Clin Lab Final review Flashcards

1
Q

Whole blood is comprised of ___ and ___

A

Fluid and cells

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2
Q

The fluid component of blood is comprised of _____

A

Plasma

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3
Q

The cellular component is comprised of ____, ____, and ____

A

RBCs, WBCs, platelets

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4
Q

If it is a heparin plasma sample that has been stored overnight in the refrigerator it should be _____to remove any possible _____

A

respun to remove fibrin strands

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5
Q

Plasma from which fibrinogen has been removed

A

Serum

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6
Q

During clotting process, soluble fibrinogen is plasma is converted to what?

A

An insoluble fibrin clot

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7
Q

Used to run chemical assays

A

Anticoagulated blood (plasma)

Serum

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8
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant for chemistry tests?

A

Heparin

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9
Q

May cause falsely increased inorganic phosphate levels in the blood

A

Heparin

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10
Q

May interfere with lactate dehydrogenase activity

A

Heparin

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11
Q

Should not be used if plasma samples are needed for chemistries

A

EDTA

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12
Q

Interferes with color development in some alkaline phosphate tests

A

EDTA

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13
Q

Binds metallic ions that may be necessary for enzyme activity, and binds calcium unavailable for assays

A

EDTA

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14
Q

Alters the makeup of serum/plasma

A

Hemolysis

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15
Q

Assays should be done ideally within ____ hr(s)

A

1 hours

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16
Q

Total Protein, Albumin, Globulin, Albumin/Globulin Ratio, Fibrinogen are all examples of _____ assays

A

Protein assays

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17
Q

Help form cells, organ, tissues, maintain osmotic pressure, act as buffers in acid-base balance, serve as hormons, function in blood coagulation, defend body against pathogenic microorganisms

A

Functions of Plasma in the body

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18
Q

Serve as transport/carrier molecules for most constituents of plasma

A

Function of protein in the body

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19
Q

Total plamsa protein include _____

A

Fibrinogen

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20
Q

Total serum proteins do not include _____

A

Fibrinogen

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21
Q

Total protein may be affected by alatered hepatic synthesis, altered protein distribution, breakdown/excretion, and _____ or _____

A

Dehydration or overhydration

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22
Q

Dehydration causes _____ total protein concentration

A

elevated

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23
Q

Overhydration causes ______ total protein concentration

A

Decreased

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24
Q

What are two methods in measuring TP?

A

Refractrometer, Biuret

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25
Q

Important protein in plasma/serum

A

Albumin

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26
Q

Makes up 35-50% of total plasma protein

A

Albumin

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27
Q

Responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure of plasma

A

Albumin

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28
Q

Albumin is made by ____

A

Hepatocytes

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29
Q

What may cause decrease in albumin synthesis

A

Liver disease, renal disease, dietary intake, intestinal protein absorption

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30
Q

What may increase albumin levels?

A

Hemolysis

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31
Q

Globulin estimate is equal to the difference between what?

A

TP and albumin

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32
Q

Complex group of proteins made in the liver

A

Globulins

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33
Q

Primarily transport and bind proteins

A

Globulin

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34
Q

Make up 3-6% of the total plasma protein made by hepatocytes

*Important in horses

A

Fibrinogen

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35
Q

Elevated by acute inflammatory/tissue damage

A

Plasma fibrinogen

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36
Q

There is no fibrinogen in ____

A

Serum

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37
Q

What are the 4 most common liver assays?

A

Alanine/Aspartate Aminotransferase

Sorbitol/Glutamate Dehydrogenase

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38
Q

Species in which hepatocytes are a major source of ALT

A

Dogs, cats, primates

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39
Q

In horses, ruminants, pigs, and birds hepatocytes do not contain enough ____ and are not a good indicator of disease

A

ALT

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40
Q

Renal cells, cardiac cells, skeletal muscles and pancreas are all sources for ____

A

ALT

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41
Q

Most accurate indicator of liver disease in small animals

A

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

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42
Q

True or false, ALT is specific enough to identify specific liver disease

A

False

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43
Q

Hemolysis and lipemia can artifically ______ ALT levels

A

Increase

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44
Q

Only found in cases of severe liver disease

A

Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)

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45
Q

AST is found where?

