Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Reproduction > Clinical- Week 5 > Flashcards

Clinical- Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

what 3 shunts are present in the foetus before birth?

A

ductus venosus
foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the neonatal period?

A

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how long should gestational correction for growth charts be used for?

A

1 year for infants born 32-36 weeks

2 years for infants born under 32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where do you do the cap refill of a baby?

A

chest (sternum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

compare causes of early and late onset neonatal sepsis?

A

early onset sepsis: bacteria acquired before and during delivery
late onset sepsis: acquired after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

compare the content of foremilk and hindmilkd?

A

foremilk- rich in protein

hindmilk- rich in fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is gastroschisis?

A

a birth defect in the abdominal wall where the bowels are on the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does lung aeration occur as babies take their first deep breaths?

A

fluid is pulled from alveolar tissue back into lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what ligaments do the ductus arteriosus and ductus venosus become?

A

ductus arteriosus becomes the ligamentum arteriosus

ductus venosus becomes the ligamentum teres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what happens if cataracts are not taken out within 4-6 weeks of life?

A

cortical blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the main source of heat production in a neonate?

A

breakdown of brown adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why are preterm babies at a particular risk of hypothermia?

A

less brown adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the normal apgar score?

A

8 or more out of 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the period of time during pregnancy where there is greatest teratogenic risk? and why?

A

4th to 11th week

-organogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in what case may you miss fetal hypothyroidism?

A

if hypopituitarism (secondary hypothyroidism(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does the foramen ovale remain open in the fetus?

A

right atrium pressure is higher than left atrium pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the treatment of transient tachypnoea?

A

self-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

when intestines protrude through a hole in the diphragm into the thoracic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is transient tachypnoea caused by?

A

failure to reabsorb lung fluid sufficiently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the most common neonatal surgical emergency?

A

necrotising enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how much folic acid should be given pre-conceptually and for how long?

A

3 months preconception up to first 3 months of pregnancy

400mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes closure of the foramen ovale?

A

decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance and increasing systemic vascular resistance
leftt atrium pressure becomes higher than right atrium pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if a pregnant women has significant risk factor (2+)s for venous thromboembolism, what drug should be commenced?

A

low molecular weight heparin thromboprophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what 3 organisms are the main cause of sepsis in the newborn?

A

group B strep (main)
E. Coli
listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when do most intraventricular haemorrhage take place?

A

first day of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what domains does the Apgar score assess?

A 
HR
resp rate
responsiveness
tone
colour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in the 3rd trimester, how does the baby prepare for the hypoxic phases of labour?

A

stores oxygen in liver, muscle and heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the management of persistent pulmonary hypertension?

A
  • sedate baby to reduce stess
  • keep warm
  • inotropes to increase systemic circulation pressure
  • NO to directly dilate vessels in lungs
  • ECLS (extra-corporeal life support) in extreme conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

compare primary, secondary and tertiatry disease prevention?

A

primary prevention: stopping a disease before it starts
secondary prevention: stopping a disease from being as bad as it could be or preventing recurrence
tertiary prevention: stopping later complications from developing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the purpose of hysterosalpingography?

A

assessment of tubal patency in patients with infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what colour is bile?

A

green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is exomphalos?

A

herniation of abdominal contents through a weakness in the abdominal wall where the umbilical cord attaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

if babies lose more than 10% of their birth weight what are they at risk of? what is the management?

A

hyponatraemia

admit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

are obstructions in the newborn congenital or acquired?

A

congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what teratogenic risk does warfarin have?

A

limb, facial defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

in the newborn, what are most acquired problems due to?

A

prematurity

37
Q

what is the name for a dead end of the bowel?

A

atresia

38
Q

what are the 2 major risk factors of intraventricular haemorrhage?

A

prematurity

respiratory distress syndrome

39
Q

what is the treatment of PDA?

A

echo evaluation of how big the duct is

give NSAID for days

40
Q

are perforations in the newborn congenital or acquired?

A

acquired

41
Q

what drug is safe to use in pregnancy for nausea and vomiting?

A

cyclizine

42
Q

how long after birth does it take the ductus arteriosus to close?

A

a few hours

within a few weeks it will remodel into a ligament

43
Q

why is vitamin K given to newborns?

A

to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

44
Q

what is the normal heart rate of a newborn?

A

120-140 beats per minute

45
Q

which antiepiletic drug is particularly associated with cleft lip and palate?

A

phenytoin

46
Q

why does the ductus arteriosus close?

A

constricts in response to PO2 increasing and decreasing prostaglandins

47
Q

what drug is safe to use in pregnancy for pain?

A

paracetamol

48
Q

what is the current use of thalidomide?

