Closing Flashcards

1
Q

settlement vs closing

A

In settlement, the closing attorney prepares and/or gathers all the documents and funds needed to close the transaction.

Then…

In closing, the closing attorney uses the prepared documents and funds received to execute the final steps or activities of closing

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2
Q

Conner Act

A

to protect interests in real estate, the interest must be registered with the register of deeds in the county where the property is situated.

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3
Q

In North Carolina, what final action or event takes place after settlement but prior to closing before the transaction is considered complete?

A

In North Carolina, before a real estate transaction can truly be considered closed, the recordation of the deed and deed in trust in the county registry must take place. Only then, can the possession of the property by the buyer and the payment of proceeds from the sale to the seller occur.

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4
Q

A settlement agent is

A

the entity or person who conducts the closing of a real estate transaction.

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5
Q

More often than not, a North Carolina _______ will be selecting the closing attorney to act as the settlement agent.

A

buyer

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6
Q

When giving the buyer names of possible closing attorneys, the agent should: (4)

A

Educate the buyer regarding the nature of the responsibilities of a settlement agent, specifically the legal aspects of the job

Make clear that there is no obligation to use any attorney suggested

Assure the buyer that the agent will earn no referral fee from the attorney selected

Provide the buyer with multiple viable recommendations of attorneys who could fill this role

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7
Q

According to North Carolina Real Estate Commission rules, what is the earliest that a broker can turn over earnest money to the settlement agent before the settlement date?

A

Per the North Carolina Real Estate Commission rules, the broker should turn over the earnest money to the settlement agent, no earlier than 10 days prior to the settlement date.

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8
Q

The NCBA/NCAR 2-T Offer to Purchase and Contract gives the delaying party ____ days past the scheduled settlement date, as long as that party has been operating in good faith and communicates with the other party.

A

7

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9
Q

Related to the issue of time being of the essence, the buyer needs to understand that the NCBA/NCAR 2-T Offer to Purchase and Contract provides no provision for terminating a contract if the buyer fails to

A

obtain financing.

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10
Q

these documents should be reviewed during the DDP.

A

covenants, rules, and regulations

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11
Q

In the event that a prospective buyer chooses NOT to have a property inspected, the agent should secure a signed written statement from the buyer-client stating that they made this choice despite the agent’s recommendation to have the property inspected.

In North Carolina, the form to use is the

A

Professional Services Disclosure and Election Form.

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12
Q

Utility refers to

A

the degree to which something performs its desired function.

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13
Q

The general inspector is expected to:

A

The general inspector is expected to visually inspect accessible systems and components.

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14
Q

A North Carolina broker cannot advertise a property as having more bedrooms than are allowed by the septic permit regardless of

A

how many rooms in the home are being used as such! 🚨

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15
Q

The critical material facts to investigate/disclose when it comes to a septic system involve: (3)

A

Is there a permit?

Is the system in good working order?

Is the system’s capacity sufficient for the number of bedrooms (expected use)?

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16
Q

A home inspection reveals that the roof leaks. Buyer Nastya asks her agent Perle for her advice on what to do about the roof repair. Which of the following is the BEST response for Perle to give Nastya?

A

Perle should advise that she seek the professional opinion of a roof specialist, and present her with options.

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17
Q

Agents should do ______ during the due diligence period in order to confirm and discover material facts for themselves

A

walkthrough inspections

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18
Q

As an agent, it will be your responsibility to inquire about the “red flag” issues. Some common examples of red flags include:

A

Old plumbing – When you turn on the faucet, is the water pressure low? The piping could need an update.

Sewer problems – Is there standing water in the yard? Are there signs of flooding in the basement? This could point to a break in the underground sewer line.

Worn roofing – Are there water stains on the ceiling? This could be a sign of a leaky roof. Has the ceiling been freshly painted? This could indicate that the seller is attempting to conceal water stains. Consider it a red flag!

Old electrical wiring – If the home is much older, it may have hazardous aluminum wiring, creating a potential fire risk.

Pest damage – Are there small piles of wood dust visible on the floor? That’s a red flag that there may be carpenter ant damage. When you knock on a wooden beam, does it sound hollow inside? That could be a sign of termite damage.

Foundation issues – The big one. Are there cracks in the foundation or basement floor larger than a quarter-inch? Bumps on the basement floor? Misaligned door frames or windows? All could spell trouble for the foundation.

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19
Q

Once the home inspection is completed, the buyer then has to determine the following, based on the inspection results: (5)

A

What needs to be repaired?

Who will make the repairs?

What things should be credited and how much should the credits be?

What issues can, or should, be ignored?

Which problems are deal-breakers that may prevent the buyer from purchasing?

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20
Q

If the buyer and seller negotiate an agreement regarding repairs to be made, this should be documented on the

A

Due Diligence Request and Agreement

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21
Q

If the buyer and seller negotiate a change in the purchase price or amount the seller agrees to pay toward the buyer’s expenses associated with the property purchase, this should documented on

A

Agreement to Amend Contract

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22
Q

A home warranty is

A

a product offered by a company that maintains, repairs, or replaces any applicable component of a home for a specified period of time. This usually applies to major home appliances, electrical and plumbing systems, and the heating and air conditioning systems of a residence. Coverage differs from warranty to warranty. The typical term of coverage is one year.

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23
Q

hazard insurance is

A

insurance against loss or damage to real property improvements. It’s generally limited to necessary replacements and repairs resulting from damages. Some natural disasters and accidents will be covered, but general wear and tear won’t be. Policies vary,

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24
Q

a word of wisdom, repairs should be suggested to be

A

reinspected

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25
Q

This is a sworn statement in which the seller assures the title company (and the buyer) that there are no liens, unpaid bills for repairs or improvements, or undisclosed defects in the title.

A

affidavit as to debts and liens

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26
Q

what documents does the seller give at closing (4)

A

The seller typically deposits such things as the deed, title evidence, affidavits of title, and the payoff letter from their mortgagee.

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27
Q

what documents does the buyer give at closing (6(ish))

A

The buyer will typically deposit the cash needed to close, loan documents, proof of hazard insurance and flood insurance (where required), a survey, and an appraisal.

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28
Q

relation back doctrine

A

once the escrow agent has the deed in their possession, it is considered legally delivered under certain scenarios

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29
Q

who does the closing attorney represent

A

the buyer

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30
Q

what is a bill of sale

A

sometimes a documents used for the sale of personal property along with the real property

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31
Q

Which of these address the closing attorney’s responsibilities regarding fund verification and deed recording?

A

Chapter 45A of the North Carolina Good Funds Settlement Act dictates the closing attorney’s responsibilities regarding verification of funds and the recording of the deed and deeds of trust BEFORE funds can be dispursed.

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32
Q

That said, there are some times when it would not be necessary to report a real estate sale to the IRS. Here they are:

A

If the property being sold was the seller’s principal residence and the sale price is for $250,000 or less (or $500,000 if the seller is married)

If the seller is a corporation or the government (for example, if the house is foreclosed on and sold at auction)

If the net money received is less than $600

There are other exceptions you can read about by looking at the 2021 Instructions for Form 1099-S on IRS.gov/Form 1099S

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33
Q

An IRS Form _________ will need to be filled out in just about every real estate transaction an agent is a part of. Why is this, you ask? The proceeds from the sale of a property will need to be taxed as income.

A

1099-S

34
Q

Who should file the 1099-S form?

A

a “real estate broker” must be the one to report a real estate transaction to the IRS by filing a 1099-S form and the term “real estate broker” encompasses any of the following roles: the seller’s broker, the buyer’s broker, the agent in charge of closing the transaction (the settlement agent, escrow agent, title company, etc.), the lender.

35
Q

Emory is buying a property from Stu, a Canadian citizen. What does FIRPTA require Emory to do?

A

FIRPTA requires people buying property from non-U.S. residents to withhold 15% of the purchase price until they file U.S. taxes.

36
Q

Which government entity promulgated Regulation X?

A

The Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) promulgated Regulation X, the law through which RESPA is implemented. Presently, the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) is responsible for the oversight and implementation of RESPA.

37
Q

For a loan to fall under RESPA, it has to be what is known as a

A

federally related mortgage loan.

RESPA requirements apply when a purchase is financed by a federally related mortgage loan. Federally related loans include loans made by banks, savings associations, FHA loans, VA loans, and others.

38
Q

RESPA Exemptions:

A

Business purpose loans

Temporary financing

Vacant land

Assumption without lender approval

Loan conversions

Secondary market transactions

39
Q

A form of compensation wherein a lender pays a mortgage broker for selling an interest rate to a borrower that is above the normal rate (par rate) for which that borrower would qualify is known as a(n):

A

A yield spread premium (YSP)

40
Q

The normal rate for which a borrower would qualify is sometimes referred to as the:

A

par rate

41
Q

What is the highest amount that an escrow “cushion” can be relative to the estimated annual payment amount?

A

RESPA restricts the cushion to no more than one-sixth (two months) of the estimated annual payment amount.

42
Q

How does establishing an escrow account for the collection and payment of property taxes and insurance protect the lender of a mortgage loan?

A
  1. It prevents the placement of a tax lien that would have priority over the lender’s claim in the event of a foreclosure. 2. It protects the lender’s interest in the event of damage or destruction. The hazard insurance policy will typically list a lender as a loss payee.
43
Q

Given what you know about RESPA’s rules for handling surpluses and shortages found during an escrow account analysis, fill in the following blanks:

A

The servicer shall, within 30 days from the date of the analysis, refund the surplus to the borrower if the surplus is greater than or equal to 50 dollars.

If the surplus is less than 50 dollars, the servicer may refund such amount to the borrower, or credit such amount against the next year’s escrow payments.

44
Q

Which of the following are possible courses of action for a servicer when an escrow account analysis reveals a shortage greater than or equal to one month’s escrow amount payment?

A

The servicer may allow a shortage to exist and do nothing to change it, or the servicer may require the borrower to repay the shortage amount in equal monthly payments over at least a 12-month period.

Only if the shortage amounts to less than one month’s escrow account payment may the servicer require the borrower to repay the shortage amount within 30 days.

45
Q

What is the deadline that a lender or mortgage broker has to personally deliver or mail the “special information booklet” to an applicant of a loan subject to RESPA?

A

For any loan subject to RESPA, a lender or mortgage broker has three business days following receipt of a loan application to personally deliver or mail the prospective borrower a “special information booklet.”

46
Q

According to the “special information booklet,” at least how many Loan Estimates should a borrower get when comparison shopping for lenders?

A

3

47
Q

In addition to mortgage loans, what are the two other types of loans discussed in the special information booklet?

A

In addition to mortgage loans, the two other types of loans discussed in the special information booklet are home equity lines of credit and refinancing loans.

48
Q

Why is the payment for referrals prohibited by RESPA?

A

Payment for referrals is considered a problem because kickbacks and referral fees are seen as drivers of higher costs to consumers.

49
Q

The fact that a kickback or referral fee doesn’t result in any additional costs to the consumer:

A

The fact that the transfer of the thing of value does not result in an increase in any charge made by the person giving the thing of value is irrelevant in determining whether the act is prohibited.

50
Q

A violator of RESPA’s prohibition on kickbacks could face a fine of:

A

A violator of any of RESPA’s prohibitions could face a fine of not more than $10,000.

51
Q

What act directed the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau to integrate the mortgage loan disclosures under TILA and RESPA sections 4 and 5?

A

dodd-frank

52
Q

After how many days of receiving the application for a loan, must the lender must provide the buyer a Loan Estimate?

A

3 business days

53
Q

If an escrow account isn’t set up for items like estimated taxes, insurance, and assessments, what should the borrower expect?

A

If items like estimated taxes, insurance, and assessments are not escrowed, the borrower should expect to pay those costs directly, often in large, lump-sum payments.

54
Q

If there is an amount listed on the “% of loan amount” line under the Origination Charges section, it means that the buyer is paying

A

points to the lender to reduce the interest rate. The buyer should ask the lender what other options may be available, and how the other options would impact the interest rate and the total cost of the loan.

55
Q

Lender credits are given by the lender to the buyer as a way to offset:

A

If the buyer has any lender credits, it means that the lender is giving the buyer a rebate to offset their closing costs. The buyer may be paying a higher interest rate in exchange for this rebate. A similar loan may be available with a lower interest rate and without lender credits. The buyer can ask the lender what other options are available.

56
Q

By signing the Loan Estimate form, the buyer is:

A

By signing the Loan Estimate form, the buyer is acknowledging receipt of the form.

57
Q

permissible variations (tolerance limits)

A

No Tolerance: Some costs can’t change from the estimate at all. They must stay the same.

10% Tolerance: Some costs can change, but only by a small amount, up to 10% more than what was estimated.

Unlimited Tolerance: There are a few costs that can change by any amount, even if they end up being much higher than what was estimated.

58
Q

If a revised Loan Estimate is necessary, the lender must deliver a revised Loan Estimate to the borrower:

A

If a revised Loan Estimate is necessary, the lender must deliver a revised Loan Estimate to the borrower within three days of having received the information causing the revision and no later than four business days prior to consummation.

59
Q

Which of these scenarios would fall under the CFPB’s list of common reasons a revised Loan Estimate could be triggered?

A
60
Q

What two loan forms were consolidated into what is now known as the Closing Disclosure?

A

In 2015, the final Truth-in-Lending disclosure (TILA) and the HUD-1 Settlement Statement (RESPA) were consolidated and replaced by a document known as the Closing Disclosure.

61
Q

When must the borrower receive the Closing Disclosure from the lender?

