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URINARY > clinical > Flashcards

clinical Flashcards

1
Q

pyelonephritis?

A

inflammation of kidneys

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2
Q

nephrotoxicity?

A

renal damage due to toxins

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3
Q

pyuria?

standard level

A

increase wbc in urine - means infection

at least 10 WBC/m^2 of urine

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4
Q

proteinuria standard levels?

A

protein excretion more than 150mg/day

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5
Q

different types of haematuria?

A

visible -macro - visibly red
microscopic
dipstick - after dipstick

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6
Q

definition of microscopic haematuria?

A

more/equal to 3 abc in urine per high power field

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7
Q

standard level of oliguria?

A

urine output less than 0.5ml/kg/hour

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8
Q

anuria?

A

no urine output

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9
Q

polyuria?

A

urine output larger than 3L/24HRS

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10
Q

NOCTURIA definition?

A

waking up at night more than/equal to 1 occasion to pee

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11
Q

serum creatinine? measures?

A

waste product that comes from normal wear and tear - sign that kidneys don’t work well -

more kidney damage/more creatinine

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12
Q

normal gfr level? and what level does the kidney not work well?

A

more than/equal to 90 = 90-120

less than 60 = kidney doesn’t work well

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13
Q

microalbuminua?

can also do?

A

sensitive dipstick test that detects tiny amounts of albumin in urine

albumin:creatinine ratio to check for kidney damage

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14
Q

functions of kidney? 5

A
  • regulate bp
  • electrolyte balance(sodium/potassium/chlorine)
  • excretory functions(drugs/urea)
  • body fluid balance
  • acid/base balance
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15
Q

chronic renal failure is?

A

gradual loss of kidney function

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16
Q

dialysis?

A

artificially removes waste products and extra fluid from blood - can be placed catheter form

like an artificial kidney

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17
Q

how can trauma occur to ureter?

A

cut or tied during hysterectomy or colon resection

trauma from surgery

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18
Q

obstruction of ureter occurs in what 3 ways?

A

intra-luminal - in lumen = stone
intra-mural - scar tissue/tumour
extra-luminal - pelvic mass/LN

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19
Q

tcc?

A

transitional cell carcinoma

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20
Q

hydronephrosis?

A

1/both kidneys become stretched and swollen - due to increased urine in them

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21
Q

renal colic?

A

pain in flanks - pain in lower back

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22
Q

two tumours in bladder?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

TCC of bladder

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23
Q

LUTS?

A

clinical symptoms involving bladder/urethra

voiding - poor stream, urinary retention, incontinence, incomplete voiding

storage - increase freq., increase urgency

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24
Q

urinary incontinence means?

A

loss of bladder control

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25
Q

pneumaturia?

A

air in urine - due to cold-vesical fistula - from colon

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26
Q

what is risk of bladder/renal cancer in patient with visible haematuria?

A

bladder = 25-30%

renal = 0.5-1%

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27
Q

pelvic floor dysfunction? lead to?

A

damage to pelvic floor muscles - lead to stress and incontinence

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28
Q

3 levels of control of micturition?

A

cortical centre - cortex - bladder sensation of fullness and inhibition of micturition

pons - micturition centre

sacral segments - micturition reflex - automatic/somatic/parasympathetic

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29
Q

mucturition cycle occurs how?

A

storage/filling phase

voiding phase

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30
Q

sympathetic & parasympathetic & somatic innervation on micturition?

A

sympathetic - relaxation of urethral sphincter -open

parasympathetic - contraction of detrusor muscle - squeeze out

somatic - relaxation of external urethral sphincter - open

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31
Q

acute urinary retention define?

main cause

A

painful
inability to void - with palpable and permissible bladder

-due to BPO

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32
Q

chronic urinary retention define?

MAIN CAUSE

A

painless
palpable and percussible bladder AFTER voiding

muscle detrusor inactivity

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33
Q

two types of chronic urinary retention?

A

high pressure or low pressure - bladder filling pressure

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34
Q

what can occur due to catheter?

A

diuresis - increase urine freq.

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35
Q

diagnosis of UTI requires what 2 things?

A

microbiological evidence & symptoms

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36
Q

2 types of UTI?

A

UNCOMPLICATED

COMPLICATED

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37
Q

MESANGIAL CELLS?

A

group of cells which support capillaries in glomeruli

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38
Q

albumin - filtration?

A

cannot be filtered - albumin cannot be filtered too large

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39
Q

4 presentations of Glomerulonephritis ?