A

RBC, cardiac muscles, skeletal muscles, kidneys, and pancreas

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46
Q

Liver disease, hemolysis, strenuous exercise and IM injection may all result in elevated ___

A

AST

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47
Q

Primary source of Sorbitol Dehydrogenase (SDH)

A

Liver cells

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48
Q

Useful in determining liver damage in large animals

A

SDH

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49
Q

SDH is unstable in ____

A

Serum

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50
Q

Plasma level of SDH rise with _____ damage/necrosis

A

Hepatocellular

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51
Q

Liver specific in all species

A

Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)

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52
Q

GLDH has increased concentration in what species hepatocytes

A

cattle, sheep, and goat

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53
Q

Ideal choice for measuring liver function in large animals and exotics

A

GLDH

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54
Q

Sensitive and specific indicator of liver disease

A

GLDH

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55
Q

Increased levels of GLDH indicate _____ damage and necrosis

A

Liver damage

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56
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase and GGT are enzymes associated with _____

A

Cholestasis

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57
Q

Isoenzyme present in cells within hepatobiliary system, osteoblasts, and chondroblasts

A

Alkaline Phosphatase (AP, ALKP)

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58
Q

Most often used to detect Cholesasis in dogs and cats

A

Alkaline Phosphatase

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59
Q

Primary source of GGT or GT

A

Liver

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60
Q

Higher levels of ____ are found in cattle, horses, sheep, and goats

A

GGT

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61
Q

Elevated levels are seen in liver disease, especially obstructive liver disease

A

GGT

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62
Q

Bile Acid tests are more specific _____ function test

A

liver function

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63
Q

Bile acids have a _______ function

A

Hepatobiliary

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64
Q

Bile acid is made from _____ in the liver cells

A

Cholesterol

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65
Q

Bile acids are stored in the _____ until they move into the duodenum and aid in fat storage

A

gall bladder

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66
Q

Serum level is normally low in ____ ____

A

Bile acids

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67
Q

Liver removes 75-90%

A

Bile acids

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68
Q

Hemolysis and lipemia may falsely _____ bile acid measurements

A

Decrease

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69
Q

Elevated bile acids may indicate what?

A

Chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, cholestasis, neoplasms

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70
Q

Considered a waste material, carried to liver bound to albumin

A

Bilirubin (TBIL)

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71
Q

Bilirubin is insoluble in water until taken to ____

A

liver

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72
Q

Bilirubin becomes water soluble after being conjugated with _____

A

sugars

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73
Q

Sensitive to light and must be stored in the dark

A

Bilirubin

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74
Q

Plasma lipoprotein produced primarily in the liver as well as ingested food

A

Cholesterol

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75
Q

Seen in inherited diseases, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, cholestais and in the case of some drugs.

A

Hypercholesterolemia

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76
Q

Abnormally low cholesterol values could be due to decreased absorption, production and altered _____

A

metabolism

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77
Q

BUN, serum creatinine, urine protein/ creatinine ratio and SDMA are all ____ assays

A

Kidney assays

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78
Q

Used to evaluate kidney function based on its ability to remove nitrogenous wase from blood

A

BUN

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79
Q

This test is not very sensitive and only detects kidney failure at 75%

A

BUN and Creatinine

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80
Q

When the kidney is not functioning properly, ____ is not being removed

A

Urea

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81
Q

______ _____ diets may increase BUN

A

High protein diets

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82
Q

BUN may also be elevated due to ________

A

Dehydration

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83
Q

Diffuses out of muscle cell and into body fluids

A

Creatinine

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84
Q

Creatinine is eliminated in _____

A

Urine

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85
Q

Used to evaluate renal function

A

Creatinine

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86
Q

Azotemia is when BUN and creatinine are _____

A

Elevated

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87
Q

Measures urinary protein loss

A

Urine protein/Creatinine ratio

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88
Q

Used to screen for early renal disease, monitor the course of renal disease, and assess therapeutic response

A

Urine protein/creatinine

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89
Q

In healthy dogs, the protein/creatinine ratio should be ___

A

Less than 1

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90
Q

Ratio indicating pre renal or functional origin

A

1-5

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91
Q

Ratio that indicates renal disease

A

>5

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92
Q

Protein/Creatinine ratio may be falsely elevated due to what?