A

The borrower must receive the Closing Disclosure from the lender no later than three business days before consummation.

62
Q

What’s the difference between the Loan Estimate form and Closing Disclosure form?

A

The Loan Estimate form is a good faith estimate of the costs of the loan applied for. The Closing Disclosure form basically shows the same information but in its finalized form.

63
Q

The Loan Estimate for Michael Jones and Mary Stone refers to two dates or timeframes in which certain financial costs or consequences are associated. What are those and what do they create for you as their broker?

A

The Loan Estimate for Michael Jones and Mary Stone contains a rate lock that is good until April 16th. Additionally, this loan features a prepayment penalty if the loan is paid off in the first two years. As their broker, you will want to make them aware of these dates and their financial impact. For the rate lock, you simply need to help your clients meet the deadline if the rate is critical to them. For the prepayment penalty, you need to make sure you understand what is their intent regarding the purchase of the property. If they plan to stay in the home for the foreseeable future, this may not be a concern. If they hope to fix it up and resell it for a profit, then their expected timeframe for making that happen could affect the desirability of this loan.

64
Q

When you compare the figures in the Costs at Closing (bottom of page 1) for the LE and the CD for Michael Jones and Mary Stone, you’ll find that the amount is almost $1,700 higher on the CD than it is on the LE. What would account for this difference? How would you go about finding this out?

A

Costs figures for the two forms. Differences are okay as long as they can be explained, but you want a few surprises as possible.

65
Q

debits vs credits in the context of settlement

A

credits = money that is owed to you
debits = money that you have to pay

66
Q

Proration is

A

the act of dividing or allocating expenses between buyers and sellers based on the actual period of ownership and/or usage of the item or service.

67
Q

Accrued items are

A

are costs that have been incurred, but have not been paid for yet. Accrued costs are costs owed by a seller, but which will ultimately be paid by a buyer after they receive title to a property.

68
Q

A prepaid item is

A

an item that has been paid for ahead of time, generally by the seller. A buyer must then generally “purchase” this item from the seller at the time of the sale, either with cash, credits, or in some other way that the principals have negotiated.

69
Q

What is the term “double-entry” referring to in the context of proration in settlement accounting?

A

Prorations involve a “double-entry,” meaning a credit listed to one party on the settlement statement should appear in the debit column for the other party — and vice versa.

70
Q

The 360-day year is

A

known as a “banker’s year.” It’s commonly used in banking to make calculations easier. That way, the year is cleanly divided into 12 months of 30 days each.

71
Q

The 365-day year is

A

sometimes also called the “conventional calendar year,” because its divisions reflect the actual months of the calendar that most of us use. To calculate the daily charge for an item using the conventional calendar year, divide the yearly charge by 365 (366 in a leap year).

72
Q

If settlement occurs after the seller has paid the property taxes, proration is

A

Using the 365-day year method, the seller will get a credit for the amount for which the buyer is responsible, and the buyer will see that same amount as a debit.

73
Q

this is a reminder to do alot of proration math practice

A
74
Q

reconciliation is the context of settlement is

A

is the calculation that needs to be done to get to the bottom-line figures. It’s a fairly straightforward adding of credits and subtracting of debits for each party.

75
Q

cash-to-close amount can be calculated by

A

adding up all the debit charges and subtracting the credit amounts from the purchase price.

76
Q

As you review settlement statements, you’ll come across the abbreviation POC. That’s short for Paid Outside of Closing.

POC will be used to

A

fees or payments rendered outside normal title insurance and underwriting fees due at the time of closing a loan. When acquiring a mortgage or refinancing, a lender or broker may show that an appraisal fee is POC because the fee is usually due at the time of service, prior to closing.

77
Q

Why would a mortgage insurance premium appear in the Loan Charges category of the ALTA settlement statement?

A

Mortgage Insurance Premium is a fee that would be assessed if the settlement statement is for a conventional loan with less than a 20% down payment.

78
Q

Where would information regarding the monthly charges associated with the escrow account appear on the ALTA settlement statement?

A

impounds category

79
Q

Where would charges associated with notarization appear on the ALTA settlement statement?

A

title/escrow/settlement charge

80
Q

In the Acknowledgement section of the ALTA settlement statement, the buyer and seller state:

A
81
Q

The HUD-1 Settlement Statement is used primarily for

A

mortgage loans that are not subject to TRID, such as:

Cash transactions

Construction loans

Investment property loans

82
Q

interim interest, which is

A

the mortgage interest earned for the remaining days of the month after the settlement date. (This only has to be figured out once for that first partial month when a loan begins.)