A

treatment of leprosy and myeloma

49
Q

when does the booking scan and when does the detail scan occur?

A

booking scan at 12 weeks

detailed scan at 20 weeks

50
Q

why should pregnant ladies avoid taking NSAIDs?

A

NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin levels so can cause ductus arteriosus to close

51
Q

what is vulvodynia?

A

painful vulva/perineum

52
Q

how often should voids occur?

A

roughly every 3 hours when awake

53
Q

what are the 4 congenital abnormalities tetralogy of fallot?

A

VSD
overriding aorta
pulmonary artery stenosis
right ventricular hypertrophy

54
Q

what is the function of the foramen ovale?

A

in the fetus, shunts oxygenated blood from right atrium to left atrium
-bypasses lungs to go to systemic circulation

55
Q

are babies born by vaginal delivery or C section at higher risk of transient tachypnoea?

A

C section

56
Q

if a baby is vomiting bile, what is the diagnosis until proven otherwise?

A

malrotation

57
Q

what is the normal weight of a term baby?

A

2.5kg - 4kg

58
Q

what does an intraventricular haemorrhage first begin with?

A

germinal matrix haemorrhage

59
Q

what teratogenic risk do ACE inhibitors/ARBs have?

A

renal hypoplasia

60
Q

what drug exposure in mothers, is linked to vaginal adenocarcinomas and urological malignancies in 15-20 years old?

A

diethylstilbestrol

61
Q

what is the function of phototherapy for excessive conjugated bilirubin (causing jaundice) in the blood of a newborn?

A

the blue light changes fat-soluble bilirubin into water-solubin bilirubin
this can now be excreted by baby

62
Q

what is the neonatal risk with giving labetalol for pregnancy-induced hypertension?

A

neonatal hypogylcaemia

63
Q

when does retinopathy of prematurity usually occur?

A

usually 6-8 weeks after delivery

64
Q

why is malrotation a very serious condition?

A

can cause bowel to wrap around SMA and cause ischaemia of the gut

65
Q

what was disethylstilbestrol initially marketed for?

A

to prevent recurrent miscarriage

66
Q

what test can determine whether the baby has persistent pulmonary hypertension?

A

there will be a PDA so
using a saturation probe on right arm (supplied by pre-ductal blood) and foot (supplied by post-ducal blood)
sats will be 20% lower

67
Q

which antiepileptic drugs i particularly associated with neural tube defects (such as spina bifida and anencephaly)?

A

valproate

68
Q

how can you monitor intraventricular haemorrhage?

A

US through anterior fontanelle

69
Q

what test do you do for a possible gut malrotation?

A

upper GI contrast with follow through

70
Q

in a diaphragmatic hernia, what can happen to the lung?

A

hypoplastic lung

71
Q

why should yo uavoid the use of tetracyclines in pregnancy and up to 8 years of age?

A

stains teeth and bones

72
Q

what test is done at birth to look for metabolise diseases?

A

guthries heel test

73
Q

what drug is safe to use in pregnancy for heartburn?

A

antacids

74
Q

are breast fed or formula fed babies more at risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

breast fed

75
Q

what is a cephalohaematoma?

A

bleeding under periosteum

76
Q

why are calcium and phosphate supplementation given to premature babies?

A

to prevent osteopenia of prematurity

77
Q

what drug is safe to use in pregnancy for UTI?

A

nitrofurantoin or cefalexin

trimethoprim in 3rd trimester

78
Q

what percentage of birth weight is normal to lose in the first 5 days?

A

10%

79
Q

what is the function of the ductus venosus?

A

in the fetus, shunts oxygenated blood from umbilical vein to the IVC
-bypasses liver to preferentially supply the brain

80
Q

what is the normal respiratory rate of a newborn?

A

40-60/minute

81
Q

what teratogenic risk does lithium have?

A

cardiovascular defects

82
Q

what condition is meconium ileus commonly associated with?

A

CF

83
Q

what happens do protein binding in pregnancy? what effect does this have on the amount of free drug?

A

protein binding decreases

free drug increases

84
Q

what is the function of the ductus arteriosus?

A

in the fetus, shunts blood from pulmonary artery to descending aorta
-bypasses lungs to go to systemic circulation

85
Q

instead of using ACE I/ARBs in pregnancy, what should be used?

A

1st line- labetalol

then methyldopa

86
Q

what can benzodiazepine use in the mother cause in a breastfeeding infant?

A

drowsiness

87
Q

how long should you breast feed and when should you breast feed?

A

at least 6 months (exclusively)

on demand

88
Q

what condition of the gut is common in preamture babies due to the gut not being developed enough?

A

necrotising enterocolitis

Reproduction (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions