Clinical conditions bible Flashcards

1
Q

PCOS triad

A

Hyperandrogenism
Anovulation
Cystic ovaries on US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cystic ovaries on US characteristics

A

12+ follicles 2-9mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PCOS associated conditions

A

T2DM

Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ectopic pregnancy presents with

A

Abdominal/pelvic pain
Amenorrhea
Cervical motion tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Manage ectopic surgically

A

Laparoscopic salpingectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cystocele

A

Bladder into front vaginal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rectocele

A

Rectum into posterior vaginal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enterocele

A

Prolapse of posterior vaginal wall involving small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Urethrocele

A

Prolapse of lower anterior vaginal wall involving urethra only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vault prolapse

A

Top of vagina bulging down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do you get a vaginal vault prolapse?

A

Post hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Complete vaginal eversion AKA

A

Procidentia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

POP-Q is in relation to the

A

Hymen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nocturia is a sign of

A

OAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OAB?

A

Urinary urgency +/- incontinence with increased frequency/nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Overflow incontinence management?

A

Specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Male vs female c/g test

A

VVS women

First pass urine male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Manage chlamydia new guidelines

A

Doxy 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gonorrhea infects what?

A

Mucus membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chlamydia infects

A

Male urethra and female endocervix/urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common non-viral STI worldwide

A

Trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does trichomonad vaginalis look like?

A

Flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Strawberry cervix

A

TV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Test for trichomoniasis

A

Charcoal swab with microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Manage TV

A

Metranidazole for 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BV is caused by overgrowth of what?

A

Anaerobic organisms and loss of lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BV test

A

High vaginal swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Spriochete bacterium

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does syphilis spread?

A

Gets through skin and mucous membranes, replicates, disseminates throughout bloodstream and lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can you give syphilis to baby?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you know if syphilis has been treated?

A

RPR value decreases 4 fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treat syphilis?

A

Parenteral IM benzylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Candiadasis test

A

Charcoal swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Charcoal swab

A

Thrush / BV / TV / Group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pupils with syphilis

A

Argyl-Robertson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most common non-gonococcal urethritis

A

Mycoplasma genitalium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

NAATS for non-gonococcal

A

HVS women

First pass men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Treat non-gonococcal

A

Doxy 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is itch worse with crabs?

A

Night time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HIV primary infection undergoes __________, then what happens?

A

Seroconversion, flu like symptoms present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

During seroconversion, the patient is not/is contagious

A

Is VERY contagious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does viral load mean?

A

Number of copies of HIV RNA per ml of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

“Undetectable viral load” AKA

A

50-100 copies / ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

HIV, CT shows multiple ring enhancing

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Manage cyst premenopausal
<5cm
5-7cm
>7cm

A

Resolve in 3 cycles
Routine referral, yearly US
Consider MRI or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Persisting or enlarging cysts require

A

Laparoscopy, ovarian cystectomy +/- oophorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

Fibroma, pleural effusion, ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do you treat ovarian torsion?

A

Laparoscopic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

PID is caused by

A

Gonorrhea, chlamydia, mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do you treat non-STI PID?

A

Ceftriaxone and doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is FHC syndrome?

A

Perihepatitis

Inflammation and infection of liver capsule resulting in adhesions between liver and peritoneum = RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

HPV produces what that inhibits P53?

A

E6 and E7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What can cervix look like in cervical cancer

A

Inflamed or friable !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Protective factor in endometrial cancer?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Exam for endometrial cancer pathway

A

TVUS
Pipelle biopsy
Hysteroscopy with biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

GI tract in ovary tumour

A

Krukenberg - signet ring on histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When do you give IV hydralazine?

A

Critical care with hypertension in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Early vs late miscarriage

A

<13 weeks

13-24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Diagnose miscarriage

A

TVUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Manual vs electric vacuum

A

LA

GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

APH measurements

A

<50
50-1000
>1000 or shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Placenta praaevia over internal os manage

A

C-section 36-37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Woody hard uterus

A

Placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Vasa previa delivery

A

C section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Asymptomatic vasa previa manage

A

Corticosteroids and Csection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Placenta accreta diagnosis via

A

Antenatal USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

PPH is prevented how?

A

Active manage

Syntocinon IM/IV + tranexamic acid IV (C/S)

68
Q

Continuous assessment in PPH chart

A

MOEWS chart

69
Q

What is McRoberts manoeuvre?