A

Fever, exercise, change in temperature

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93
Q

Methylated arginine amino acid

A

SDMA (Symmetric dimethylarginine)

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94
Q

SDMA is excreted by _____

A

kidneys

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95
Q

SDMA is specific for kidney disease and increases earlier than creatnine allowing detection as early as ____% loss to ____ % loss

A

25%-40% loss

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96
Q

As ____ decreases, SDMA increases

A

GFR

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97
Q

True or false, SDMA is NOT affected by other non-kidney diseases

A

True

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98
Q

Lean muscle mass impacts creatinine but not ____

A

SDMA

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99
Q

Reduced urine SG typically occurs when there is on average a _____ loss of GFR

A

67%

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100
Q

Trypsin, Amylase, Lipase are all ____ assays

A

Pancreas assay

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101
Q

Proteolytic enzyme

A

Trypsin

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102
Q

Trypsin is more readily detected in ___ than in blood

A

Feces

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103
Q

True of false, absence of trypsin in feces is abnormal

A

True

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104
Q

Two fecal tests used for Trypsin

A

Test tube method utilizing Knox Gelatin

X-Ray Film Test

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105
Q

Using the test tube method, failure to gel indicates _____

A

presence of trypsin

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106
Q

Primary source for Amylase

A

Pancreas (exocrine)

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107
Q

Increased levels of ______ indicate acute pancreatitis, flare ups of chronic pancreatitis, and obstruction of pancreatic ducts

A

Amylase

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108
Q

Primary source of Lipase

A

Pancreas (exocrine)

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109
Q

Functions to break down long chain fatty acids of lipids

A

Lipase

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110
Q

Lipase assays are more sensitive to pancreatitis than ____

A

amylase

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111
Q

Other pancreas tests include endocrine function of ____ and ____

A

Glucose and Fructosamine

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112
Q

Utilization of glucose depends on the amount of ____ and ____ produced by the pancreas

A

insulin and glucagon

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113
Q

For glucose tests what should be separated from serum/plasma immediately after collection

A

RBCs

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114
Q

What happens if plasma is left in contact with RBCs at room temperature?

A

Glucose levels may drop 10%/hr

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115
Q

What pancreas test is not effected by hemolysis

A

Glucose

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116
Q

More specific indicator of pancreatic endocrine activity than glucose

A

Fructosamine

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117
Q

Fructosamine represents binding between glucose and ____ ____

A

serum protein

118
Q

Provides an indication of the average glucose levels over the life span of the protein (1-2 weeks)

A

Fructosamine

119
Q

Fructosamine is not affected by ____

A

stress

120
Q

Increased levels of Fructosamine indicate what?

A

Persistent hypergylcemia - diabetes mellitus

121
Q

Used to diagnose Addison’s disease (Hypoadrenocorticism) or Cushing’s disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)

A

ACTH stimulation test

122
Q

If ACTH results are low, it indicates

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

123
Q

If ACTH results are high, it indicates

A

hyperadrenocorticism

124
Q

Dexmathasone suppression tests evaluate adrenal glands differently by using the adrenal ______ ____

A

Feedback loops

125
Q

Measures and compares levels of cortisol in an animals blood stream before and after it receives an injection of dexamethasone

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

126
Q

Confirms or replaces the ACTH test for Cushing’s disease

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

127
Q

Measure and compares levels of cortisol in an animal’s bloodstream before and after it receives an injection of dexamethasone