A

haematuria
heavy proteinuria
slowly increasing proteinuria
acute renal failure

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40
Q

nephrotic syndrome? due to?

A

increase protein in urine -

due to damage to bv in kidney

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41
Q

main causes of haematuria?4

A

uti
urinary tract stone
urinary tract tumour
Glomerulonephritis

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42
Q

kimmelsteil-wilson lesion?

A

long standing diabetes - leading to kidney condition - affects the bv in the glomeruli -

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43
Q

signs of diabetic nephropathy?

A

first sign of diabetic kidney disease - albumin in urine - - microalbuminuria

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44
Q

sign of acute renal failure?

A

rapidly risisng creatinine

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45
Q

what properties make urine bacteriostatic? 3

A

low pH
high osmolarity
high ammonia - NH3

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46
Q

what contaminates the urine?

A

by terminal urethral flora

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47
Q

is contamination present in MSSU?

A

YES - but less contamination

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48
Q

results of MSSU culture means?

A 
10^5 = infection present 
10^3/4 = infection 50% if asymptomatic/ probable infection if symptoms

10^2 = no infection

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49
Q

hydroureter?

A

dilation/enlargement

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50
Q

HORMONES that the kidney produce? 3

A

erythropoietin
vit D
renin

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51
Q

how much of the cardiac output do kidneys take?

A

20-25%

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52
Q

what does creatine serum levels depend on? 4

A 
age 
ethnicity 
gender 
weight 
muscle mass
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53
Q

classification of ckd?

A

1 to 5

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54
Q

what molecules do not cross filtration barrier?

A

abc/albumin/globulins

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55
Q

definition of ckd?

A

prescence of kidney damage - abnormal blood/urine etc
or
gfr less than 60 present for over/equal to 3 months

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56
Q

what two things used to see prognosis of ckd?

A

by albumin levels in urine and gfr level

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57
Q

RRT includes?

A

dialysis and transplant

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58
Q

PCR & ACR means?

24hr UC MEAN?

A

pcr - protein creatinine ratio

acr- albumin creatinine ratio

24HR urine collection

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59
Q

complications of prolonged low eGFR? 6

A 
anaemia 
bone disease 
fluid overload 
hypertension
acidosis
electrolyte imbalance
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60
Q

size of prostate? measured in?

A

cc-cubic centimetres

any! continuously growing as you grow up

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61
Q

prostatic zones - which Is most likely for prostate cancer?

A

peripheral zone

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62
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia?

occurs In what prostatic zone?

A

fibromuscular and glandular hyperplasia

transition zone

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63
Q

assessment of Luts by? 2

A

IPSS score sheet -prostate symptoms

freq volume charts

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64
Q

two types of LUTS? examples of each

A

voiding - hesitancy.poor stream, dribbling, incomplete emptying
storage - freq, nocturia, urgency, urge

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65
Q

avg number of times to go to bathroom a day?

A

4-8

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66
Q

examination looking for?
penis?
DRE?

A

PHIMOSIS
external urethral meatus

prostate size
nodules/firmness

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67
Q

what bloods to test for prostate?

A

PSA

goes up as prostate size goes up

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68
Q

size of prostate mean?

A

size doesn’t mean anything - can have large and no symptoms etc
all about investigations and symptoms

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69
Q

flow rate study values for BPO?

A

Qmax less than 10ml/s - means most likely BOO

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70
Q

ALPHA BLOCKERS?

mechanism?

A

used in BOO

tamsulosin

relaxes smooth muscle of prostate and bladder neck

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71
Q

5A-reductase inhibitors?

mechanism?

A

used in BOO

finasteride
dutasteride

converts testosterone into something else

reduces prostate size

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72
Q

TURP?

A

SCOPE into urethra
and removes parts of prostate

followed by use of catheter

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73
Q

two ways of catheter?

A

suprapubic

urtheral

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74
Q

uterocele?

A

doesn’t allow urine to flow - blocks it
too narrow
bulge in ureter

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75
Q

nephrostomy?

A

tube through back to drain kidney directly

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76
Q

CT UROGRAM?

A

INJECT dye in and take x rays to see clear flow of urinary tract

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77
Q

common place for upper tract TCC? can lead to?

A

renal pelvis and collecting system

lead to bladder TCC

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78
Q

END STAGE RENAL disease? gfr is?

A

irreversible damage to persons kidneys

gfr is less than 15

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79
Q

advanced ckd is called?

