Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

hosa clinical lab + micro > Clinical Lab > Flashcards

Clinical Lab Flashcards

1
Q

The process by which specimens are logged in, labeled, and assigned a specimen identification code

A

Accessioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A voluntary process in which an independent agency grants recognition to institutions or programs that meet or exceed established stands of quality

A

Accreditation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AABB, International association that sets blood bank standards, accredits blood banks, and promotes high standards or performance in the practice of transfusion medicine

A

American Association of Blood Banks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A chemical or substance that prevents blood coagulation

A

Anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The study of bacteria

A

Bacteriology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical lab department where blood components are tested and stored until needed for transfusion; immunohematology department; transfusion services; also the refrigerated unit used for storing blood components

A

Blood bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CMS, agency within the DHHS responsible for implementing CLIA ‘88

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Testing outside the traditional lab setting, also called bedside testing

A

Point-of-care testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Specifies minimum performance standards for all clinical labs

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Under CLIA ‘88, certified labs are classified as preforming what? (Each level of certification can only do what specific test?)

A

Waived tests, test of moderate and high complexity, and provider-preformed microscopy procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Over half of registered CLIA labs are located where?

A

Physician office laboratories (POLs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Labs in small hospitals (Less than 100 beds) primarily do what? (Responsibilies)

A

Routine tests, they send more complicated or infrequent tests to a larger laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A lab in a medium hospital (Up to 300 beds) typically preforms what kind of tests?

A

Routine test as well as more complicated tests, only newly developed test, infrequent tests, and tests that require a high level of skill and special instrumentation need to be sent to a reference laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Large hospital (300+ beds) labs can preform what tests?

A

Complex tests at large volumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tests that have a very low risk of error, includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, urine reagent strip, urine pregnancy tests, blood glucose, and occult blood tests

A

Waived Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name for labs located inside physician offices that typically preform waived tests, over half of CMS-registered labs are these kinds of clinical lab

A

POLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Privately owned, regional labs that preform high-volume tests, usually preform high complexity tests for hospital labs

A

Reference Laboratories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Every state has one of these facilities, which is operated by the state’s department of public health. In these facilities, tests preformed include those mandated by state regulations, like premarital blood tests and PKU testing of newborns, as well as other tests not typically available at other labs, like fungi and mycobacteria cultures and infectious diseases such as HIV

A

State laboratories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

First level of CLIA certificate, can only preform WAIVED tests, which many of can be preformed at home like a urine pregnancy test

A

Certificate of Waiver (COW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Second level of CLIA certification, preform microscopy-based tests on specimens not easily transported, include urine microscopic examinations, abbreviation of Provider-Preformed Microscopy Procedures

A

PPMP Certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3rd, 4th, and 5th levels of CLIA certification, preform moderate to high complexity tests

A

Registration Certificate, Certificate of Compliance, and Certificate of Accredation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Title for the director of a hospital laboratory

A

Pathologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Title for a lab’s technical supervisor

A

Lab manager or chief technologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lab title for a technical consultant or general supervisor

A

Department head, section head, section supervisor, or technical specialists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lab title for testing personnel

A

(In order of responsibilities) Medical/clinical lab scientist, medical/clinical lab technologist, medical/clinical lab technician, and lab assistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Directly under lab director, would be educated in clinical lab science with additional management training or experience, also responsible for making the SOP available to all personnel

A

Technical supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Department of the lab that preforms tests involving blood

A

Hematology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tests preformed in the hematology department that diagnoses and monitors a patient with defects in their blood clotting system

A

Coagulation tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Included in its own department or part of chemistry or hematology, where physical, chemical, or microscopic examinations and tests of urine are preformed

A

Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The largest department in most labs, preforms tests on plasma, serum, urine, and other fluids

A

Clinical Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Specially trained personnel responsible for collecting specimens, sometimes this responsibility is shared with nursing personnel

A

Phlebotomist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In small labs, specimens are taken directly to the department where the test needs to be preformed. In larger labs, specimens are delivered to this area to be processed and logged into a computer to be given an identification code

A

Accessioning area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A voluntary process by which an independent agency grants recognition to institutions or programs that meet or exceed established standards or quality

A

Accreditation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In 1996, Congress passed this act, from which a privacy rule was issued, providing federal protections for personal health information

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Educational requirements for a Medical Lab Scientist

A

Baccalaureate degree, completed specific on-site training, then after being certified they can preform analysis in all lab departments and work as a supervisor, have the title MLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Educational requirements for a Medical Lab Technician

A

Associate’s degree or certificate from an accredited MLT program, and after certification they have the title MLT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treating every patient, body fluid, substance, and unfixed tissues as potentially infectious

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Exposure control methods

A

Standard Precautions, use of PPE, engineering controls (devices that eliminate or minimize worker exposure) and work practices (the manner in which a task is preformed to minimize the likelihood of exposure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tool used in sterilization that works by using steam under pressure to kill bacteria, viruses, and fungi

A

Autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Common disinfection methods

A

Dilute chlorine bleach (1:10 dilution), alcohols 70% to 90%, phenols, and quarternary ammonium compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Chemicals used on skin or tissue to inhibit growth of microbes

