Clinical Manifestations

Question 1

What are the primary effects of HIV infection?

A) Resembles the infectious mononucleosis (IM)
B) Causes extreme leukopenia in neutrophils
C) Results in increased platelet count
D) Leads to extreme leukopenia in lymphocytes

Answer 1

A) Resembles the infectious mononucleosis (IM)

Question 2

What is one of the primary effects of HIV infection on the immune system?

A) Extreme leukopenia affecting lymphocytes
B) Increased production of red blood cells
C) Enhanced activity of natural killer cells
D) Heightened production of platelets

Answer 2

A) Extreme leukopenia affecting lymphocytes

Question 3

Which mechanism allows the direct spread of the HIV virus from cell to cell, facilitating further infection?

A) Production of antibodies
B) Formation of giant T cells and syncytia
C) Activation of macrophages
D) Increase in CD4 cell count

Answer 3

B) Formation of giant T cells and syncytia

Question 4

What is one of the primary effects of HIV infection in the central nervous system?

A. Increased blood pressure
B. Toxic effects and inflammatory processes
C. Enhanced memory function
D. Reduced oxygen levels in the bloodstream

Answer 4

B. Toxic effects and inflammatory processes

Question 5

What is the term used to describe the state in Secondary effects of HIV?

Answer 5

• Destruction on CD4 lymphocytes

Question 6

What is the final stage syndrome characterized by CD4 depletion?

Answer 6

• Resulting in opportunistic
  Infections and cancers suggestive of cell-mediated immunity
  defect

Question 7

Which of the following statements is true about tests to detect HIV antibodies?

A) These tests are primarily based on the direct detection of the HIV virus itself in serum or other fluids.

B) They are only performed at a single level, making them less accurate.

C) These tests are based on the detection of antibodies specific to the virus and are typically done at 2 levels.

D) These tests are primarily used to identify the viral load in HIV-positive individuals.

Answer 7

C) These tests are based on the detection of antibodies specific to the virus and are typically done at 2 levels.

Question 8

What are the initial screening methods for detecting a specific infection?
A) ELISA, latex agglutination, and rapid antibody test
B) Western blot and PCR
C) Hemagglutination and PCR
D) Gram staining and culture

Answer 8

A) ELISA, latex agglutination, and rapid antibody test

Question 9

Which type of ELISA is typically used for antibody testing?
A) Direct ELISA
B) Indirect ELISA
C) Competitive ELISA
D) Sandwich ELISA

Answer 9

B) Indirect ELISA

Question 10

What is the recommended course of action if a patient tests reactive in the initial screening?
A) Start treatment immediately.
B) Retest to confirm the false positive.
C) Ignore the result and continue with routine check-ups.
D) Perform a PCR test for confirmation.

Answer 10

B) Retest to confirm the false positive

Question 11

What should be done if a patient initially tests negative but is at high risk for infection?
A) Wait for a year before retesting.
B) Repeat the initial screening immediately.
C) Repeat the test after 2-4 weeks.
D) Repeat the test after 3-6 months.

Answer 11

D) Repeat the test after 3-6 months.

Question 12

Which of the following initial screening tests is known for providing rapid results but may result in false positives?

A) PCR
B) Western Blot
C) ELISA
D) RFLP

Answer 12

C) ELISA

Question 13

What is the recommended initial screening test for a particular medical condition, and what is the next step if the patient tests reactive?

A) ELISA - If the patient is reactive, confirmatory testing is performed.

B) PCR - If the patient is reactive, confirmatory testing is performed.

C) X-ray - If the patient is reactive, confirmatory testing is performed.

D) Blood Pressure Measurement - If the patient is reactive, confirmatory testing is performed.

Answer 13

A) ELISA - If the patient is reactive, confirmatory testing is performed.

Question 14

When conducting a confirmatory test for a specific biomarker, which method is commonly used to rule out false positives?

A. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

B. Western blot analysis

C. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

D. NMR Spectroscopy (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy)

Answer 14

B. Western blot analysis

Question 15

Which type of ELISA test detects antibodies to HIV?
A) ELISA DIRECT
B) ELISA INDIRECT
C) ELISA ANTIGEN
D) ELISA HIV

Answer 15

B) ELISA INDIRECT

Question 16

Which type of ELISA test is the most widely used for detecting HIV?
A) ELISA DIRECT
B) ELISA INDIRECT
C) ELISA ANTIGEN
D) ELISA HIV

Answer 16

A) ELISA DIRECT

Question 17

What is the fundamental principle behind test kits that utilize lateral flow chromatography?

A) Electrophoresis
B) Capillary action
C) Mass spectrometry
D) Gel filtration

Answer 17

B) Capillary action

Question 18

Which of the following bands must appear in the patient sample in a Western blot confirmatory test for HIV detection?

A) P24
B) Gp41 or gp120
C) Gp160
D) All of the above

Answer 18

D) All of the above

Question 19

If 2 presents in the band, what result can be reported?

A) Negative result
B) Positive result
C) Inconclusive result
D) No result can be reported

Answer 19

B) Positive result

Question 20

What is the purpose of Lane 2 in the HIV-1 Western Blot?

A) To confirm the presence of HIV-1
B) To serve as a negative control
C) To confirm the presence of HIV-2
D) To serve as a positive control

Answer 20

B) To serve as a negative control

Question 21

What does the result for Sample C indicate in the HIV-1 Western Blot?

A) The sample is negative for HIV-1
B) The sample is indeterminate
C) The sample is positive for HIV-1
D) The sample is positive for HIV-2

Answer 21

C) The sample is positive for HIV-1

Question 22

What is the result for Sample A in the HIV-1 Western Blot?

A) The sample is negative for HIV-1
B) The sample is indeterminate
C) The sample is positive for HIV-1
D) The result cannot be determined from the provided information

Answer 22

A) The sample is negative for HIV-1

Question 23

What is the result for Sample B in the HIV-1 Western Blot?

A) The sample is negative for HIV-1
B) The sample is indeterminate
C) The sample is positive for HIV-1
D) The result cannot be determined from the provided information

Answer 23

B) The sample is indeterminate

Question 24

In an HIV-1 Western Blot test, what does Lane 1 typically represent?

A) Negative Control
B) Sample from an HIV-1 patient
C) Quality Control
D) Positive Control

Answer 24

D) Positive Control

Question 25

How can viral antigens be detected using a nitrocellulose strip and patient serum?

Answer 25

• Viral antigens are placed on a nitrocellulose strip and incubated with patients’ serum.
• Enzyme or biotin-conjugated anti-human globulin (AHG) is added, followed by substrate, resulting in the appearance of bands.

Question 26

What is the purpose of the Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay?

Answer 26

• The Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay is used to detect HIV in infected cells and serves as a confirmatory test.

Question 27

Enumerate the 6 Test for Detecting HIV Genes

Answer 27

1. In situ hybridization
2. Filter hybridization
3. Southern blot hybridization- DNA
4. DNA Amplification
5. PCR- tests HIV RNA
6. Northern blot- measures mRNA antigen

Question 28

What is the primary purpose of a Western blot?

Answer 28

• Used to detect and quantify specific proteins in a sample.