A

uraemia - increased level of urea in blood - should be removed by kidneys

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80
Q

when is RRT indicated?

A

when eGFR IS less than 10

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81
Q

requirements in a dialysis? 4

A

semipermeable membrane
blood exposure to membrane
dialysis access
anticoagulation

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82
Q

what are the markers on how well dialysis works?

A

creatinine and urea

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83
Q

what restrictions are there in dialysis patients? 2

A

fluid and diet

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84
Q

what risk is there in haemodialysis?

A

blood clots risk and air embolus risk!

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85
Q

how peritoneal dialysis works?

2 types - EXPLAIN

A

via a cuffed catheter using peritoneal membrane

CAPD - DURING DAY
APD - OVERNIGHT

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86
Q

ARRYHTMIAS are related to what?

A

related to removal of K electrolyte

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87
Q

mortality of dialysis patients?

A

increased

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88
Q

what is conservative kidney management?

A

supportive care
end of life care

just priority to symptoms management

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89
Q

2 principles/mechanisms of dialysis? explain each

A

diffusion and ultra filtration

diffusion - equalising and balancing on both sides

ultrafiltration - shifting fluid and some molecules

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90
Q

pyuria?

standard level?

A

presence of pus cells in urine

more than 10 WBC

means presence of inflammation/uti

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91
Q

pyelonephritis?

A

infection in upper urinary tract ivolving kidneys

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92
Q

chronic pyelonephritis?

A

renal scarring and loss of function

infection/prescence of uti

93
Q

catheter related infection explain?

A

due to long term catheters - lead to bacteriuria

94
Q

vesicle-ureteric reflux?

A

abnormal flow of urine from bladder back up ureters

95
Q

if urine is sterile does that mean okay?

A

no might still have pus cells

96
Q

uraemia? why? sign of? mechanism explain?

A

increase urea in plasma
clinical sign of renal failure
where kidney lost ability to remove urea/waste from blood

97
Q

donor transplant method?

A

living donor nephrectomy
preserve donor kidney - use of cold storage
transplantation

98
Q

transplant surgical complications? 3

A

bleeding
ureteric leak
infection

99
Q

2 types of donors?

what’s better?

A

deceased and living

living over deceased works better and increases graft survival

100
Q

paired and pooled donation means?

A

paired donation - cross over between pairs

pooled donation - dominos effect on pairs for donating

101
Q

consider what in order to be a donor?

A

age,sex,race

health - gfr, smoking, BMI etc

102
Q

what complications can occur after donation? 5

A

rejection - t cell mediated/ acute antibody mediated

diabetes

infection - uti, viral (cmv CYTOMEGALOVIRUS /bk virus)

cvs -hypertension etc

malignancy

103
Q

what can be used to help. rejection in transplants?

A

immunosuprresion
antiviral therapy
antibiotics therapy - prophylaxis

104
Q

why does anaemia occur as complication of renal cancer?

A

due to kidneys making erthropoeitin

105
Q

difference between benign and malignant tumours?

differentiation
rate of growth
invasion
mets

A

benign - well differ., slow growth, localised, no mets

malignant - poor differ., fast growth, invasion, mets

106
Q

what happens when renal function is impaired?

A

active drug build up and build up of toxic metabolites

107
Q

do we want high or narrow therapeutic index? and why?

A

we want high therapeutic index

as narrow leads to toxicity or death

108
Q

who are susceptible for drug induced nephrotoxicity?4

A

elderly
poly pharmacy
children
underlying Renal dysfunction

109
Q

renal impairment affect on drugs?

A

increases half life of drugs and protein binding is reduced to allow more free available

110
Q

ways to prevent drug induced nephrotoxicity? 4

A

drugs used that have high index
reduce dose
increase dose interval
monitor blood levels

111
Q

drug induced renal toxicity lead to what 4 syndromes?

A

acute renal failure
nephrotic syndrome
renal tubular dysfunction with potassium wasting
chronic renal failure

112
Q

what two drugs most likely to cause nephrotoxicity?

THEN NAME OTHERS

A

NSAIDS
aminoglycosides antibiotics

ACE inhibitors

113
Q

what two things are major things to check in kidney systemic disease? 2

A

proteinuria

haematuria

114
Q

sepsis leads to what in kidney?

A

AKD

115
Q

diabetic nephropathy means?