A

Antiseptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A measurement of 1/1000, 0.001, or 10^-3

A

Milli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Measurement of 1/100, 0.01, or 10^-2

A

Centi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Measurement of 1/10, 0.1, or 10^-1

A

Deci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Measurement of 1/1000000, or 10^-6

A

Micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Measurement of 10^-9

A

Nano

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Measurement of 10^-12

A

Pico

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Converting an inch to a centimeter

A

Multiply the number of inches by 2.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Convert an ounce to a gram

A

28oz = g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Convert a quart to a liter

A

Q0.95 = L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Convert teaspoons to mililiters

A

Multiply the number of teaspoons by 5 for the number of milliliters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Formula of Fahrenheit to Celsius

A

C= 5/9 (F-32)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Formula of Celsius to Fahrenheit

A

F= 9/5 (C) + 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Dilution Ratio

A

A / (A+B) = C

55
Q

In the dilution ration “A / (A+B) = C”, what substance is each variable?

A

A = Volume of substance being diluted, B = Parts of diluent being added, C = the dilution, the fraction that shows the proportions of substances

56
Q

Branch of medicine concerning blood

A

Hematology

57
Q

The process of stopping bleeding

A

Hemostasis

58
Q

Blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood away from the heart

A

Arteries

59
Q

Smallest blood vessels that connect the smallest of arterioles and veins, have thin walls so nutrients, waste, and other fluids can pass through tissues. Beds of these vessels are where O2 and CO2 exchange occur

A

Capillaries

60
Q

Carry deoxygenated blood from capillaries to the heart

A

Veins

61
Q

About 50% to 60% of blood is made up of this substance, which is more than 90% water, also carries proteins for blood coagulation

A

Plasma

62
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells

63
Q

Leukocytes

A

White blood cells

64
Q

Thrombocytes, fragments of megakaryocytes, help stop bleeding by forming plugs while also releasing chemicals and enzymes

A

Platelets

65
Q

Five types of white blood cells

A

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes

66
Q

Formation and development of blood cells, occurs in bone marrow in adults

A

Hemopoiesis

67
Q

Anticoagulant most frequently used in hematology lab

A

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

68
Q

Anticoagulant used most commonly in coagulation tests

A

Sodium Cirate

69
Q

One of the most common procedures requested in a hematology lab, includes at minimum the RBCC, WBCC, hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell indices, white blood cell differential count, platelet count or platelet estimate, and evaluation of cell morphology

A

Complete blood count

70
Q

The primary component of red blood cells, the oxygen carrying molecule

A

Hemoglobin

71
Q

The measurement of blood hemoglobin indirectly evaluates what other property of blood?

A

The blood’s oxygen carrying capacity

72
Q

A test for a patient’s level of red cell volume, and thus the blood’s oxygen-carrying capacity

A

Hemocrit

73
Q

A special counting chamber used when blood cell counts are preformed manually, also used to count cells in cerebrospinal fluid or sperm

A

Hemacytometer

74
Q

A condition in which there is a decrease below normal in the RBC count or hemoglobin level

A

Anemia

75
Q

The body’s ability to resist disease

A

Immunity

76
Q

Disposable method of counting WBCs and platelets marketed by Biomedical Polymers Inc.

A

LeukoChek

77
Q

System Bioanalytic GmbH offers for RBC counts

A

Ery-TIC

78
Q

System Bioanalytic GmbH offers for WBC counts

A

Leuko-TIC

79
Q

System Bioanalytic GmbH offers for platelet counts

A

Thrombo-TIC

80
Q

Ery-TIC method for diluting for RBC counts

A

995 μL (microliters) of isotonic solution, 5 μL of blood, equaling a 1:200 dilution

81
Q

Leuko-TIC method of diluting blood for WBC counts

A

380 μL of an acetate buffer containing gentian violet, and 20 μL of blood, equaling a 1:20 dilution

82
Q

LeukoChek method of diluting blood for WBC counts

A

Sealed reservoir containing 1.98 mL of buffered ammonium oxalate solution and a 0.02 mL capillary pipet, equaling a dilution of 1:100

83
Q

Method of loading a hemacytometer to count RBC and WBCs

A

The blood dilution is mixed, a micropipetter is used to remove 10 to 15 μL, the pipet tip is touched to the coverglass and one side is loaded, the same is done on the other side

84
Q

Formula used to count RBC using the Ery-TIC method

A

RBC/µL = Average #cells X 10,000 (Add four zeros to the end of average cell count)

85
Q

RBC reference counts

A

Adult Male: 4.5 to 6 X 10^6/μL
Adult Female: 4 to 5.5 X 10^6/μL
Newborn: 5 to 6.3 X 10^6/μL

86
Q

A solution that resists a sudden, marked change in pH when acid or base
(alkali) is added

A

Buffer

87
Q

Red-orange stain or dye

A

Eosin

88
Q

Blue stain or dye

A

Methylene blue

89
Q

Name of the stain that’s a combination of eosin and methylene blue in methanol

A

Wright’s stain

90
Q

The only anticoagulant that can be used for a blood smear

A

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (ETDA)

91
Q

All smears must be stained within how long of being prepared?

