clinical relevance / extra pbl Flashcards

1
Q

which airway is an aspirated object more likely to end up

A

right - it is less angulated

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2
Q

ECG signs of sinus invertus

A

R axis deviation; Positive QRS complexes (with upright P and T waves) in aVR; Lead I: inversion of all complexes, aka ‘global negativity’; Absent R-wave progression in the chest leads

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3
Q

what are the main defense mechanisms against inhaled pathogens

A

mucociliary escalator

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4
Q

disease affecting cilia (4)

A

primary cilia diskinesia; cartagenous syndrome; CF; young’s syndrome (yellow nails, pleural effusion)

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5
Q

4 components of the immune response to an infection and how to they work

A

cytotoxic T cells (respond to MHC1 and release perforin);
Natural killer cells (responds to downreg of MHC1 on cells, makes membrane porus);
Interferons (released later e.g. CRP, IL6);
Antibodies (B cells produce specific antibodies, work in numerous ways)

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6
Q

3 actions of interferons

A

signal neighboring cells to put up barriers; signal infected cells to die; recruitment of white blood cells to stimulate long lasting immunity

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7
Q

what should be considered along side CURB65 criteria when deciding whether to admit

A

O2 stats/score; CURB65 alone does not take into all factors

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8
Q

which type pf H.influenzae is fata

A

HI B is fatal -> ear infections + meningitis can be seen in children

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9
Q

what lobes does TB usually affect

A

upper lobes (due to V/Q ratio)

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10
Q

tetracyclines MOA

A

protein synthesis inhibitors - inhibit the initiation of translation in variety of ways by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

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11
Q

penicillin MOA (similar for other β-lactams e.g. amoxacillin, cephalosporin etc.)

A

specifically inhibiting the transpeptidase that catalyzes the final step in cell wall biosynthesis, the cross-linking of peptidoglycan (i.e. cell wall synthesis inhibition)

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12
Q

antimycobacterials (Rifampicin) MOA

A

inhibition of the cell wall synthesis and RNA polymerase blockade

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13
Q

quinolones (ciprofloxican) MOA

A

interfere with DNA replication by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating

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14
Q

what is a B-lactam and give some examples

A

antibiotics are antibiotics that contain a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure - e.g. penicillin, amoxacillin, Oxacillin, cephalosporin

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15
Q

trimethoprim MOA

A

blocking the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, the active form of folic acid, by susceptible organisms - works best on gram +ve cocci

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16
Q

Macroldies (erythromyocin, clarythromyocin etc.) MOA

A

binds to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit causing the cessation of bacterial protein synthesis

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17
Q

what non-tuberculosis mycobacterium is essential to look out for in CF pts

A

Mycobacteroides abscessus
Bacteria

18
Q

what treatment cannot be given is M.abscessus is grown from the pt

A

lung transplant

19
Q

what can pts w an absent spleen not produce

A

loss of ability to filter out infected red blood cells;
reduced number of white blood cells as the spleen is also responsible for controlling the levels of blood cells

20
Q

asplenic pt vaccines (4)

A

Pneumococcal infections, such as pneumonia with a booster every 5 years;
Flu vaccine annually;
MenACWY;
MenB;

21
Q

asplenic pts antibiotics recommendation

A

recommended to take prophylactic antibiotics for the rest of the life to prevent bacterial infections

22
Q

what RTIs are HIV more likely to develop

A

sinusitis, bronchitis, bronchiectasis and pneumonia

23
Q

how does cough arise

A

postnasal mucous drip, also known as upper airway cough syndrome (UACS), other contributing factors may include bronchial hyperresponsiveness

24
Q

causes of chronic cough (8)

A

astroesophageal reflux disease (GERD); ACE Inhibitor use; asthma; bronchiectasis; COPD; chronic lung infection (e.g. tuberculosis); lung cancer and chronic micro aspiration

25
how thick is the mucous blanket covering the RT
5 μm
26
how is resistance reduced in cilia
Sublayer of water below mucus
27
what does lactoferrin do?
binds to iron, limiting the growth of certain pathogenic bacteria that require it to create transport proteins; promotes the growth of beneficial low-iron requiring bacteria
28
what are the 4 stages to macrophage defense in the alveoli
1. recognition - surface receptors or from complement cascade (C3b); 2. migration - neutrophils move from capillaries to alveolar space; 3. ingestion - Microbes englufed but not fully killed until certain signals are received (activation signals from NKCs releasing GMCSF or inteferons); 4. secretion of mediators - defensins (non-oxidative mech that kills many gram +/-ve species, fungi and certain viruses), surfactant proteins (type II Alveolar cells secrete surfactant proteins A and D to enhance phagocytosis)
29
what is the main way in which neutrophils kills pathogens
Oxidation - Neutrophils phagocytose bacteria and kill them with reactive oxygen metabolites like H2O2
30
what is the effect of the enzyme elastase on the muco-cilia (secreted during an infection)
which causes excessive mucus, epithelial cell damage and significant slowing of beat frequency in cilia
31
what is the purpose of coughing
to clear material such as sputum from the airways; It also helps protect the lungs against aspiration
32
7 causes of cough
COUGHIN' C - COPD O - oedema U - upper airways coughing syndrome G - gastro-oesophageal reflux disease H - hypertension medications (ACEi etc.) I - infection N - non-asthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis
33
sensory components of cough
C fibres (affected by factors like bradykinin, histamines, prosoglandins etc.); RAR (rapidly adapting airway mechanoreceptors) and SAR - mechanically driven due to bronchoconstriction, #oedema, high mucous levels etc.; vagus nerve relays signals to brain
34
"computing" component of cough
tractus solitarus (has nay afferent imputs incl ear, heart etc.); signal sent to pons -> cough signal recieved
35
motor components of cough
Inspiratory centre: goes to muscle, pull diagram down, larynx closes -> pressure increase in lungs above 300 mmHg -> Expiratory phase: larynx open, and we cough as pressure changes
36
4 phases of coughing
irritation, inspiraiton, compression, expulsion
37
rifapentine side effects (7)
Black, tarry stools coughing up blood skin rash sore throat trouble breathing with exertion ulcers, sores, or white spots in the mouth unusual tiredness or weakness
38
Rifampicin side effects
thrombocytopaenia; nausea; psychosis
39
Isoniazid side effects
hepatic disorder; Severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs)
40
Ethambutol hydrochloride side effects
Hyperuricaemia; nerve disorders; visual impairment
41
Pyrazinamide side effects (7)
Appetite decreased; arthralgia; dysuria; hepatic disorders; peptic ulcer aggravated; photosensitivity; skin reactions etc.