A

diabetes 40% leads to nephropathy

116
Q

mechanism of diabetic nephropathy?

what changes to glomeruli occurs? 4

A

changes to glomeruli =

glomerular hyperfiltration
altered glomerular composition
renal hypertrophy
glomerular hypertension

117
Q

what are the results of diabetic nephropathy?

A

albuminuria -leaky
thickening of membrane
decrease gfr

leads to

increase creatinine levels
scarring fibrosis of glomeruli
and then END STAGE renal failure

118
Q

what are lesions of present in diabetes nephropathy?

A

kimmelsteil Wilson nodules in glomeruli

119
Q

lupus leads to what in kidneys?

A

lupus nephritis - immune mediated glomerulonephritis and glomerular damage

120
Q

multiple myeloma means? and can do what to kidneys?

A

abnormal plasma cells - proliferation of plasma cells

lead to cast nephropathy- abnormal plasma cells enter kidney and enter tubules and block and damage

121
Q

main symptom of renal stones?

A

colic pain

122
Q

stone type most common?

A

calcium oxalate

123
Q

explain ESWL AND PCNL?

A

PCNL = key hole surgery - through incision in back - and use of X-rays and contrast for guidance

ESWL = use of sound waves to break up SMALL stones - creates vibrations - and allow residue mess to be passed in urine

124
Q

MOST COMMON cancer in men?

A

prostate

125
Q

PSA test explain?

normal level

what values we use?

A

psa a substance naturally produced by prostate - higher level found - enlarged prostate /cancer

0-0.4

WE USE AGE-RELATED RANGE - as with age - prostate size increases naturally

126
Q

two tests for screening prostate? AND WHEN?

A

DRE
PSA TEST

for over 50 yrs men

127
Q

any screening for prostate cancer?

A

no as not meet wilson-junger criteria

128
Q

why is PSA alone not good for diagnosing prostate cancer?

A

as prostate specific NOT cancer specific

129
Q

staging vs grading- what each mean?

and how each measured?

A

staging - spread - bY EXAMINATION/TESTS

grading - aggressiveness BY BIOPSY

130
Q

BRACHYTHERAPY?

A

radiotherapy

placing radioactive substances in prostate - to treat the cancer

131
Q

2 HORMONE THERAPY DRUGS USED for prostate cancer explain mechanisms?

A

LHRH antagonists - stop body producing testosterone

anti-androgens - block testosterone reaching cells

can be used in combo

132
Q

2 types o testicular cancers?

A

seminoma - older

nonseminoma - younger

133
Q

tumour markers for testicular cancer?

A

AFP
BHCG
LDH

134
Q

metastases of testicular cancer?

A

chest-lungs
bone
para-aortic lymph nodes

135
Q

high levels of potassium in blood leads to what?

normal range? and when is it elevated?

A

leads to arrythmias - changes in ECG

normal is less than/equal to 5.1

abnormal is 6.5

136
Q

average size of prostate?

A

increase age and prostate size increases naturally - 20cc

137
Q

upper and lower tract of Urinary System?

A

upper - above bladder

lower - lower bladder

138
Q

BPH affects what prostatic zone?

A

transition zone

139
Q

BOO leads to?

A

LUTS

140
Q

phimosis?

A

tight forsekin on penis

141
Q

signs of UTI in urine?

A

pus cells
blood - severe
cloudy

142
Q

when is TURP carried out?

A

when prostate size less than 100cc

143
Q

2 types of catheters?

A

suprapubic

urethral

144
Q

short term urethral catheter should not be left longer than?

A

4 weeks

145
Q

long term urethral Catheter should not be left longer then?

A

12 weeks

146
Q

pelvic mass compression explain?

A

compression in women leading to BOO

147
Q

FRANK haematuria means?

A

visible blood urine

148
Q

renal failure occurs only if?

A

BOTH URETERS are affected and obstructed

149
Q

hydroureter and hydronephrosis?

A

hydronephrosis - swollen kidneys

hydrometer - swollen ureters

150
Q

IVU imaging?

A

contrast x ray imaging of kidneys and bladder

151
Q

investigation for renal colic?

A

CT-KUB

152
Q

PERCUTANEOUS nephrostomy insertion?

A

used for urinary tract obstruction - needle to drain

153
Q

use of CT-KUB vs CT-urogram?

A

CTKUB - for stones/renal colic/ no contrast

CTUROGRAM - for obstructing masses - pelvic mass/tumour - contrast

154
Q

what’s the most important first step in septic patient?

A

resuscitation- IV FLUIDS/ABC/MONITOR

155
Q

pyelonephritis includes what structures?

A

cd + PELVIS

156
Q

confused elderly means?

A

infection present - uti?

157
Q

asymptomatic bacteruria meaning?

A

over 10^5 bacteria in urine but no signs or symptoms of UTI

158
Q

nephritic syndrome vs nephrotic syndrome?

A

nephritic - haematuria/red cell casts in urine - damaged end layer by inflammation cells

nephrotic - proteinuria/leaky albumin - leaky membrane no attacking

159
Q

values to define nephrotic syndrome?

A

proteinuria more than/equal to 3.5
350 creatinine
serum albumin less than/equal to 30g/L

160
Q

classification of glomerulonephritis? explain each?

A

proliferative - excessive numbers of cells in glomeruli - infiltrated by inflammation cells

non-proliferative - glomeruli looks normal but real of scarring

161
Q

causes of glomerulonephritis? 8

A 
IgA nephropathy 
post-infection -post-streptcoccal 
crescentic 
minimal change 
ANCA 
SLE
diabetic 
focal and segmental
162
Q

what is the exclusion criteria for organ donation?

list a few

A

situations that are unsuitable for transplant

active invasive cancer in last 3yrs
untreated systemic infection
hiv disease

163
Q

3 ways authorisation can occur in organ donation?

A

express - self authorising
deemed authorisation -
nearest relative authorisation - if patient can’t do it themselves

164
Q

deemed authorisation of donating meaning?

A

where authorisation is deemed to be given - within safeguards are ensured

  • no evidence of unwillingness to donate
  • person is not in excepted category
  • healthcare professional is able to carry out the duty of inquire
165
Q

pre death procedure means?

A

medical procedure carried out for purpose of transplant etc and not to support patients health

166
Q

2 types of donations?

A

death by neurological criteria - loss of brain function - on life support

donation after cardiac death - hearts stopped - ceases to be alive

167
Q

timing of DCD?

A

is critical - have to rapid with removing organs and transplanting

168
Q

ureterocele?

A

dilation of ureter - like a pouch - balloon dilation at opening of bladder

169
Q

renal colic from what?

A

pain from stones

170
Q

OLIGURIA standard levels?

A

reduced urine output

less than 400mls/24hrs

171
Q

anuria?

A

complete absence of urine output

172
Q

triad for renal carcinoma? 3

A

flank pain
palpable mass
haematuria

173
Q

why anaemia arises in kidney damage?

A

due to kidneys making erythropoietin

174
Q

epithelium of proximal tubule?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

175
Q

parietal layer of glomeruli lined with what type of epithelium?

A

simple squamous epithelium

176
Q

each kidney has what? 3

A

2 surfaces
2 borders
2 poles

177
Q

what two 2 nerves run posterior kidney surface?

A

iliohypogastric nerve

ilioguinal nerve

178
Q

contrast nephropathy?

A

kidney damage due to exposure to imaging contrast. material

179
Q

e.coli is what type of bacteria?

A

gram -ve bacillus

180
Q

serum calcium and serum phosphate relationship?

A

phosphate up

calcium down

181
Q

MOST COMMON RENAL TRACT STONE?

A

CALCIUM OXALATE

182
Q

most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

minimal change

183
Q

serum and urine urea in dehydration?

A

serum - increased

urine - decreased

184
Q

alcohol affect on ADH??

A

suppresses ADH secretion

185
Q

ramipril is what?

A

ACE inhibitor - stop production of angiotensin II

186
Q

what is used to measure renal plasma flow?

A

PAH clearance

187
Q

posterior urethral valves? common in who?

A

obstructive membranes that develop near bladder - common in infant in males

188
Q

2 common renal tumours ?

A

renal cell - mostly of renal tissue

transitional cell - renal calyces/pelvis down

189
Q

normal Ca level?

A

2.2-2.6mmol/l

190
Q

CT KUB used when?

A

for renal colic

191
Q

how does nephritic syndrome present?

A

haematuria

hypertension

192
Q

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis presents how?

A

weeks after infection
haematuria
proteinuria

193
Q

IgA nephropathy shows how?

A

days after infection

hameturia

194
Q

carbimazole - how side effects presents?

A

bone marrow suppression
mouth ulcers
sorry throat

195
Q

how is minimal change seen under microscope?

A

seen with electron microscope - podocyte effacement

196
Q

what mediates growth in childhood and infancy?

A

infancy - insluin and nutrition

childhood - gh and th

197
Q

causes of hyperkalaemia?

A

MACHINE

MEDS - ACEi and NSAIDS 
Acidosis 
cellular destruction - burns/injury etc 
hypoaldosterone/haemolysis 
intake up 
nephrotic failure 
excretion impaired
198
Q

which lobe in prostate most likely enlarged in carcinoma OR BPH?

A

Carcinoma - posterior lobe

BPH - median lobe

199
Q

signs of hyperkalaemia? 5

A 
tall t waves 
small p waves 
widened qrs 
sinusoidal pattern 
asystole
200
Q

what are the drugs to avoid in kidney failure?

A 
ACEI
NSAIDS
GENTAMICIN 
DIURETICS 
METFORMIN
201
Q

STEROID AFFECT ON MENTAL HEALTH? 2

A

DEPRESSION
insomnia
etc

202
Q

when low and high dex tests used?

A

low - initial OR overnight test done

high - to localise bushings

203
Q

testicular torsion is what & lead to?

A

twisting of testicle due to trauma

this can cut blood flow to testicle - necrosis of testicle

EMERGENCY

204
Q

aki classification explain? 3 stages

A

aki 1 = creatine rise 1.5x & urine output LESS THAN 0.5 for 6hrs
aki 2 = creatine rise 2x & urine output less than 0.5 for 12hrs
aki 3 = creatine rise 3x &urine output less than 0.3 for 24hrs

205
Q

Gleason score explain?

A

3 to 5 score GRADING

majority to second most growth majority

3+3 - 6 LOW GRADE
5+5 - 10 HIGH GRADE

206
Q

red cell casts mean -
hyaline casts mean -
brown casts mean -

A

nephritic syndrome
normal after exercise/fever/diuretics
tubular necrosis

207
Q

affect of exercise on glucose? 3 stages

A

early drop - glucose uptake GLUT2
occasional rise - adrenaline affect
late drop - use of liver and muscle glycogen

208
Q

para and sympathetic innervation of urination from where?

A 
s = inferior and superior hypogastric plexuses 
p = pelvic splanchnic nerves
209
Q

DKA MOSTLY CAUSED BY WHAT MECHANISM

A

UNCONTROLLED LIPOLYSIS - excess free FA convert to ketones

210
Q

PSA level with age?

A

50 - 3
60 - 4
70 - 5

211
Q

things that increase PSA level? 5

A 
BPH 
PROSTATITIS/CANCER
VIGOROUS EXERCISE 
URINARY RETENTION 
EJACTULCATION
212
Q

polycystic kidney disease I highly associated with what?

A

berry aneurysms in brain

213
Q

2 commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

focal segmental glomeruloscleroris THEN

membranous glomerular disease

214
Q

what is specific gravity?

A

how conc urine is with solutes

215
Q

2 main causes of squamous cell carcinoma in bladder ?

A

schistomiaosis

long term catheter

216
Q

pheocytochroma treatment?

A

alpha blockers
then
beta blockers

217
Q

action of carbimazole?

A

inhibit thyroid peroxidase enzyme - to stop producing thyroid hormones

218
Q

renal cell carcinoma how is chemotherapy/radiotherapy done?

A

insensitive to it - so surgery main option

219
Q

most common renal cell carcinoma in kids?

A

nephroblastoma - whilms

220
Q

primary polidipsia ?

presents how after fluid deprivation & desmopressin?

A

where you drink lots even though being well hydrated - pyschiatric disorder

like DI

but high osmolarity after both fluid deprivation & desmopressin

221
Q

worsening Urinary symptoms - means?

A

urtheral obstruction and stricture

222
Q

definition of AKI?

A

rise in creatinine and urea & results in oliguria

223
Q

management of AKI?

A

fluids - if hypovaleamic
stop drugs - nephrotoxic etc
catheterisation

224
Q

what diuretics increase/decrease serum potassium?

A

decrease K - thiazide, loop

increase K - ACE inhibitors, Spironolactone

225
Q

when is erythropoietin excreted?

A

in response to hypoxia

226
Q

which imaging is best for prostate?

A

MRI

227
Q

RA - autoantibodies?2

SLE - autoantibodies ? 2

A

RF, ANTI-CCP

ANTI-dsDNA, ANA

228
Q

first line management of UTI?

A

First line management is with oral nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim.

229
Q

special type of glomerulonephritis?

A

persistent activation of compliment pathway
C3
haematuria and proteinuria

URINARY (4 decks)

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