast
results in process taking far to long to avoid this

112
Q

what are ideal properties of luting agents

A

low viscosity - increases as it sets

low film thickness - <25 um

easy to use

Radiopaque

Good marginal seal

Low solubility

Cariostatic

Non-toxic

High compressive strength

High hardness

113
Q

Define cold working

A

Shaping a material below its recrystallisation temperature

114
Q

define springiness

A

the ability to undergo large deflection WITHOUT deformation

115
Q

Define slip

A

Defects in a grain move to grain boundaries this results in fewer defects in the lattice structure

116
Q

whar are the constitutes of gutta percha?

A

20% cutta percha
65% zinc oxide
10% radiopacifiers
5% plasticisers

117
Q

Explain GI interaction with dentine tubules and its significance

A

GI seals dentine tubules

this decreases micro-leakage and decreases sensitivity

118
Q

list steps to help with diagnosis of unerupted central incisor

A

take detailed histroy- check for environmental/hereditary factors and history of trauma
intraoral exam- sequence of eruption, presence of contralateral tooth, rotation/displacement of other teeth in region
check for presence of labial/palatal swellings which may indicate presence of the tooth
take a radiograph

119
Q

define class III incisor malocclusion

A

lower incisors occlude/would occlude anterior to cingulum of upper incisors

120
Q

define class I incisor relationship

A

the lower incisor edges occlude with or lie immediately below the cingulum plateau of the upper central incisors

121
Q

define class II incisor relationship

A

the lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors

122
Q

define class II division 1 incisor relationship

A

the upper incisors are proclined or of average inclination and there is an increase in overjet

123
Q

define class II division 2 relationship

A

the upper central incisors are retroclined. The overjet is usually minimal or may be increased

124
Q

what is xerostomia?

A

dry mouth caused by reduced salivary flow
clinically diagnosed if unstimulated salivary flow <0.3ml

125
Q

list oral problems which are exacerbated by xerostomia

A

caries
periodontal disease
candida infection
mucositis

126
Q

give causes of xerostomia

A

radiotherapy/ chemotherapy
sjrogren’s syndrome
HIV
epstein Barr virus

127
Q

what are the predisposing factors of oral candidosis?

A

prolonged antibiotic use
poor oral hygiene
denture wearer
immunocompromised
diabetes
dialysis
burn unit patient

128
Q

list functions of a provisional crown for an EDP# and exposed RCT

A

improve aesthetics and provide pt with realistic expectations
improve functions of mastication and speech
resolve gingival inflammation and provide adequate gingival health prior to fitting the definitive restoration
to act as a marker for the dentist for tooth prep
prevents sensitivity
preserves tooth vitality
used as isolation for RCT

129
Q

name 3 types of prefabricated crowns

A

polycarbonate crowns
clear plastic
metal (aluminium/stainless steel)

130
Q

give disadvantages of prefabricated crowns

A

inaccurate fit ervically, occlusally, interdentally
if a large bank of crowns is needed it is very expensive

131
Q

what factors can result in tooth mobility?

A

traumatic occlusion (bruxism)
trauma
periodontal disease
dental abscess

132
Q

What are the types of posts?

A

manufactured - pre-formed

material - cast metal, steel, zirconia, carbon, glass fibre

shape - parallel sided or tapered

133
Q

How do you determine the difference between a facial palsy and a stroke?

A

Stroke - patient can wrinkle forehead and blink

facial palsy - face is affected on the same side where LA was given, cannot move upper or lower face

Stroke affects the opposite side of the body from the location in the brain that is affected

134
Q

How would you manage a patient that has a facial palsy due to LA?

A

Reassure the patient
explain the sensation and muscle control will return once the LA wears off
Give the patient an eyepatch or tape the eye closed to protect the eye until blinking function returns
give emergency contact number

135
Q

what features should be present on maxillary definitive impressions?

A

tuberosity
hamular notch
extension anterior to the vibrating line for post dam
functional depth and width of sulcus to create a food peripheral seal and ensure hard palate and residual ridge are functional for primary support

136
Q

what features should be present on a mandibular definitive impression?

A

coverage of pear-shaped pad and buccal shelf
retro-molar pad and extension into the lingual pouch should occur
functional width and depth of the sulcus
ensure there is area of primary support of buccal shelf and retromolar pad

137
Q

what general features should be present on definitive impressions?

A

ensure denture bearing areas are covered
ensure there is good functional sulcus present
ensure there is good surface detail with no air blows

138
Q

what indicates the posterior border of the maxillary denture?

A

post dam- sits 1-2mm anterior of vibrating line

139
Q

describe the use of impression compound for primary impressions

A

non-elastic material which records poorer surface detail
expensive and can be messy
good for primary due to high mucocompressive viscosity

140
Q

describe the use of alginate for primary impressions

A

elastic material- will flow into undercuts
can record surface detail for primarys

141
Q

describe the use of silicone for master impressions

A

dimensionally stable
can be made into a variety of consistencies which means it accurately records surface detail

142
Q

describe the use of polyether/impregum for master impressions

A

dimensionally stable
can be made into a variety of consistencies which means it accurately records surface detail

143
Q

what provides retention for dentures?

A

accurate fit - as little space as possible between denture base and mucosa
border seal- extending flanges to the depth of functional sulcus and incorporation of post dam

144
Q

what is the primary support area for maxillary dentures

A

hard palate

145
Q

what are two areas in a maxillary denture that may require relief

A

midline suture
incisive papilla
lingual frenum

146
Q

what are the primary support areas in lower dentures

A

buccal shelf and pear shaped pad

147
Q

label from left to right and explain

A

labial sulcus - overextension causes denture to look bulky

incisive papilla - may need to relieve here due to underlying nerves , indicates where teeth have been

buccal frenum - in premolar area, connects to cheek

palatine raphe - midline of denture, tissue tight

tuberosity - most distal extension of maxilla

vibrating line - junction of hard and soft palate

palatine foveae - dimples in soft palate behind vibrating line

hamular notch - junction of maxilla to hamular process, overextension causes ulceration

buccal sulcus - overextension loses muscle balance, under-extended loses peripheral seal and makes unretentive

palatine rugae - lumps in palate

labial frenum - muscle attachment to midline, may need relieved

148
Q

label from left to right and explain

A

labial sulcus

lingual frenum - attachment to tongue

buccal sulcus - overextension loses muscle balance, under-extended loses peripheral seal and makes unretentive

retromolar pad - most distal extension of mandible, rest denture as far back as possible here

buccal shelf - primary support area, make sure denture extended as far back as this

lingual sulcus - mylohyoid ridge here and may cause discomfort

buccal frenum

labial frenum

149
Q

what are records required for mounting casts on a semi adjustable or average value articulator

A

face bow
inter occlusal record on the retruded axis

150
Q

what are the functions of a sealer during endodontic treatment?

A

lubricate the canal
seal space between dentinal wall and core
fill voids and irregularities within the canal and between GP cones during lateral compaction

151
Q

give reasons for obturating

A

entomb remaining surviving microorganisms within the root canal system
prevent ingress of fluid into root canal space which will promote the growth of surviving microorganisms
prevent entry of microbes from the oral environment due to coronal leakage

152
Q

name 5 general oral surgery principles that should be adhered to when carrying out flap surgery

A

create maximal access with minimal trauma- bigger flaps heal just as quickly as small ones
use the scalpel in one firm continuous stroke
minimise trauma to dental papilla
keep the tissues mosie
aim for healing by primary intention to minimise scarring

153
Q

what handpiece and bur are used to cut bone?

A

straight electrical hand piece with saline cooled bur
round of fissure tungsten carbide burs
air drive handpieces may lead to surgical emphysema and embolisms to form

154
Q

describe factors which influence flap design

A

the type of surgery being carried out
proximity of important structures such as nerves and muscles e.g. lingual nerve can be damaged during surgical removal of lower 3rd molars
depending on the area of the mouth e.g. to improve aesthetics
ability to access/visualise and ability to suture it back

155
Q

give methods of debridement prior to suturing

A

mechanical
* bone file/ handpiece to remove any sharp bony edges
* mitchell’s trimmer/victoria currette for soft tissue debris
irrigation
* sterile saline/water put into socket under flap to wash out debris
suction
* aspirate under flap to remove debris

156
Q

what are the aims of raising a flap?

A

allows better access to the tooth if finding any difficulty to extract e.g. abnormal resistance, ankylosis etc.
helps with closure of an OAF

157
Q

state the aims of retracting a flap

A

protection of the soft tissue
better access and vision

158
Q

draw flap of retained root of lower premolar

159
Q

name 3 regulations for waste disposal

A

the controlled waste regulations 2012
the hazardous waste directive 2011
the environmental protection act 1990

160
Q

name the SICPs

A

patient placement/assessment for infection risk
hand hygiene
respiratory and cough etiquette
PPE
safe management of care equipment
safe management of care environment
safe management of linen
safe management of blood and bodily fluid spillages
safe disposal of waste including sharps
occupational safety- prevention and exposure management

161
Q

what is the sinner circle?

A

shows components essential for adequate cleaning
* chemicals
* temperature
* time
* energy (mechanical force)

162
Q

what features of cerebral palsy would impair your access to the mouth?

A

muscle stiffness (hypotonia)
muscle weakness
random and uncontrolled body movements

163
Q

give two ways you can aid a patient who struggles to open their mouth

A

mouth rests for opening
bedi shield

164
Q

name 4 types of dementia

A

alzheimers
vascular
frontotemporal
dementia with lewy bodies

165
Q

name 3 cognitive testing methods for dementia

A

MMSE
blessed dementia scale
the montreal cognitive assessment (MoCA)

166
Q

what are the advantages of the mini mental state examination?

A

well known
easy to administer

167
Q

what are the cons of of the mini-mental state examination?

A

not sensitive to mild impairment
not sensitive in testing frontal lobe
non-standardised time between registration and recall

168
Q

How do you assess capacity ?

A

being incapable of:
- Acting
- Making a decision
- Communicating decision
- Understanding decision
- Retaining the memory of a decision

AMCUR

169
Q

what clotting factors does the liver produce?

A

1, 2, 7, 9 ,10 and 11

170
Q

Apart from clotting factors what other product essential for achieving haemostasis is produced in the liver?

A

Thrombopoietin

171
Q

give features of parkinsons disease

A

bradykinesia- slow movement
rigidity- increase motor tone
mask like face
resting tremors
posture instability, impaired use of upper limbs

172
Q

how does parkinsons differ from other cerebellular diseases?

A

resting tremors as apposed to intentional active tremors

173
Q

how does parkinsons cause dry mouth?

A

anticolinergic effects of drugs e.g. benztropine

174
Q

what drugs can cause xerostomia?

A

tricyclics
anticholinergic
benzodiazepines
diuretics
opioid
nicotine

175
Q

what is the drug action of flucanazole?

A

interupts conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol by interacting with the enzyme which catalyses the conversion which stops formation of fungal membrane

176
Q

what is the drug action of nystatin?

A

binds to sterols in plasma membrane of fungi, causing cells to leak
this causes fungal cell death

177
Q

what is the mechanism of apixaban?

A

a selective inhibitor of FXa
does not require antithrombin III for antithrombic activity
inhibits free and clot-bound FXa and prothrombinase activity
has no direct affect on platelet aggregation, but indirectly inhibits platelet aggregation induced by thrombin
decreases thrombin generation and thrombus developmen

178
Q

what are the uses of apixiban?

A

prevention of DVT
prevention of pulmonary embolism
can prevent stroke and reduce risk in pts with AF