A

Dexamethasone suppresion test

128
Q

Post injection, healthy animals show suppressed _____ levels

A

cortisol

129
Q

_____ hormones influence metabolic rate, growth, and differentiation of all body cells

A

Thyroid

130
Q

Assay that function for the maintenance of water balance

A

Electrolyte assays

131
Q

Most commonly analyzed in electrolyte assays

A

Calcium, inorganic phosphorus, potassium, sodium, chloride, magnesium

132
Q

Maintenance of neuromuscular excitability and tone as well as activity of many enzymes

A

Calcium

133
Q

Functions in facilitation of blood coagulation

A

Calcium

134
Q

Calcium is usually ______ related to inorganic phosphorus concentration

A

inversely

135
Q

What does hypercalcemia indicate?

A

Young, growing animals

Renal failure, Addison’s disease, Vitamin D toxicity, and in some cases cancer

136
Q

What does hypercalcemia indicate?

A

Muscle tremors, weakness, convulsions

Milk fever, eclampsia

137
Q

Found 80% in bones

A

Inorganic phosphorus

138
Q

Composition of inorganic phosphorus

A

Nucleic acids, phospholipids

139
Q

As phosphorus concentration _______, calcium concentration _____

A

decreases, increases

140
Q

Hyperphosphatemia may indicate

A

hemolysis, hyperthyroidism, renal disease

141
Q

Hypophosphatemia may be indicated due to

A

Lab error (#1 cause), renal loss, transcellular shifting, decreased absorption

142
Q

Major cation of plasma and interstitial fluid

A

Sodium

143
Q

Sodium is vital in _____ and ______

A

pH balance, and acid-base balance

144
Q

What are some causes of Hypernatremia?

A

PD, CHF, Gi losses, liver disease

145
Q

What are some causes of hyponatremia?

A

Excessive water loss, inadequate intake, salt gain

146
Q

Major intracellular cation

A

Potassium

147
Q

What is hypokalemia associated with?

A

Alkalosis, inadequate intake, and fluid loss

148
Q

What is hyperkalemia associated with?

A

renal failure, urinary tract obstruction or rupture, cardiac arrythmia

149
Q

Found in all body tissues, 50% in bones

A

Magnesium

150
Q

Activates enzyme systems and involved in production and decomposition of acetylcholine

A

Magnesium

151
Q

What is associated with hypomagnesemia

A

Decreased intake, GI losses, sweating in endurance horses

152
Q

What is associated with hypermagnesemia?

A

Hemolysis, increased intake

153
Q

Main extracellular anion

A

Chloride

154
Q

Important in water distribution, osmotic pressure, and normal anion/cation ratio

A

Chloride

155
Q

What is associated with hyperchloremia

A

Acidosis, chloride retention, and drug administration

156
Q

What is associated with hypocholemia?

A

Alkalosis, V/D, fluids, sweating

157
Q

Aids in transport of carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs

A

Bicarbonate

158
Q

Frequently estimated from blood carbon dioxide levels

A

Bicarbonate

159
Q

What blood is preffered for Bicarbonate measurement?

A

Arterial blood

160
Q

Creatine Kinase (aka creatine phosphokinase (CPK) is primarily produced in _______ muscles and the _____

A

striated muscles and brain

161
Q

One of the most organ specific enzymes available

A

CPK

162
Q

What does it mean if you aspirate blood during a FNA

A

Blood vessel was hit, or tumor is extremely vascular

163
Q

____ cell tumors bleed a lot more

A

Mast cell

164
Q

What is seen with suppurative (purulent) inflammation

A

Primarily neutrophils

165
Q

What is seen with pyogranulomatous inflammation?