A

One hour

92
Q

Electrolytes tested in clinical chemistry

A

Sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate

93
Q

Disease that cause the immune system to react against the body’s own tissue

A

Autoimmune disease

94
Q

B cells, type of immunity that is the primary protection against bacteria, toxins, and circulating antigens, most vaccines use this kind of immunity, it allows lymphocytes to “learn” what antibodies to produce to combat a disease

A

Humoral Immunity

95
Q

T cells, type of immunity that is protection against viruses, fungi, tumors, and intracellular organisms, secrete molecules called lymphokines or cytokines to commute with other cells to regulate the immune system

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

96
Q

Immunoglobulin type that’s the most common antibody in blood, protects against bacterial and viral infections

A

IgG

97
Q

First immunoglobulin activated in immune regulation

A

IgM

98
Q

Immunoglobulin that functions in mucosal tissues (tissues lined with mucous [mucosA])

A

IgA

99
Q

Immunoglobulin that functions as a antigen receptor for B cells
(b=d)

A

IgD

100
Q

The allergic reaction immunoglobulin

A

IgE

101
Q

Primary antibody response: Which antibody is the first detectable, found 3 to 4 days after exposure?

A

IgM

102
Q

Primary antibody response: Which antibody is detectable in serum for 1 to 2 weeks after exposure?

A

IgG

103
Q

Term for when an antibody becomes detectable in the serum or plasma, like you’re exposed on Day 1, you have NO antibodies on Day 2, but you have IgG concentration on Day 4 to 7

A

Seroconversion

104
Q

When does the anamnestic immune response, or secondary immune response, occur?

A

Rapid immune response after re-exposure to the antigen

105
Q

Antibody production during a secondary immune response (Pg 440 in the textbook has an AMAZING graph demonstrating this)

A

IgM and IgG increase rapidly in 2 to 3 days, IgG levels increase much higher than in a primary response, and IgG is detectable for months to years

106
Q

Immune response that makes booster vaccines highly effective

A

Anamnestic/Secondary Immune Response

107
Q

Term for an individual who is more susceptible to disease because of a deficiency or damage to the immune system

A

Immunocompromised

108
Q

Term for the scientific study or examination of blood serum, common term used in the testing of the immune system

A

Serology

109
Q

What does it mean when an immunity test is qualitative?

A

The test only give positive-negative results

110
Q

What does it mean when an immunity test is semi-quantitative?

A

The test gives an estimate of the antibody concentration

111
Q

What does it mean when an immunity test is quantitative?

A

It tests for a count of antibodies

112
Q

Pregnancy tests are based on the detection of what hormone?

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

113
Q

What is immunohematology?

A

The study of human blood groups

114
Q

Advantages of Point-Of-Care testing

A

Rapid results, less traumatic for patients, many different workers in health-care can preform the tests, errors are reduced, and communication between the lab staff, nursing staff, and patients is improved

115
Q

Disadvantages of Point-Of-Care testing

A

Increased costs, increased personnel means increased need for training, poor coordination between testing personnel and central lab can result in poor quality assessment, and the POCT coordinator must be highly skilled in communication, management, and the instruments used for the operation to run smoothly

116
Q

The three types of bacteria morphology

A

coccus (round), bacillus (rod), and spiral

117
Q

What is a gram stain?

A

Procedure that stains bacteria differently depending on their composition of their cell wall

118
Q

Term for when mircoorganisms are growing in blood

A

Septicemia

119
Q

Term for the method that removes all living organisms in an area, commonly preformed by autoclaving

A

Sterilization

120
Q

Parts of the body that are primary lymphoid organs

A

Bone marrow and the thymus

121
Q

Parts of the body that are secondary lymphoid organs

A

Lymph nodes and spleen

122
Q

Humoral immunity protects against bacteria and toxins using antibodies and what kind of lymphocytes?

A

B cells

123
Q

Humoral immunity protects against what using antibodies and B cells?

A

Bacteria and toxins

124
Q

Cell-mediated immunity protects against viruses, fungi, and tumors using lymphokines and what kind of lymphocytes?

A

T cells

125
Q

Cell-mediated immunity protects against what using lymphokines and T cells?

A

Viruses, fungi, and tumors

126
Q

The process of stopping the loss of blood from blood vessels

A

Hemostasis

127
Q

Substance that stops blood from clotting

A

Inhibitors

128
Q

Term for first step in homeostasis; the blood vessel constricts to reduce blood flow to the damaged area

A

Vasoconstriction

129
Q

Cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes, have granules used in coagulation

A

Platelet

130
Q

Second step of homeostasis; platelets come into contact with collagen in the wall of damaged blood vessel and change shape to…

A

Form a plug over the damage in the blood vessel

131
Q

Plasma substances that are produced in the liver and that participate in the formation of the fibrin clot during homeostasis

A

Coagulation factors

132
Q

Vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors

A

II, VII, IX, and X

133
Q

Purpose of B Cells

A

Produce antibodies to fight infections, humoral immunity

134
Q

Purpose of T Cells

A

Prevent infection, cell-mediated immunity

hosa clinical lab + micro (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions