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Clin path lab Services Final > Clin path Dr. Bulla > Flashcards

Clin path Dr. Bulla Flashcards

1
Q 
Know what these cell processes look like: 
Inflamm 
Proliferative 
Hemmorhage 
Edematous 
Cystic 
Mixed
A

Inflammatory cells= inflammation
Proliferative is seen with a bunch of cells but none are inflammatory
Hemorrhagic is seen with lots of RBC’s
cystic is seen when there are no cells and lots of debris
Mixed- inflammatory cells and something else

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2
Q

Know if a slide is inflammation or blood contamination

A

/

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3
Q

More than 3 types of leukocytes (WBC) =

A

Mixed inflammation

if just two types then put the one that is most predominate first

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4
Q

How to know if a sample is septic or aseptic inflammation???

A

pathogen found= SEPTIC

rarely are inflamm. cases septic. Only pathogenic if a bacterium is phagocytized

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5
Q

Neutrophilic and macrophagic inflammation with sepsis= what disease process

A

Blastomycosis

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6
Q

Cancer in the mesothelium and the endothelium is called ____

A

sarcoma

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7
Q

epith. cancers are called _____

A

carcinomas

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8
Q

A malignant cancer of _____ cells is a type of sarcoma

A

mesenchymal

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9
Q

Mesenchymal vs. epithelial cells

A

Both are NON inflammatory
Epithelial cells are in cohesive clusters
Mesenchymal cells are individual or losse clusters

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10
Q

___ cells cluster because they proliferate and are close together when the sample is taken but they are naturally not close in situ but rather separated in the tissue matrix

A

Mesenchymal

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11
Q

___ cells are very closely connected with junctions and are clustered in situ, lysed when separated

A

Epithelial cells

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12
Q

What do you think these cells in the description are, mesenchymal or epithelial???
Spindle cells and matrix

A

Mesenchymal

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13
Q

Carcinoma vs. sarcoma

A

carcinoma develops from epithelial cells, a sarcoma arises from mesenchymal (connective tissue) cells

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14
Q

Know different types of cell shapes–>

A 
Round 
Cuboidal 
Tall columnar 
Polygonal
Spindle 
Stellate 
Pleomorphic
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15
Q

squamous cells are ___

A

polygonal

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16
Q

what does amphophilic mean?

A

Blue and red at the same time

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17
Q

Know the types of nuclear shapes–>

A 
Round 
Oval 
Elongated 
Reniform 
Pleomorphic 
Convoluted
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18
Q

Describe reniform nuclear shape–>

A

You can barely see it but there is a line where you are seeing one of the lobes overlapping with the rest of the cell.
Reniform is common with histocytomas because they have reniform neucli where you will see a line, kind of like a chair (part you sit one is one lobe and back of chair is another lobe)
Reniform means kidney shaped (or comma shaped)

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19
Q

Nucleus to cytoplasm ratio (N:C) is the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm and increases with less cytoplasm a cell has T/F

A

True!!!

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20
Q

what is a criteria for malignancy unless its a cell type like lymphocyte?

A

High N:C ratio

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21
Q

Low N:C means likely fat cells T/F

A

True

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22
Q

Criteria of malignancy examples:

Need at least 3 of these to be called malignant, otherwise it is hyperplasia or benign

A 
N:C ratio 
Anisocytosis and Anisokaryosis 
Chromatin Pattern 
Mutlinucleated cells 
Abnormal Nucelous
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23
Q

What is the definition of anisocytosis?

A

Variability of cell sizes

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24
Q

What is the definition of anisokaryosis?

A

Variability of nuclear sizes

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25
Q

How the chromatin is packaged inside of the cell is the chromatin pattern and can be these types:

A

clumped, fine, coarse, ropey

(Ropey will not be on the exam)

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26
Q

Histiocytoma:

A

high numbers of round cells with indented reniform nuclei and clear to glassy cytoplasm

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27
Q

Presence of this type of cell may mean regression of histiocytomas:

A

small lymphocytes

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28
Q

What tumor type has pale cytoplasm and not a lot of granules?

A

Round cell tumors

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29
Q

_____ occurs in moderate numbers of round plasmacytoid cells

A

plasmacytoma

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30
Q

diagnosis of plasmacytoma is based on…

A

Based on moderate amounts of round plasmacytoid cells (which are plasma cells - has eccentric nuclei which are round or oval or pleomoprhic and presence of binucleated, trinucleated, or multinucleated cells.

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31
Q

Lymphoma can be anywhere and we based the homogeneity based on the look or size of the cell?

A

Based on the look of the cell, NOT the size

32
Q

What tumor type was originally from histiocytic lineage with basophilic cytoplasm (usually vacuolated) and usually has large amounts of blood contamination?

A

Transmissible Venereal Tumor

33
Q

Large lymphocytes are more than ___ RBC

A

2

34
Q

Small lymphocytes are less than ____ RBCs

A

1-1.5

35
Q

Not all lymphoma is malignant T/F

A

True!!!

36
Q

More than about 50% medium to large lymphocytes= benign or malignant???

A

Malignant

37
Q

Homogenous lymphocytes usually means benign or malignant?

A

Malignant

38
Q

Some criteria for malignant lymphoma:

A

More than 50% medium and large lymphocytes

Monomorphic (homogenous) lymphoid population

39
Q

Petechia and ecchymosis are forms of primary or secondary hemostasis?

A

Primary

40
Q

What type of bleeding seen is both primary and secondary hemostasis

A

Mucosal bleeding

41
Q

What are the 3 forms of secondary hemostasis that we learned about?