A

Primarily neutrophils and macrophages

166
Q

What is een with Eosinophilic inflammation

A

Eosinophils with neutrophils

167
Q

Neutrophils are seen in _____ and non _____ inflammation

A

septic and non-septic

168
Q

Eosinophils are often seen in the presence of

A

allergies, forein protein, inflammation

169
Q

Cells that are round with eccentric nucleus

A

Mast cells

170
Q

Benign tumors of the adipocytes

A

Lipoma

171
Q

True or false, cells present in neoplasia are of different tissues

A

False, cells present are of same tissue

172
Q

Any unusual variation in overall cell size

A

Anisokaryosis

173
Q

Variability in size and shape of the same cell

A

Pleomorphism

174
Q

Anisokaryosis and pleomorphism are both indicators of what?

A

Malignancy

175
Q

Indications for abdominocentesis

A

evaluating abdominal disease, obtain fluid sample

176
Q

For abdominocentesis, introduce the needle into the _____ cavity

A

Peritoneal

177
Q

For thoracocentesis, introduce the needle into the ____ cavity

A

pleural

178
Q

Indications for transtracheal wash

A

evaluate respiratory disease

179
Q

Indication for arthrocentesis

A

aspiration of joint fluid or injection of medication

180
Q

Indications for a CSF tap

A

collection of fluid for diagnostics or to deliver medications

181
Q

Arthrocentesis samples should be placed in ____

A

LTT

182
Q

CSF tap samples should be placed in

A

RTT

183
Q

For CSF taps, ____ ml collected for cytological analysis, and ___ ml for bacterial culture

A

1-5 ml, 0.25 ml

184
Q

What procedures are used for thick fluids?

A

Wedge smear, compression smear, line prep, combination prep

185
Q

Thin fluids should be ____ for 5 minutes at ______ rpm

A

centrifuged, 1000-2000 rpm

186
Q

Clear to straw yellow, transparent, odorless, low numbers

A

Normal body fluids

187
Q

Transudates, exudates and chylous effusion are all ____ fluids

A

abnormal

188
Q

Primarily macrophages, lymphocytes, and mesothelial cells

A

Transudates

189
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis, chylothorax, CHF and liver disease are all causes of ______

A

Transudates

190
Q

Transudates have very low ____ levels and _____ cell counts

A

low protein and nucleated cell counts

191
Q

Exudates often have high numbers of _____

A

neutrophils

192
Q

Very high cell counts, high protein levels and may be maldorous

A

Exudates

193
Q

Exudates are usually caused by acute or chronic _______

A

inflammation

194
Q

Appears milky or like “strawberry milkshake”

A

Chylous fuid

195
Q

Chylous fluid is most common in the ____ cavity

A

Pleural

196
Q

Chylous fluid may be caused by ____ disease

A

Heart disease

197
Q

Chylous fluid contains a predominance of normal, small ____

A

lymphocytes

198
Q

Chylous fluid contain ____ _____ which are visible if stained

A

Fat droplets

199
Q

What species are seasonal polyestrus

A

Cats, sheep, goats, and horses

200
Q

Dogs have what type of cycle?

A

Nonseasonal monoestrus

201
Q

What species are induced ovulators?

A

Cats

202
Q

Gestation length in cats and dogs

A

63 days

203
Q

Gestation length in cows

A

280 days

204
Q

Gestation length in cattle

A

330 days

205
Q

Gestation length in elephants

A

22 months

206
Q

Hormone of the pituitary gland

A

Oxytocin

207
Q

Released during parturition and sucking of mammary glands

A

oxytocin

208
Q

Oxytocin stimulates ___ let down and ___ of uterus

A

Milk let down and contractions of uterus

209
Q

Pregnancy testing at 21 days

A

ultrasound, hormone testing

210
Q

Pregnancy testing at 45-48 days, looking for development of bone

A

radiograph

211
Q

First stool of newborns that consists of material collected in the intestines of the fetus