A

Hyperflexion of hip to provide a posterior pelvic tilt to lift pubic symphysis up and out of way

70
Q

Rubins manoeuvre

A

Reaching into vagina to apply pressure on posterior aspect of baby’s shoulder to move it under pubic symphysis

71
Q

Wood’s screw

A

Performed during Rubins, hand into vagina
Pressure on posterior shoulder
Top shoulder is pushed forward and bottom backwards to rotate baby and help delivery

72
Q

Manouvre to push baby back in so you can perform CS

A

Zavaneli

73
Q

Cord prolapse most significant risk factor

A

Abnormal lie at 37 weeks

74
Q

Cord prolapse treat

A

CS

75
Q

Uterine fibroids are non/tender

A

Non tender

76
Q

Fibroid management

A

<3cm IUS, COCP, NSAIDS

>3cm myomectomy, uterine artery embolization

77
Q

Endometriosis in myometrium

A

Adenomyosis

78
Q

Endometriosis symptoms

A

Deep dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, infertility

79
Q

Confirm vulval lichen sclerosis

A

Vulval biopsy

80
Q

Vulval lichen sclerosis treat

A

Clobetasol Propionate

81
Q

Breast mouse or

A

Fibroadenoma

82
Q

Do phyllodes tumours require intervention?

A

Yup - excision

83
Q

BRCA breast cancer common mets

A

Lungs liver breast brain

84
Q

DCIS usually seen on

A

Mammogram

85
Q

LCIS seen in who? How do you detect?

A

Premenopausal women

Not seen on mammogram - accidental finding

86
Q

Manage LCIS once found

A

6 monthly exam and yearly mammogram

87
Q

Tethering nipple

A

Pagets

88
Q

Paeu d’orange

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

Pitting oedema of breast

89
Q

Diagnosis of breast cancers

A

<40 = US
>40 = mammogram
Core biopsy

90
Q

Tumours of frontal lobe causes changes in

A

Personality/behaviour

91
Q

Most common brain mets are from

A

Lung

92
Q

Extradural tumours are

A

Secondary mets

93
Q

Intradural tumours are

A

Meningiomas, schwannoma

94
Q

Intramedullarly are

A

Astrocytoma, gliomas

95
Q

Investigate meningioma

A

MRI +/- CTA

96
Q

Acoustic neuromes gene

A

Tumour supressor gene on Ch 22

97
Q

Schwanomma removed surgically typically by

A

Gamma knife radiotherapy

98
Q

Craniopharyngiomas are seen in who?

A

5-14 year olds and 50-70 year olds

99
Q

Does chemo work in craniopharyngiomas?

A

No

100
Q

Primary CNS lymphomas are usually

A

Large B cell lymphomas

101
Q

Test in CNS lymphomas

A

Test for HIV

102
Q

Manage primary CNS lymphoma

A

Manage with chemo with radiotherapy

Dexamethasone

103
Q

Most common malignant CNS tumour in kids

A

Medulloblastoma

104
Q

What do medulloblastomas arise from?

A

Cerebellar stem cells between brainstem and cerebellum

105
Q

Medulloblastomas are _______ _______ _________ tumours

A

Malignant primitive neuroectodermal

106
Q

How do medulloblastomas present?

A

Cerebellar signs and diplopia

107
Q

Commonest benign tumour in kids?

A

Pilocytic ast rocytoma

108
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of Pia and arachnoid mater meninges of brain and spinal cord

109
Q

Encephalitis

A

Inflammation of brain tissue itself

110
Q

Neisseria meningitis causing meningitis mostly capsule group

A

B

111
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

Unable to fully extend at the knee when hip is flexed (spinal pain/resistance)

112
Q

Brudzinski’s sign

A

Patient’s knees and hips flex involuntarily when neck is flexed

113
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis of meningitis

A

Single dose ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

114
Q

Silent stroke

A

Radiological or pathological evidence of infarction without history of dysfunction

115
Q

Why would oral COMT be given in Parkinson’s?

A

Given to improve compliance

116
Q

Phenytoin causes what deficiency?

A

Folate

117
Q

Diagnosis of GB by what criteria?

A

Brighton

118
Q

Huntington’s triad and other motor signs

A

Mental disturbance
Cognitive disturbance
Motor disturbance

Chroea, myoclonus, eye movement disorders, dysarthria, dysphagia

119
Q

MG is a what type of sensitivity ?

A

II

120
Q

What antibiotic is CI in MG?

A

Gentamicin –> reduce effectiveness of NMJ transmission, exacerbating symptoms

121
Q

LEMS ________ muscle weakness

A

Prominal lower limb

122
Q

Botulism causes

A

Rapid onset weakness without sensory loss

123
Q

Monitor ICP with what?

A

Mannitol or hypertonic saline

124
Q

How long do you need to have symptoms to diagnose shiz?

A

1 month and 6 months of functional decline

125
Q

Atypical blocks 2 what

A

D2

5HT2a

126
Q

What antipsychotic causes hyperprolactinaemia

A

Risperidone

127
Q

How many ml of alcohol is a unit

A

10

128
Q

3 screening for autism

A

3di
DISCO
ADOS

129
Q

Inflated sense of self importance

A

Narcissism

130
Q

Place of safety order

A

Used by police to transport psych patients when they are in public (135)

131
Q

Emergency detention allows up to

A

72 hours

132
Q

Short term is to what?

A

Administer psychiatric treatment

133
Q

MI in elderly may present at ______ or ______

A

Syncope or delirium

134
Q

Vd is what?

A

Amount given/amount in 1L of blood

135
Q

High Vd is ______ and therefore ______ release from fatty stores

A

Lipophilic

Slow

136
Q

Axonal injury involves a reaction in

A

Cell body

137
Q

________ degeneration of axon during injury

A

Anterograde

138
Q

Acute neuronal injury when?

A

Hypoxia

Ischemia

139
Q

When does gliosis happen?

A

1-2 weeks

140
Q

What infarcts do hypertensives get?

A

Lacunar

141
Q

Presenilin 1 vs 2 chromosome

A

14

21

142
Q

What can help stain Lew Body’s

A

Ubiquitin

143
Q

How many weeks does neural tube form?

A

4 weeks

144
Q

Glial or ______ cells

A

Glue

145
Q

What are grey matter in brain?

A

Somas, synapses, and cell bodies

146
Q

What is inter ventricular foraemen also known as ?

A

Foramen of Munro

147
Q

Basilar artery is from

A

Vertebral arteries

148
Q

Ganglia vs nucleus

A

Ganglia outside CNS

Nucleus in CNS

149
Q

Cerebellar input cells

Cerebellar output cells

A

Granular

Purkinje

150
Q

Aphasia definition

A

Inability to use language

151
Q

Lacunar stroke comes into the ER with symptoms since this morning, what’s the management?

A

Urgent CT of the head and aspirin 300 MG within 24 hours if ischaemic stroke is confirmed

152
Q

Wilson’s disease, ceruplasmin and 24 hour urinary copper levels

A

Low and high 

153
Q

Three first line drugs for dementia

A

Galantamine
Rivastigmine
Donezepil

154
Q

If someone is on sodium valproate and is continuing to have seizures, what do you do?

A

Withdraw drug

155
Q

Unable to stand on your toes and ankle reflexes are reduced, which nerve root

A

S1

156
Q

Another antibody for MG

A

Musk

157
Q

You have given lorazepam to a patient, they have still been seizing for five minutes. What do you do?

A

Wait until 10 minutes have passed and give a second dose of lorazepam

158
Q

A 67-year-old female is concerned about a tremor that she is developing in her hands. It is the same in both hands and worse when she’s using it. She thinks her mother had a similar

A

Benign, essential tremor

159
Q

An 82-year-old female with type two diabetes and hypertension develops a wild flailing movements on one side of his body

A

Subthalmic stroke

160
Q

A seven-year-old male notes he is losing his hand dexterity, an examination, you know what a tremor in the left hand, while he performs task with his right hand

A

Parkinson’s disease

161
Q

79-year-old male with a history of previous strokes, has two episodes of shaking in one hand, each lasting less than two minutes no tremors a parent on examination between episode

A

Partial seizure

162
Q

27-year-old female presents with gradual onset of a tremor in both hands, her family has noticed a change in her voice was variation in speed and volume

A

Wilson’s disease

163
Q

52-year-old male has a daily headache, present and waking from sleep with Jesus through the day. This is associated with nausea and vomiting. It is worse on coffee.

A

Space occupying lesion

164
Q

19 year old university student has headache. It is constant bilateral in reading to the front region and into his neck. He described it as a pressure sensation. He is worried as it is interfering with his revision for his upcoming exams.

A

Tension headache

165
Q

18-year-old university student is brought into the hospital by her flat mate with a headache. It worse throughout the day and radiates into her neck. She is drowsy and febroile on examination.

A

Meningitis

166
Q

20–year-olds wakes up with a unilateral headache. Throbbing, he is tired and photophobic. He has vomited twice.

A

Migraine