A

Hemothorax, Hemoperitoneum, Hemarthrosis

42
Q

Thrombocytopenia is ____ hemostasis where there is decreased platelets

A

primary

43
Q

What are the possible causes of thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets)?

A

Dilution, sequestration, consumption, lack of production, destruction (no good test for this)

44
Q

What are the tests for destruction of platelets causing thrombocytopenia???

A

PT, PTT, TT (typically test for secondary hemostasis), DIC or continual remaking of platelet plug that is washed away, trying to check for a coagulopathy

45
Q

How do we test for lack of production causing thrombocytopenia?

A

Bone marrow cytology or biopsy

46
Q

There is no good test for ___ causing thrombocytopenia

A

destruction

Indirectly testing for tick borne dz is likely the best option

47
Q

What are the causes for SEVERE thrombocytopenia?

A

Lack of production, destruction, consumption

48
Q

T/F only severe thrombocytopenia will cause bleeding

A

TRUE!!!!

49
Q

What tests do we do if the animal has petechiae or ecchymosis or mucosal bleeding without thrombocytopenia?

A

BMBT, VwDf, Other platelet tests (aggregometry) for primary hemostasis issues

50
Q

What determines if animal has VwD?

A

Vwdf is decreased

Usually has mucosal bleeding, prolonged bleeding after injury, easy bruising without petechiae nor ecchymosis

51
Q

What does it mean if BMBT is prolonged?

A

If prolonged means that the animal has primary hemostasis impairment

52
Q

PT, PTT and TT tests for primary or secondary hemostasis issues?

A

Secondary hemostasis

53
Q

PT tests for what pathway?
What about PTT?
TT?

A

PT–> Extrinsic and common
PTT–> Intrinsic and common
TT–> Fibrinogen

IF ANY are prolonged, the animal has coagulopathy!!!

54
Q

3 or more of what criteria means consumption of platelets (DIC) causing secondary hemostasis issues causing thrombocytopenia?

Only for CONSUMPTION

A 
Prolonged PT or PTT 
Decreased fibrinogen (TT)
Increased FDPs or D-dimers 
Thrombocytopenia 
Decreased anti-thrombin 3 activity 
Presence of schistocytes in the CBC
55
Q

Causes of coag. causing secondary hemostasis issues –>

A

DIC, Lack of production (hepatic insuff.), Vit K antagonism or deficiency, heparin, cancer causing inhibitors

56
Q

What two things are seen with increased fibrin production via fibrinolysis?

A

FDPs and D-dimers

57
Q

FDP increased and D-dimers the same/low=

A

Fibrinogenolysis (which is the break down of fibrinogen)

58
Q

FDPs and D-dimers both increased causes:

A

Decreased hepatic uptake or decreased renal clearance (decreased GFP, less filtering being done)

59
Q

are decreases in FDP and/or D-dimer impt?

A

Nahhhhh

60
Q

What is an inhibitor that binds to activation factors normally?

A

Antithrombin 3

61
Q

What are the potential causes for antithrombin 3 activity to be decreased?

A

Decreased production (less AT3 for factors to bind like in hepatic disease), loss (Protein-losing nephropathy), consumption (DIC, sepsis, heparin)

62
Q

What are the mechanisms that can cause thrombocytopenia?

What are the tests available to differentiate each of the mechanisms?

A

Dilution, sequestration, consumption, lack of production, destruction

1. Dilution- test for hx of blood loss of use plasma volume enhancers 
2. Sequestration- splenomegaly or not? Hypothermia with lung pooling or not? 
3. Consumption- test PT, PTT, TT 
4. Lack of production- test bone marrow cytology or bone marrow biopsy 
5. Destruction- test via necropsy post mortem after the fact
63
Q

How can thrombocytopenia cause increased FDPs and D-dimer?

A

Platelet plugs are being washed away repeatedly, fibrin production

64
Q

What are the tests available to access primary hemostasis?

A

BMBT and VWf, also other platelet function tests (aggregometry is the name of the test that determines platelet function under physiological processes)

65
Q

Intrinsic pathway

A

Factors 12, 11, 9, 8

Test is PTT

66
Q

Extrinsic pathway

A

Tissue factor 7

Test is PT

67
Q

Common pathway

A

Factors 10, 5, 2

Test is PT and PTT

68
Q

What mechanisms can explain prolonged PT and PTT?

A

Coag., secondary hemostasis issue

69
Q

What mechanisms can cause elevated FDP?

A

Increased fibrin

Increased fibrinogenolysis

70
Q

Where is ATIII produced? What can cause increased ATIII activity?

A

Liver; Increased with decreased production (hepatic diseases), loss (PLN), consumption

71
Q

What is the role that ATIII plays in hemostasis?

A

Binds to activated factors
Job on AT3 is to bind to activated factors (the students “binding” sitting in the seat). If you have DIC- all of the seats are taken (max students allowed on the bus, more students than normal)
This test looks for a situation where there is decreased number of available spots meaning there is an overwhelming coagulatory process happening

72
Q

(remember can have normal hct with low platelets because hct measures amount of circulating RBC, NOT the amount of platelets)

A

//

73
Q

isosthenuria and azotemia=

A

renal failure

74
Q

any USG is n without ____ present also

A

azotemia

75
Q

What do we test if we suspect hepatic insuff. causing lack of production causing secondary hemostasis:

A

Ammonia and bile acids

76
Q

most common cause of AT3 consumption is…

A

Heparin, DIC, or sepsis

77
Q

is Antithrombin 3 an inhibitor or activator?

A

an inhibitor that binds to activators

Clin path lab Services Final (6 decks)

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