A

Meconium

212
Q

Thick fluid containing nutrients and antibodies

A

Colostrum

213
Q

More reliable test for breeding

A

Progesterone

214
Q

Number of microorganisms needed to cause disease

A

Infective dose

215
Q

Gram negative bacteria within a cell and are excreted when the cell dies

A

Endotoxins

216
Q

Immunizing agents in vaccines; good antigen

A

Exotoxins

217
Q

Excreted from bacteria into the surrounding medium or tissues

A

Exotoxins

218
Q

Basic unit of measure for bacterial cell morphology

A

Micrometer or micron (u)

219
Q

Shape ranging from cocci to rods

A

Pleomorphic

220
Q

“Chinese letter” pattern of bacteria

A

Palisades

221
Q

Intracellular bodies that are resistant to heat, chemicals and radiation

A

Endospores

222
Q

Can survive in the presence of oxygen but their growth is limited

A

Faculatative anaerobic

223
Q

Used primarily to detect Mycobacterium and Nocardia species

A

Acid-Fast Stain

224
Q

Identified lactose-fermenting organisms and only gram negative bacteria growth

A

MacConkey agar

225
Q

Positive simmons citrate is _____, negative is ____

A

Deep blue, same color (green)

226
Q

Growth on Triple sugar iron slant and butt indicate fermentable sugar. Acidic is _____, alkaline is ____ and means no fermentation

A

Yellow, Red

227
Q

Positive Urea media is _____

A

pink

228
Q

Liquid media used to grow anaerobic bacteria to detrmine oxygen tolerance

A

Thiglycollate

229
Q

Used to culture for antibiotic susceptibility testing

A

Tripticase Soy

230
Q

Tests that differentiate staphs, streps, and coliforms

A

Catalase test

231
Q

Used to tell staph aureus from environmental staph

A

Coagulase test

232
Q

Used to tell environmental streps from strep agalactiae

A

CAMP test

233
Q

Arrowhead formation of this test indicates positive results

A

CAMP test

234
Q

Contagious pathogens in milk

A

S. aureus, S. agalactiae

235
Q

Gram postive cocci clusters, usually gray/white color with no hemolysis

A

Environmental staph

236
Q

Found on infected udder, dirty bedding; appears gray/white, doubgle zone of beta hemolysis; catalase/coagulase positive; Gram positive cocci clusters

A

Staph aureus

237
Q

Catalase negative, CAMP test negative; Gram positive cocci chains

A

Environmental strep

238
Q

Found on cow’s udder; contagious; beta hemolysis; catalse negative, CAMP positive; gram postive cocci chains

A

S. agalactiae

239
Q

Large, gray and round, mucoid, occasional beta hemolysis; round pink colonies with pink precipitate (MacConkey agar); catalase negative; gram negative rods in chains

A

E. coli

240
Q

Also known as coliforms; large, gray mucoid, occasional beta hemolysis; Round pink colonies that look like fish eyes (MacConkey agar); catalase negative; gram negative rods in chains

A

Klebsiella

241
Q

Not as common pathogens in milk:

A

Yeast, Prothetica, Mycoplasma bovis (contagious)

242
Q

Can be caused by penicillin treatment; looks like staph; catalase positive; gram positive buds

A

yeast

243
Q

Incubation time of yeast

A

48 hours

244
Q

Considered to contaminate; spread through milking procedures; cow’s milk will be “clinical”; look like wax droplets on agar plate; catalase positive; large gram positive ovals

A

Prototheca

245
Q

Cows must be isolated for life; source of infection is cows with URIs; requires routine screening of bulk tank and milk strings to identify

A

M. bovis

246
Q

Most common bacteria found in bulk tanks

A

E. coli

247
Q

Used to identify cows with asymptomatic mastitis

A

Somatic cell counts

248
Q

An increase in leukocytes causes elevated ____

A

SCC

249
Q

Bulk tank SCC should be between

A

150,000 cells/ml to 200,000 cells/ml

250
Q

Causes bumble foot in avians

A

Staphylococcus

251
Q

Seen in food poisoning, skin infections and post surgical infections

A

Staphylococcus

252
Q

Associated with Lancefield groups. Do not form endospores, aerobic, purple cocci in chains; grow best on blood agars

A

Streptococcus

253
Q

Strep pyogenes

A

sore throat in people

254
Q

Strep agalactiae

A

Major cause of bovine mastitis

255
Q

Srep disgalactiae

A

Minor cause of mastitis

256
Q

Strep equi

A

Strangles in horses

257
Q

Strep zooepidemicus

A

Genital infection, wound infection

258
Q

Strep fecalis, strep equismilis

A

Urinary infections, Infection in young pigs

259
Q

Strep duran, strep suis

A

Diarrhea in foals, cervical lymphadentitis in pigs

260
Q

It is important NOT to culture this organism due to anthrax

A

Bacillus

261
Q

Aerobic, non-motile, gram positive bacilli

A

Bacillus

262
Q

Bacillus spore can live up to ____ years

A

40 years

263
Q

Anaerobic, gram positive bacilli; spore forming; invasive and noninvasive

A

Clostridium

264
Q

Aerobic, motile, gram positive bacilli, transmitted in soil, feces, genital secretions and moldy hay

A

Listeria

265
Q

Most prevalent during summer months as it is spread by house flies

A

Erysipelothrix

266
Q

Gram Negative Facultative Anaerobic Bacilli

A

E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Pasteurella, Hemophilus, Actinobacillus

267
Q

Ferment lactose with gas production

A

E. coli

268
Q

2 forms of Salmonella infections

A

Enteric and Septic

269
Q

Stain is concentrated on ends of rods, 2 major species important in vet med

A

Pasteurella

270
Q

Two important forms of pasteurella

A

Pastuerella multocida. hemolytic

271
Q

Snuffles in rabbits, Fowl cholera, cattle pneumonia, normal flora in cats/dogs mouths

A

Pasteurella multocida

272
Q

Shipping fever in cattle, pneumonia, associated with stress

A

Pasteurella hemolytic

273
Q

Infection thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle, Glasser’s disease in young pigs

A

Hemophilus

274
Q

Wooden tongue in cattle, septicemia, purulent infection of joints and kidneys

A

Actinobacillus

275
Q

Slightly curved or straight rods; cigar shaped rods; Blue-green pigment with fruity odor

A

Pseudomonas

276
Q

Brucella, Bordetella, Francisella are all what kind of bacteria?

A

Gram negative aerobic bacilli

277
Q

Tularemia in rabbits sheep and wild animals spread through wood ticks and contaminated food and water

A

Francisella

278
Q

Gram negative cocci responsible for bovine KCS (pink eye)

A

Moraxella

279
Q

Bacillus with beaded appearance, calf diptheria, foor rot, liver abcesses

A

Fusobacterium

280
Q

Contagious foot rot in sheep

A

Bacteroides

281
Q

True venereal disease; slender curved rods or spiral commas; spontaneous abortion in cattle, hemorrhagic enteritis, swine dysentery

A

Campylobacter

282
Q

Lumpy jaw in cattle, pleuritis in dogs, mastitis in sows. Yellow sulfer like granules

A

Actinomyces

283
Q

Acid fast positive; Gram postive rods; systemic and local infection in dogs and cats and mastitis in cattle

A

Nocardia

284
Q

Johne’s disease, chronic disease with lesion in lungs and lymph nodes

A

Mycobacterium

285
Q

Mode of transmission may be Congenital via umbilical vein

A

Mycobacterium

286
Q

Smallest free living cells

A

Mycoplasma

287
Q

Tightly coiled spiral rods, transmitted in urine

A

Leptospira

288
Q

Flagella, cause lyme disease and borreliosis in birds

A

Borrelia

289
Q

Intracellular bacteria associated with RMSF, Q fever in humans, and mastitis

A

Rickettsia

290
Q

Intracellular bacteria causing psittacosis in birds, abortion in ewes, and diarrhea in calves with inadequate colostrum

A

Chlamydia

291
Q

All birds entering the US must be quarantines for _____ days due to this disease

A

30-45 days, Chlamydia