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OM - B > Closed Book > Flashcards

Closed Book Flashcards

1
Q

AC generators and hydraulic pumps are driven by the?

A

Accessory gearbox

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2
Q

What will be the reference air speed for the AFCS if an engine fails?

A

Vy

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3
Q

What effect will a single tail rotor control cable have upon yaw control of the helicopter?

A

No effect

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4
Q

At which visibility should a commander monitored approach be used?

A

Below 1500 m

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5
Q

At which altitude do yo set 1013 on your altimeter climbing to FL offshore?

A

3000 feet

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6
Q

By what deviations from the intended HDG, IAS and on an ILS approach is a deviation call required?

A

More than 5 degree from the intended heading, 10 kts from the intended air speed and more than 1 dot on localizer and or glide slope.

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7
Q

What is the standard speed for IMC approaches?

A

100 kts

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8
Q

In regard to communication with ATC, what are the phrase to be used when a TCAS RA is commenced and after its completion?

A

BHL xxx TCAS RA climbing/descending- RA complete, climbing/descending to x thousand feet.

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9
Q

According to the regulations for RNAV operations, the MAWP is always a Fly By Waypoint, correct?

A

No

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10
Q

A helideck is per definition a unstable/moving landing area when the…

A

Pitch or roll exceeds 1 degree either side and the vertical movement exceeds 2 meters, and/or if the heave rate exceeds 0,3 m/s.

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11
Q

An approach is stabilized when the following criteria is met:

A

The aircraft is on the correct flight path
Only small changes in heading/power are required to maintain the correct flight path to landing.
The aircraft is in the correct landing configuration.
The ROD is within +/-300ft/min of briefed ROD, not exceeding the maximum recommended in the aircraft flight manual, or OM part B, and not exceeding 600ft/min below 500 feet.
All briefings and checklists have been completed.

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12
Q

Approaches shall be stabilized when:

A

Ifr onshore - below 1000 feet above airport elevation.
Ifr offshore - within 2 nm of the destination.
Vfr onshore- by 300 feet above airport elevation.
Vfr offshore - by 300 feet AMSL

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13
Q

Climb TCAS resolution advisory during cruise flight is announced. The PF should decouple and aim to achieve a nose up pitch/attitude of …. Degrees

A

8 degrees

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14
Q

At what height above the airfield elevation should you start to reduce your airspeed on a commander monitored approach when the visibility is below 1000 meters?

A

1000 feet

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15
Q

Radio altimeter is one of the inputs to the AFCS. For which modes are the RA inputs used?

A

R-ALT and DCL

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16
Q

A position report shall contain the following information

A
  1. Aircraft identification- callsign
  2. Position
  3. Time
  4. Flight level or altitude
  5. Next position and time over
17
Q

Requirement for offshore en route descent?

A

Cloud base and visibility of:
Day: 600 feet and 4 km
Night: 1200 feet and 5 km

18
Q

Where can you find an overview about light signals given to an aircraft in case of communication failure?

A

OM A chapter 12 - rules of the air

19
Q

Where can you find the procedure regarding how to handle BMS exceedance?

A

OMB chapter 3 - emergency procedures

20
Q

Where is the VHF com 1 antenna located?

A

On the top of the fuselage.

21
Q

ENG 1 A-ICE DGR caution, bleed air or electrical?

ENG 1 A-ICE FAIL

A

Bleed air when degraded and electrical when Fail.

22
Q

Which component has oil level indicated in cockpit when rotor is stopped?

A

The intermediate and tail rotor gearbox.

23
Q

Why does the FADEC’s provide torque, engine temperature,Np,Ng and fuel flow to the AFCS?

A

To limit the collective axis when coupled to altitude or vertical speed mode

24
Q

Give a full long runway take off briefing

A

This will be a long runway take-off on runway 17 with TDP of 15 feet and 45 KIAS.
We will fly the A4C departure, runway heading until 700 feet, turning right to intercept the 17 dme arc from Vollo and climbing to 2000 feet.
Contingency procedure..
Vtoss is 60 KIAS.
In case of a major malfunction before I have called committed we will land back. In case of a major malfunction after I have called committed we will continue. You will advise me of Nr, radalt and airspeed.
Only immediate actions may be performed before safe altitude and speed(80&500).
We will use standard calls.

25
Q

What is the purpose of the drive shaft damper (snubber) installed on the drive shaft section number 3 and number 4?

A

Dampen radial movements of the shafts at speeds that cause harmonics.

26
Q

Is it technically possible to select PFD layout on all of the MFDs at the same time?

A

Yes

27
Q

What may be the situation if a selected AFCS mode ( example a LOC below a green indicated HDG) is displayed in white text at the upper part of the PFD?

A

The AFCS mode is armed, but not yet captured.

28
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with the cargo ramp open?

A

Flight with the cargo ramp open is not allowed.

29
Q

What is the normal rotor speed operating range (dual engine)?

A

104%-106%

30
Q

Select the correct statement.. regarding capacity of the life rafts

A

Each liferaft can carry 14 people, with an overcapacity of 21

31
Q

What is the transponder code for hi-jacking?

A

7500

32
Q

What is minimum airspeed for instrument flight?

A

50 kias

33
Q

The commander shall not commence an en-route descent below MSA in IMC during a flight over water ( offshore descent not executed as ARA), unless the weather is reported better than ?

A

Day : cloudbase 600 feet and visibility 4 K

Night: cloud base 1200 feet and visibility 5K

34
Q

On an ARA approach is the maximum tailwind component limited to

A

10 kts

35
Q

The highest priority during an emergency landing should be the following item

A

Maintain control and fly the aircraft

36
Q

What is the minimum speed to use the go around button

A

50 kts

37
Q

According to the regulations for RNAV operations the MAWP is always a flyby waypoint. Correct?

A

No

38
Q

The position report shall contain the following information

A

Call sign, position and time, altitude/flight level, ETO next reporting point, next reporting point if it is a special point.

OM - B (4 decks)

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